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Indiana Jurisprudence- HFA > Indiana Jurisprudence- J. Sims > Flashcards

Indiana Jurisprudence- J. Sims Flashcards

1
Q

The board may issue a temporary HFA license to a person who (5 items)

A

-Has applied for HFA license
-Has a current license in another state
-Has met educational requirements
-Has completed a board approved training program
-has successfully completed the nab and scored an approving score

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2
Q

How many members of the board constitute a quorum?

A

7 (of 13)

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3
Q

Who chooses the board?

A

The governor, except state appointed positions

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4
Q

Practice of HFA includes: (POD DC)

A

Planning
Organizing
Developing

Directing
Control

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5
Q

How much of an AIT’s internship can take place at a setting other than his preceptors facility?

A

20%

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6
Q

One Semester equals how many CEUs?

A

15 CEUs

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7
Q

One quarter equals how many CEUs?

A

10 CEUs

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8
Q

What is the maximum CEU from college credits per cycle?

A

20 CEUs

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9
Q

How long must an HFA retain copies of CEU completion?

A

3 years

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10
Q

How often must containers for infectious waste be disinfected?

A

Every time they are emptied unless the surface is covered by a protective barrier (bag. liner)

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11
Q

Facilities shall develop written policy regarding universal precautions that? (3 items)

A

-Require use of universal precautions

-Provide sanctions, including dismissal, if warranted for not exercising universal precautions

-Prohibit the facility against retaliating against any person who files a complaint under this rule

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12
Q

Regarding universal precautions- disinfectant solutions shall:

A

-be a germicide registered with the EPA for use as a hospital disinfectants

-Be a sodium hypochlorite solution, dated and not used after 24 hours as follows:

-minimum of 1:100 dilutions (1/4 cup of 2.5% common household bleach in 1 gallon water.)

  • 1:10 dilution (one part 2.5% common household bleach in nine parts water) shall be used when a blood culture or OPIM spills occurs in the laboratory setting
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13
Q

Any action taken by the facility to control the resident behavior or maintain residence with the lesser amount of effort by the facility not in the residence best interest is considered what?

A

Convenience

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14
Q

Neglect includes:

A

-An act or omission that place is a resident in a situation that mean danger, the residence, life or health.

-Abandoning or cruelly confining the resident

-Depriving the resident of necessary supports, including food, clothing, shelter in medical care.

-Depriving the resident of education as required by the state

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15
Q

Facilities, visiting hours should be at least how many hours a day?

A

Nine hours

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16
Q

And intrafacility transfer requires how many days notice?

A

2 days

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17
Q

In the absence of safety, health or urgent medical need an inter facility transfer requires how many days notice?

A

30 days

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18
Q

How many working days does the licensee have to notify the department of a vacancy in the administrators position?

A

Three working days

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19
Q

How long must a facility make available upon request survey reports?

A

2 years

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20
Q

How many annual in-service hours are needed for nursing?

A

12 hours

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21
Q

How many annual inservice hours does non-nursing staff members need?

A

6 hours

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22
Q

A physical exam is required for each employee within how much time prior to employment?

A

One month

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23
Q

True or false

Each new employee must have a TB test read prior to start ?

A

True

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24
Q

Requirements for DON (3 items)

A
  • Must be an RN
  • Completed a nursing management course with a clinical component
    -One year of nurse supervisory experience within the past five years
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25
Q

How often must the facilities infection control program review it’s findings?

A

Quarterly

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26
Q

Facility must require staff to wash their hands after____________?

A

Each direct resident contact

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27
Q

After 1984 facilities, right at least one toilet and laboratory for how many residents?

A

Each 8 residents

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28
Q

What areas require 15 foot candle light intensity? (CUJ)

A
  • Corridors, interior ramps
  • utility room
  • Janitors closet
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29
Q

What areas require 20 foot candle light intensity? (STDRR)

A

-Stairways
-Toilet and bathrooms
-Dining areas
-Resident care room
-Reading in bed lamp

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30
Q

What areas require 40 foot candlelight light intensity? (RN)

A

-Recreation
-Nurse’s station

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31
Q

What areas require 60 foot candle light intensity? (D)

A

-Nurses desk

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32
Q

What areas require 75 foot candle light intensity? (FM)

A

-Food prep and utensil washing

-Medicine cabinet

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33
Q

Dictated MD notes must be filed in the resident’s clinical record within how many hours of the visit?

A

72 hours

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34
Q

dictated MD notes must be signed within how many days of the transcription?

A

Seven days

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35
Q

The written notes become a part of the permanent record within how many hours unless emergency situation Warren’s immediate documentation?

A

72 hours

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36
Q

Restraints or seclusion may be authorized by licensed nurse for a period not to exceed how many hours?

A

12 hours

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37
Q

In order to continue to use the restraints beyond the initial 12 hours what must be obtained?

A

Physician order

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38
Q

The legal representative must be informed of the need for a restraint or seclusion at the time of the initial order or within how many hours after the restraint is applied?

A

24 hours

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39
Q

Use of restraints must be reviewed by the IDT within what time period?

A

One month after application, then 30 days to the first 90 days and quarterly afterwards

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40
Q

How many minutes of social work required per resident per week?

A

15 minutes

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41
Q

How many minutes of activities required per resident per week?

A

30 minutes

42
Q

Assessments have to be conducted no later than how many days after the date of admission?

A

14 days

43
Q

How soon after a significant change, must assessment be conducted?

A

Promptly

44
Q

How often must a full assessment be conducted?

A

Once every 12 months

45
Q

How’s often must a resident be examined and have assessments revised is necessary?

A

Quarterly

46
Q

The clinical record must contain: (PI-CAP)

A

-progress notes
-Information to identify resident
-Care plan/services provided
-Assessments
-PAS-R

47
Q

Transfer form must include these seven items:

A

1 identification data
2 name of the transferring institution
3 name of the receiving institution and date of transfer
4 resident’s personal property when transferred to an acute care facility
5 nurses notes
6 diagnosis
7 date of chest, x-ray and skin test for tuberculosis

48
Q

Minimum amount of awake staff with current CPR and first aid certification at all times.

A

1

49
Q

True or false- can a QMA administer injectable medication?

A

False

50
Q

True or false- Can a QMA administer PRN medication?

A

True- with authorization from a licensed nurse or a physician and must receive authorization every time PRN medication is given

51
Q

For discharged residents how soon must the clinical record be completed?

A

Within 70 days of discharge

52
Q

What is the minimum amount of play period ms are to be provided daily for children??

A

Minimum- 2 play periods

53
Q

How often must a physician or dietitian evaluate diet orders?

A

Every six months

54
Q

How often must a medical doctor confirm a clear liquid diet?

A

Every 48 hours

55
Q

How often should weights be recorded?

A

Monthly

56
Q

After Admission, how often should heights be recorded?

A

Only as ordered by a physician

57
Q

Facility should provide a program for developmentally delayed individuals which assures: (2 items)

A

-Designated staff members qualifying with a minimum two years experience, working with developmentally delayed individuals

-the HAB plan is reviewed and updated

58
Q

How often should psychological evaluation’s be completed for children?

A

Every three years

59
Q

How often should psychological evaluation to be completed for adults?

A

Every five years

60
Q

Current personal records for employees must include:

A

The name and address of the employee

Social Security number

Date of beginning employment

Past employment, experience and education, if applicable

Professional, licensure certification, a registration, number thing, assistant certificate, or letter of completion of applicable

Position in the facility and job description

Documentation of orientation to the facility and specific job skills

Signed acknowledgment of orientation to residents rights

Performance evaluations in accordance with the facilities policy

Date and reason for separation

61
Q

DNS functions includes: (5 items)

A

-communication with ED physician regarding resident care, status, and incident and problems

-Plan for indirect nursing services

-Provide nursing training

-Supervise nursing personnel

-Sure clinical records are maintained

62
Q

Bathing facilities (bathtubs or showers) 1 is required for the initial ?- ? amount of residents? Then 1 for every addional ? residents.

A

1 for the initial 3-22 residents

1 for every 15 additional residents

63
Q

Upon admission residents are given: (10 items)

A

-Admission agreement
-Monthly rates
-Services provided
-Policies regarding admissions and discharges
-Voluntary termination of admission agreement by resident
-Alzheimer’s, and secured unit disclosure form
-Overnight guest policy
-Abuse statement
-Contact info multiple agencies
-Advance directives descriptions

64
Q

Who investigates complaints against the Healthcare facility administrator!

A

The attorney general

65
Q

The facility must make stamps/postage available to the residents. Who is responsible for paying for postage?

A

The resident

66
Q

How often must a healthcare facility administrator renew their license?

A

Every two years

67
Q

HFA exam includes knowledge of (10 items):

A

-Applicable standards of environmental health and safety
-local health and safety regulation
-General administration
-Psychology of patient care
-Principles of medical care
-Pharmaceutical services in drug handling
-Personal and social care
-Therapeutic and supportive services in long-term care
-departmental organization and. management
-Community interrelationships

68
Q

Infectious waste treatment affective to control pathogenic qualities (SCID IT):

A

Steam sterilization
Chemical disinfection
Incineration
Discharge and sanitary sewer or septic

Irradiation
Thermal inactivation

69
Q

When transporting infectious materials offsite (3 items):

A
  • Label container with name address and phone number facility entry mandatory
  • Form with above info description of waste in signature of responsible person
  • outer packaging must contain biohazard symbol
70
Q

What does ERP stand for?

A

Expert review panel

71
Q

What is the ERP duty?

A

Provides good faith consultation advice to HIV in HBV, infected healthcare worker seeking advice

72
Q

Inter-facility discharge notice must include appeal rights. A written appeal must be filed within how many days

A

10 days

73
Q

An inter-facility discharge appeal hearing must happen within how many days?

A

23 days

74
Q

What is HBsAG ?

A

Signifies the presence of hepatitis B antigen, which indicates hepatitis B infection

75
Q

What does HBV stand for?

A

Hepatitis B

76
Q

What does HVC stand for?

A

Hepatitis C

77
Q

If an applicant exhausts all three attempts of the NAB examination within one year, they shall appear before the board, and may be required to submit the following three items:

A

-Proof of the completion of at least 200 contact hours of continuing education approved by the board
-New application for entry into the administrator in training program
-Proof of completion of the required administrator in training program

78
Q

Who who notify it’s the board of a discontinuance or completion of an AIT?

A

The preceptor

79
Q

The RCA must complete how many hours in a long-term care facility?

A

80 hours

80
Q

HFA management areas (6): (ORP-RFE)

A

Organizational
Resident care
Personnel
Regulatory
Financial
Environmental

81
Q

Hot water temperature for all bathing and washing facilities, use automatic control valves and maintain a temperature between?

A

100 to 120°

82
Q

Upon the admission a resident must have physician orders for the immediate care that is based on a physical examination not sooner than how many days prior to admission?

A

30 days

83
Q

What are the requirements for initial dementia training?

A

Six hours in six months

84
Q

What is the maximum fine they can be in photos for an offense that represents substantial probability of the death or life-threatening situation?

A

$10,000

85
Q

Resident funds must be returned within how many days upon death?

A

30 days

86
Q

A TB skin test can be done how many months before admission?

A

Three months

87
Q

How many dietitian hours are required for the first one to 60 residents?

A

4 hours

88
Q

Dietician hours- After the initial 60 residents, one additional hour has to be provided for this amount of additional residents.

A

One hours added for every additional 30 residents

89
Q

How many continuing education credits does an HFA need every two years?

A

40 credits

90
Q

A person not licensed as an HFA, cannot use the term assistant HFA.
What titles can they use?

A

Assistant to the administrator, and/or administrative assistant

91
Q

The board may consider waving the AIT based on prior experience. AIT requirements may be satisfied by these two scenarios:

A

-One year of active work experience as a licensed HFA
- a masters degree in healthcare administration, and six months of active experiences license HFA in another state

92
Q

Residents must be free from the following forms of abuse: (7items)

A

-sexual abuse
-Physical abuse
-Mental abuse
-Corporal punishment
-Exploitation
-Neglect
-Involuntary seclusion

93
Q

If it facility is deemed responsible for the death or life threatening condition by the result of their actions the commissioner may suspend new admissions for a period not to exceed how many days?

A

45 days 

94
Q

True or false can the personnel record include the marital status of an employee??

A

False

95
Q

The Director of nursing to serve as a charge nurse only when facility has an average daily occupancy of this many residents or fewer?

A

60 or fewer

96
Q

The facility has 54 residence. How many bathing facilities should there be?

A

53 to 67 residents need 4 showers/bathtubs

97
Q

What’s the maximum amount of hours between a substantial evening meal and breakfast?

A

14 hours without snack, 16 with a nourishing snack

98
Q

Physician visits must conform to the following schedule:

A

Once every 30 days for the first 90 days after admission, then at least every 60 days there after

99
Q

How often should a developmental assessment be conducted?

A

Annually

100
Q

AIT requirements may be satisfied by any of the following:

A
101
Q

Abbreviations for Foot Candle Light groups

A

15- CUJ
20- STDRR
40- RN
60- D
75- FM

Indiana Jurisprudence- HFA (1 decks)

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