Incorrect Test Qs Flashcards

1
Q

An individual was denied coverage under Social Security because his disability did not meet the strict definition of total disability used by Social Security. Which of the following would provide disability income coverage?

a. Medicare Supplement Insurance
b. Major Medical Supplement
c. Workers Comp
d. SIS rider

A

d. SIS rider

Social Insurance Supplement (SIS) riders are used to supplement or replace benefits that might be payable under Social Security Disability. If the insured has been denied coverage under social security, a Social Insurance Supplement or social security rider would be acceptable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

An Employer is no longer able to afford the group health insurance plan and the plan terminates. However, one of the employees continues to receive coverage under the plan. Which of the following explains the reason for the continued coverage?

a. A nonforfeiture value is in place.
b. The employee is totally disabled.
c. The employee is an executive covered under the plan.
d. The employee’s health savings account pays for the coverage.

A

b. The employee is totally disabled.

Most plans provide for a reasonable coverage extension beyond plan termination for totally disabled employees.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

All of the following are true regarding the waiver of cost of insurance rider EXCEPT

a. The rider cannot waive the cost of premiums that accumulate cash value.
b. The rider expires when the insured reaches age 60.
c. The rider waives insurance costs in the event the insured becomes disabled.
d. The rider is only applicable to universal life policies.

A

b. The rider expires when the insured reaches age 60.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which dividend option will increase the death benefit?

a. Extended term
b. Reduced paid-up
c. Paid up additions
d. Accumulation

A

C. Paid up additions.

Paid-up additions option uses the dividend to purchase small amounts of the same type of insurance as the original policy. The additional insurance is paid up by the dividend.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of the following describes the relationship between a capital sum and a principal sum?

a. Principal sums vary, while capital sums do not.
b. Capital sums vary, while principal sums do not.
c. Principal sums are percentages of capital sums.
d. Capital sums are percentages of principal sums.

A

d. Capital sums are percentages of principal sums.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following is NOT a Medicaid qualifier?

a. Age
b. Residency
c. Insurability
d. Income level

A

c. Insurability

Given on a need basis - blind, disabled, pregnant, over 65, or caring for children receiving welfare benefits.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

In life insurance, which of the following is NOT required to have an insurable interest in the insured?

a. The beneficiary
b. The policyowner
c. The insured
d. The applicant

A

a. The beneficiary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

An individual buys a disability policy May 1 with a waiver of premium rider. The insured becomes disabled June 1. It is determined the insured is permanently totally disabled on July 1, and he receives his first benefit payment on July 15. When does the waiver of premium provision start?

A

June 1. Retroactive to the date of disability once the waiting period has been satisfied.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The Commissioner has determined that a producer is ineligible for appointment by an insurer. The commissioner must notify the insurer within

a. 5 days
b. 10 days
c. 14 days
d. 20 days

A

a. 5 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which of the following is provided by skilled medical personnel to those in need of occasional medical assistance or rehabilitative care?

a. Home health care
b. Skilled care
c. Intermediate care
d. Custodial care

A

c. Intermediate care

For example, changing a bandage or administering medications.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

HMOs are known as what type of plans?

A. service
B. Health savings
C. Consumer driven
D. Reimbursement

A

a. Service

Provides benefits in the form of services rather than in the form of reimbursement for the services.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

All of the following could qualify as a group for the purpose of purchasing group health insurance EXCEPT

a. Multiple Employer Trust
b. Single employer with 14 employees.
c. An association of 35 people.
d. Labor union.

A

c. An association of 35 people.

Groups must be together for the purpose of something other than purchasing insurance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

In some cases, in order for an insurer to legally disclose privileged information to appropriate sources, the insured must sign an auth form. What is the maximum time that can pass between completion of form and disclosure of info?

a. 1 month
b. 6 months
c. 1 year
d. 2 yrs

A

c. 1 year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Life insurance can provide which of the following?

a. Survivor protection
b. Protection against outliving one’s assets
c. Creation of a future liability
d. Liquidation of one’s estate

A

a. Survivor protection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

All of the following are true of annually renewable term insurance EXCEPT

a. The death benefit remains level.
b. The policy must be renewed no matter what happens to one’s health.
c. Proof of insurability must be provided at each renewal.
d. The premium increases each year.

A

c. Proof of insurability must be provided at each renewal.

This kind of policy can be renewed each year without proof of insurability but premium does increase with attained age.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which source of underwriting information includes information on the applicant’s character, general reputation, personal habits, and mode of living?

a. Physician’s statement
b. Agent’s report
c. Investigative consumer report
d. MIB report

A

c. Investigative consumer report

17
Q

Which of the following is a daily nursive and rehabilitative care that can only be provided by medical personnel, under the direction of a physician?

a. Assisted living
b. Skilled care
c. Intermediate care
d. Custodial care

A

b. Skilled care

Key word: under direction of a physician

18
Q

Which of the following is consideration on the part of the insurer?

a. Paying the premium
b. Underwriting
c. Paying a claim
d. Decreasing premium accounts

A

c. Paying a claim

The binding force in any contract is consideration. Consideration on the part of the INSURED is payment of premiums and health representations in the app. Consideration of the insurer is the promise to pay claims.

19
Q

A whole life policy is surrendered for a reduced paid-up policy. The cash value in the new policy will

a. Remain the same
b. Decrease over time
c. Reduce to the pre-surrender value
d. Continue to increase

A

d. Continue to increase

The new policy continues to build its own cash value and will remain in force until the insured’s death or maturity.

20
Q

To purchase insurance, the policyowner must face the possibility of losing money or something of value in the event of loss. What is this concept called?

A

Insurable interest

21
Q

Which term describes an individual who is domiciled and licensed as a resident producer in a state other than Michigan?

A

Nonresident producer

Foreign refers to the AGENCY, not the producer.

22
Q

A core Medicare supplement policy (Plan A) will cover all of the following expenses EXCEPT

a. Part A deductible
b. The first 3 pints of blood
c. 20% of Part B coinsurance amounts for Medicate-approved services
d. Part A coinsurance

A

a. Part A deductible

Only refers to core benefits.

23
Q

If an insured purchases an insurance policy with a large deductible, what risk management technique is the insured exercising?

a. Avoidance
b. Sharing
c. Retention
d. Transfer only

A

c. Retention

For a lower premium, the customer must RETAIN a larger amount of loss should it occur.

24
Q

All of the following statements are true regarding an Ordinary (straight) Life Policy EXCEPT

a. It does not have a guaranteed death benefit
b. It is funded by a level premium
c. It builds cash value
d. If the insured lives to 100, the policy matures and the face amount is paid to the insured.

A

a. It does not have a guaranteed death benefit

This is a “level” policy and guarantees a death benefit.

25
Q

An individual is approaching retirement age and is concerned about having proper coverage should he have to be placed in a LTC facility. His agent informs him that LTC policies would provide necessary coverage at all of the following levels except

a. Intermediate
B. Skilled
c. Acute
d. Custodial

A

c. Acute

Acute care is covered by medical.

26
Q

Who is required to inform applicants about information gathering practices?

A

The producer

27
Q

Which of the following could reduce the amount of a death benefit?

a. Adding a family term rider
b. Making premium payments within the grace period
c. Choosing a paid-up addition dividend options
d. Failure to repay a policy loan

A

d. Failure to repay a policy loan

28
Q

Variable life insurance is regulated by all of the following entities EXCEPT

A. The Department of Insurance and/or Financial Services
B. FINRA
c. US Treasury
d. SEC

A

c. US Treasury

29
Q

Risk is defined as…

A

The chance of loss.

Not the CERTAINTY of loss.

30
Q

Do fixed annuities provide a hedge against inflation?

A

No, as they are affected by interest rates