1
Q

What mode of inheritance does Alkaptonuria have?

A

➝ Autosomal recessive

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2
Q

What happens during alkaptonuria?

A

➝ urine turns black on standing and alkalinisation
➝ black ochronotic pigementation of cartilage and collagenous tissue
➝ arthritis

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3
Q

What is alkaptonuria caused by?

A

➝ homogentisic acid oxidase deficiency

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4
Q

What is the mode of inheritance of cystinuria and how common is it?

A

➝ autosomal recessive

➝ 1 : 7000

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5
Q

What is the cause of cystinuria?

A

➝ mutations of SLC3A1 amino acid transporter gene (on chromosome 2p) and SLCA9 (chromosome 19)

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6
Q

What happens during cystinuria?

A

➝ defective transport of cystine and dibasic amino acids through epithelial cells of the renal tubule and intestinal tract

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7
Q

Why does cystine form calculi in the renal tract?

A

➝ low solubility

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8
Q

Who came up with the one gene one enzyme concept?

A

➝ Beadle and tatum 1945

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9
Q

What is the principle of the β€˜one gene, one enzyme’ concept?

A

➝ Each biochemical reaction is under the ultimate control of a different single gene
➝ mutation of a single gene results in an alteration in the ability of the cell to carry out a single primary chemical reaction

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10
Q

Who came up with the molecular disease concept?

A

➝ Pauling et al

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11
Q

What is the molecular disease concept?

A

➝ direct evidence that human gene mutations produce an alteration in the primary structure of proteins
➝ Inborn errors of metabolism are caused by mutations in genes which then produce abnormal proteins whose functional activities are altered

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12
Q

What is autosomal recessive?

A

➝ when both parents carry a mutation affecting the same gene

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13
Q

What is the risk of a child with a disorder if the inheritance is autosomal recessive?

A

➝ 1 in 4 risk

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14
Q

What increases the risk of an autosomal recessive disorder?

A

➝ consanguinity

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15
Q

What are two examples of autosomal recessive diseases?

A

➝ sickle cell

➝ cystic fibrosis

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16
Q

What are 3 examples of autosomal dominant disorders?

A

➝ Huntingtons
➝ Marfans
➝ familial hypercholesterolemia

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17
Q

How are X linked conditions passed?

A

➝ through the maternal line

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18
Q

Who has the condition in X linked inheritance?

A

➝ condition appears in males

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19
Q

How can female carriers manifest an X linked condition?

A

➝ Random inactivation of one X chromosome (Lyonization)

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20
Q

How are dominant X linked conditions passed on?

A

➝ from either parents

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21
Q

Who will an affected father of an X linked condition pass it on to?

A

➝ only to daughters

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22
Q

Who will an affected mother of an X linked condition pass it on to?

A

➝ sons and daughters

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23
Q

What are 2 examples of X linked dominant conditions?

A

➝ Fragile X

➝ Ornithine carbamoyltransferase deficiency

24
Q

What are 3 examples of X linked recessive conditions?

A

➝ Haemophilia A
➝ Duchenne muscular dystrophy
➝ Fabry’s disease

25
What is a co-dominant condition?
➝ two different alleles are expressed and each version makes a slightly different protein ➝ both alleles influence the genetic trait or determine the characteristics of the genetic condition
26
What are two examples of co dominance?
➝ ABO blood group | ➝ α1AT
27
How are mitochondrial gene mutations inherited?
➝ exclusively from the mother
28
What contributes mitochondria to the embryo?
➝ the egg
29
Who do mitochondrial gene mutations affect?
➝ male and female
30
What are two examples of mitochondrial disease?
➝ MERFF - myoclonic epilepsy and ragged red fibre disease : deafness, dementia and seizures ➝ MELAS - mitochondrial encephalopathy with lactic acidosis and stroke like episodes
31
What is heteroplasmy?
➝ a cell containing varying amounts of normal mtDNA and also mutated mtDNA
32
What is the relationship between mtDNA and affected tissue?
➝ the more mutated mtDNA the more affected the tissue
33
What is more frequently affected in mitochondrial disease?
➝ high energy requiring organs
34
How do you recognise inborn errors of metabolism?
➝ newborn screening programmes
35
What are three energy metabolism defects?
➝ Maple syrup urine disease ➝ tyrosinemia ➝ OTC (urea cycle defect)
36
What is neonatal presentation of inborn errors of metabolism like?
➝ acute
37
What are two adult forms of inborn errors of metabolism?
➝ Wilsons- build up of copper | ➝ Haemochromatosis - excess iron
38
Why do men present with haemochromatosis sooner than women?
➝ women menstruate so they get rid of excess iron
39
When do neonates present with IEM?
➝ first week of life when starting full milk feeds
40
What are three clues to IEM?
➝ consanguinity ➝ family history of similar illness in siblings or unexplained deaths ➝ infant who was well at birth but starts to deteriorate for no obvious reasons
41
What are the 5 non-specific symptoms of babies with IEM?
``` ➝ poor feeding ➝ lethargy ➝ vomiting ➝hypotonia ➝ fits ```
42
What are the 5 specific symptoms of babies with IEM?
➝ Abnormal smell (sweet, musty, cabbage-like) ➝ cataracts ➝ hyperventilation secondary to metabolic acidosis ➝ hyponatremia and ambiguous genitalia ➝ neurological dysfunction with respiratory alkalosis
43
What are 4 biochemical abnormalities with IEM?
➝ Hypoglycaemia ➝ Hyperammonemia ➝ unexplained metabolic acidosis/ketoacidosis ➝ lactic acidosis
44
What are 8 clinical signs of babies with IEM?
``` ➝ Cognitive decline ➝ epileptic encephalopathy ➝ floppy baby ➝ exercise intolerant ➝ cardiomyopathy ➝ dysmorphic features ➝ sudden unexpected death in infancy ➝ fetal hydrops ```
45
What are the 3 routine tests for IEM?
➝ blood gas analysis ➝ blood glucose ➝ plasma ammonia
46
What are the 6 specialist investigations with IEM?
``` ➝ plasma amino acids ➝ urinary organic acids + orotic acid ➝ blood acyl carnitines ➝ blood lactate and pyruvate ➝ urinary glycosaminoglycans ➝ plasma very long chain fatty acids ```
47
What are the 4 confirmatory investigations for IEM?
➝ enzymology ➝ biopsy (muscle and liver) ➝ fibroblast studies ➝ mutation analysis - WGS
48
What are the 2 enzyme confirmatory tests for IEM?
➝ red cell galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase | ➝ lysosomal enzyme screening
49
Why do you screen neonates for IEM?
➝ early identification of life threatening disease in pre-symptomatic babies ➝ earlier initiation of medical treatment ➝ reduction of morbidity and mortality
50
What are the 6 Wilson and Junger criteria for screening?
➝ Condition should be an important health problem ➝ must know the incidence/prevalence in screening population ➝ natural history of the condition should be understood ➝ availability of a screening test that is easy to perform and interpret ➝ availability of an accepted treatment for the condition ➝ diagnosis and treatment of the condition should be cost-effective
51
What are the 6 criteria for a good screening test?
➝ accurate and reproducible ➝ cheap and produces a rapid result ➝ ethical ➝ good statistical performance ➝ how well the diagnosis influences the test result (sensitivity and specificity) ➝ how well the test result predicts the diagnosis ( +ve and -ve values)
52
What are the 9 newborn blood spot screening tests?
``` ➝ PKU ➝ congenital hypothryoidism ➝ cystic fibrosis ➝ medium chain acyl CoA dehydrogenase deficiency ➝ haemoglobinopathies ➝ maple syrup urine disease ➝ homocystinuria ➝ isovaleric acidaemia ➝ glutaric aciduria ```
53
When should samples be taken for a newborn blood spot screening test?
➝ day 5
54
What do you perform newborn blood spot screening tests on?
➝ A guthrie card
55
What are 4 possible causes for acute liver disease in neonate?
➝ classic galatosemia ➝ hereditary fructose intolerance ➝ organic acidaemia ➝ tyrosinaemia type 1
56
How does tyrosinaemia type 1 occur?
➝ Block in the metabolism of tyrosine at the fumarylacetoacetase stage ➝ build up of metabolites and it forms succinyl acetoacetate and succinyl acetetate which are indicative of tyrosinaemia