Income Tax Flashcards

1
Q

As a direct result of the rules under TCJA 2017, qualifying dividends are taxed at set _____ breakpoints.
It used to be related to tax breakpoints.

A

Dollar Breakpoints.

It used to be related to tax breakpoints.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

In year 1 Justin earns $700 from delivering papers for a newspaper company and he is treated as self-employed. In year 2 the newspaper company hires him as an employee and pays him $700 as W-2 income with no federal or state income tax withholding. Does Justin have to file a tax return in either year?

A. Year 1: Yes Year 2: Yes
B. Year 1: No Year 2: Yes
C. Year 1: Yes Year 2: No
D. Year 1: No Year 2: No

A

The correct answer is C.

The rule is that a taxpayer must file if he has greater than or equal to $400 of net earnings from self-employment. If the taxpayer does not have self-employment income there is no requirements to filing unless your income exceeds the standard deduction and personal exemption ($0 for 2018 - 2025) for that year.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

If a client’s AGI from last year is greater than $150,000, the safe harbor is __% of current year tax or ___% of prior year tax.

A

90%.

110%.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

In calculating a net operating loss for an individual, which of the following items would not be added back to negative taxable income?

A. Net operating loss deduction
B. Long-term capital losses in excess of short-term capital gains.
C. Section 1202 exclusions
D. None of the above would be added back.

A

D. None of the above would be added back.

The following items are not allowed when figuring an NOL:

  • Any deduction for personal exemptions.
  • Capital losses in excess of capital gains.
  • The section 1202 exclusion.
  • Nonbusiness deductions in excess of nonbusiness income.
  • Net operating loss deduction.
  • The domestic production activities deduction.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

In order for a dividend to be a qualified dividend, the individual must meet the requisite holding period, which is more than __ days in the ___ days surrounding the ex-dividend date.

A

60 days in the 121 days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The 4th quarter federal income tax estimated payment is due by _____ __ of the year following the year the payment is being made for.

A

January 15th.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

NOL losses can only be carried ______, (except for select agricultural or insurance filers).
However, the NOL can only offset 80% of the current year’s income for years after 12/31/17.

A

Forward.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following income(s) is/are NOT subject to Social Security tax?

I. Rental real estate income.
II. Small part-time repair shop income as a proprietor.
III. Shareholder’s share of S corporation’s income in excess of salary.
IV. Income of an individual working as an independent contractor.

A

Option “I” - Income from rental real estate is not subject to self-employment taxes.

Option “III” - A shareholder’s distributive share of S corporation profits is recognized as ordinary income and not subject to self-employment taxes.

Self employment tax is the employee and employer portion of Social Security and Medicare tax for a total of 15.3%.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Self employment tax is the employee and employer portion of Social Security and Medicare tax for a total of __%.

A

15.3%.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How much of state income tax and real estate taxes can be deducted?

A

It is capped at $10,000.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Tax planning fees may no longer be deducted against a taxpayer’s itemized deduction, Schedule A. However, if the taxpayer is self-employed, the portion of services related to the business and not personal may be taken as a deductible expense on the taxpayer’s Schedule __.

A

Schedule C.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Section ____ is applied to the sale of depreciated assets.

A

Section 1245 recapture.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

_____ property includes equipment, patents, copyrights and other intangibles.

A

Depreciable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

With regard to Sections 1245 and 1250, Section 1231 will be applied only when any _____ property is sold at a profit above its original cost.

A

Depreciable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Section _____ applies when:

All or a portion of gain on tangible personal business property resulted from depreciation taken.

A

1245.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Section 1245 recapture is treated as _____ income for the gain realized resulting from depreciation taken that was greater than economic reality.

A

Ordinary.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Abigail was an original investor in, and owns a 25% interest in, Decorate Your Dream LLC, a home decorating company. Abigail paid $50,000 for her interest. This year, Decorate Your Dream did very well and had a profit of $100,000. However, no distributions were made. What is Abigail’s basis in her interest in Decorate Your Dream at the end of this year?

A

$75,000.
Abigail’s original cost basis is increased by her share of the profits. Therefore, her original cost basis of $50,000 is increased by $25,000. If there had been a distribution, this would have reduced Abigail’s adjusted basis in her interest in the company.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Sam’s Turbo Repair, Inc. (STR) purchased a new machine for cleaning and retooling the turbo blades on semi-trucks. The machine cost was $30,000, there was 10% sales tax, and $1,000 delivery and setup fee. What is STR’s basis in the new machine?

A

$34,000.

The machine cost of $30,000 plus the sales tax of $3,000 plus the $1,000 freight is the basis for depreciation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Upon the death of either spouse in a ____ ____ titling, both halves of are stepped to the fair market value regardless of who inherits the descendant’s half.

A

Community Property.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

A single person with no children that provides more than half of the expenses for maintaining residence and necessary expenses for their parent can file as _______, the parent qualifies as a dependent.

A

Head of Household.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

These are requirements to file _______:
The taxpayer must file a separate tax return from the spouse.
The taxpayer must furnish over one-half of the cost of maintaining the household.
The spouse must not be a member of the household during the last six months of the tax year.

A

Head of household.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The five elements of the Qualified Dependent Test are:

A
Gross income.
Support.
Member of household or family (not a qualifying child).
Citizenship or residence.
Joint filing return test.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

A qualifying child must be from a lower _______ than the taxpayer.

A

Generation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

_____ property used in a trade or business is generally a Section 1231 asset, not a capital asset.

A

Depreciable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which of the following is not an above-the-line deduction?

A. Medical expenses.
B. A contribution to an HSA.
C. A contribution to a traditional IRA.
D. Student loan interest.

A

Solution: The correct answer is A.

Medical expenses in excess of 7.5% (Taxpayer Certainty and Disaster Relief Tax Act 2020 made 7.5% permanent) of AGI are deductible below-the-line. All of the other options are above-the-line deductions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

All business deductions are ___ AGI.

A

FOR AGI.

Above the line.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Student loan interest is an “____-the-line” deduction. The amount that can be taken is limited to $_____of interest paid.

A

Above-the-line.

$2,500.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Can money paid for child support be structured in a divorce as to be deductible to the payor spouse for divorces prior to 2019?

A

Yes, if the money to be considered as child support is included in deductible alimony

If an agreement is reached (prior to 12/31/18) between former spouses where the decreed amount of alimony is increased to include child support, then the additional alimony would be taxable to the recipient and deductible to the payor. The additional money cannot be based on any contingency such as with the child reaching the age of majority or death.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

If personal use property is converted to business use the adjusted basis is the _____ of the taxpayer’s adjusted basis or the fair market value on the date of conversion.

A

Lower.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The ____ inventory method is concerned with movement of costs through inventory, not goods. The cost of the last units purchased will be the first costs to be transferred to cost of goods sold when the goods are sold.

A

LIFO.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The ____ method is concerned with movement of costs through inventory, not goods. The cost of the first units purchased are the first costs to be transferred to cost of goods sold when the goods are sold.

A

FIFO.

32
Q

What is the penalty if a tax preparer willfully neglects to report income accurately for a client?

A

The preparer penalty for willful or reckless conduct is the greater of $5,000 or 50% of the income derived by the preparer for the return.

33
Q

What is the penalty for filing a fraudulent income tax return?

A

75% of the deficiency.

34
Q

A taxpayer will be subject to an accuracy-related penalty if he makes a substantial understatement of his tax liability, generally more than __% of the correct tax liability and at least a $_____ tax deficiency.
The penalty imposed is generally __% of the underpayment amount.

A

10%, $5,000.

20%.

35
Q

Taxpayers who donate short term gain property, like a stock with a short-term holding period:
Which value do they use for the determination of the charitable income tax deduction?

A

The lesser of fair market value or adjusted basis for a stock that’s been owned for a less than 1 year.

36
Q

If a hobby activity earns a profit in three out of five years, the _____ has the burden of proof of showing that there is no profit motive, but if there has not been a profit in three out of the last five years, the _____ has the burden of proof.

A
  1. IRS.

2. Taxpayer.

37
Q

Investment interest paid is deductible to the extent of ______.
Not including qualified dividends and long-term capital gains, unless a special election is made to tax these at ordinary income.

A

Net investment income.
=whatever income and gains are taxed at ordinary income.
= short-term capital gains, ordinary dividends, interest income.

38
Q

_____ losses are reimbursements that reduce the loss amount.

A

Casualty losses.

39
Q

Interest paid to acquire an investment is not deductible for ____ bonds.

A

Municipal bonds.

40
Q

___ premiums are deductible if:

  1. The policy must be guaranteed renewable or non-cancelable for the premiums to be deductible.
  2. Premiums paid are deductible but limited based upon age.
A

Long-term Care.

41
Q

No income is required to be reported when renting a personal residence for less than __ days.
Expenses are also disallowed in this situation.

A

15 days.

42
Q

Is uncollected rent deductible?

A

No.

43
Q

A _____ basis taxpayer does not recognize income not received.
If a bad debt was never recognized as income, it cannot be recognized as a loss or a bad debt expense.

A

Cash basis.

44
Q

This type of income includes wages, salaries, Schedule C income, and trade or business income.

A

Active Income.

45
Q

_____ income includes interest, dividends, royalties, and annuities.

A

Portfolio Income.

46
Q

Which of the following is not an add-back item for purposes of calculating the Alternative Minimum Tax (AMT)?

A. Depreciation of property placed in service after 1986.
B. The standard deduction, if taken in lieu of itemized deductions.
C. Passive activity losses.
D. Installment sales undertaken before March 1, 1986.

A

D. Installment sales undertaken before March 1, 1986.

Installment sales executed after March 1, 1986 but not before, are add-back items.

47
Q

For dependent children, unearned income over $_____ is subject to tax at the parent’s tax rates.

A

$2,200.

Double the deduction of $1,100.

48
Q

_____ income is not subject to kiddie tax.

A

Earned income.

49
Q

_____ _____ is a periodic expensing of tangible property, including real and personal property used in business.

A

Cost Recovery.

50
Q

Section 179 deduction is $______ for 2021. However, the amount is reduced dollar for dollar for acquisition amounts above $______ placed into service during 2021.

A

$1,050,000.

$2,620,000.

51
Q

Insurance proceeds which exceed the current basis of destroyed property will not be taxable if the taxpayer replaces that property with similar property within a __ year period from the end of the year in which realization resumed if a natural disaster (fire) or three years from the end of the year in which realization occurred in the event of a government taking (emminent domain).

A

2 year.

52
Q

Losses in a __ Corporation do not flow through to the shareholders and are essentially trapped inside the corporation.

A

C Corporation. So, you do not select this to pass through losses.

53
Q

A __ corporation’s losses flow through to the individual shareholders and can be deducted by the shareholders within limits.

A

S Corporation.

54
Q

A __ corporation that has earnings in excess of reasonable business needs will be subject to the accumulated earnings tax on the excess earnings if they are accumulated by the company.

A

C corporation.

55
Q

__ corporations are not subject to the accumulated earnings tax.
So it’s the better option if you have excess earnings and losses.

A

S corporations.

56
Q

A __ corporation has double taxation of dividends. Therefore, if a business owner withdraws funds from the corporation in the form of a dividend, the dividend will be double taxed. __ corporations do not have double taxation of dividends.

A
  1. C Corporation.

2. S Corporation.

57
Q

A ____ is an entity that must adopt a calendar year for federal income tax purposes.

A

Trust.

58
Q

An ___ is an entity that can elect a fiscal year end for federal income tax purposes.

A

Estate.

Elected by the Executor.

59
Q

A _____ trust can own stock in an S Corporation.

A

Grantor Trust.

Ex. A GRAT.

60
Q

The bargain element of a _____ is an addback for alternative minimum tax purposes.
In addition, since the addback is considered a deferral item for AMT, it would be eligible for the minimum tax credit in subsequent years.

A

ISO.

61
Q

Interest income from a ____ ____ bond is an addback for alternative minimum tax purposes, it is considered an exclusion item.
Exclusion items are not eligible for the minimum tax credit.

A

Private activity bond.

62
Q

Although _____ _____taxes are added back for alternative minimum tax purposes, they are considered an exclusion item. Exclusion items are not eligible for the minimum tax credit.

A

Real Estate Taxes.

63
Q

Property transfers by divorce are treated as acquired by ____ and the transferor’s basis in the property is carried over to the transferee.

A

Gift.

64
Q

Section ___ allows you to deduct more currently so the total tax liability is reduced and the present value of cash flows is increased.

A

Section 179.

65
Q

Section ___ is an upfront business deduction, now at $1,050,000 (2021) that can be used by businesses to reduce tax liabilities.
It’s possible to reduce the deduction to zero, depending how much is placed into service.
If too much is placed into service, the deduction would not have any advantages over other methods of depreciation.

A

Section 179.

66
Q

If the business is deemed to be a Personal Holding Company (PHC) by the IRS, then a penalty tax of __% can be imposed on the undistributed personal holding company income.

A

20%.

67
Q

The risk of the IRS contesting any discounts for publicly traded securities is a significant risk associated with the ___.

A

FLP.

So, publicly traded securities are not ideal for an FLP.

68
Q

In an involuntary conversion, the date of ______, not the payment date, determines the date of recognition.

A

Realization.

69
Q

Section 179 recapture rules apply when the business use of an asset drops below __% for a given year or when the asset is disposed of before it would have been fully _____.

A

50%.

Depreciated.

70
Q

Lost wages received in a settlement are _____ in taxable income.

A

Included. It is recovery of wages that would’ve otherwise been earned and taxed.

71
Q

Nondividend distributions are taxable to the extent they exceed _____.

A

Basis.

72
Q

T/F: If life insurance proceeds are distributed in installment payments with a total that exceeds the original face value of the policy, a portion of each installment payment will be taxable.

A

True, if the total amount of the installment payments exceeds the original face value the Exclusion Ratio will apply.

73
Q

When EE government bonds are used for _______, the interest is free of income taxes.

A

Education.

74
Q

S corporations are prohibited from having more than ___ class of stock.

A

One.

75
Q

A limited and general partnership would dissolve in the event of a __% turnover in ownership in a 12-month period.

A

50% Turnover.