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In Service Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is NOT present during the bell stage?

a) Stellate reticulum
b) Stratum intermedium
c) Inner enamel epithelium
d) Outer enamel epithelium

A

Stratum Intermedium

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2
Q

The primitive choana connects the _________ cavities

a) oral and nasal
b) nasal and middle ear
c) oral and oropharyngeal
d) nasal and nasopharyngeal

A

Oral and Nasal

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3
Q

Which region of the root are spindle type nerve endings located?

a) Apical
b) Middle
c) Cervical

A

Apical

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4
Q

The extracellular matrix of alveolar bone consists of _____ % of inorganic matter

a) 25
b) 45
c) 65
d) 85

A

65

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5
Q

What are the two types of nerve supply of the PDL?

a) Efferent and sympathetic
b) Afferent and sympathetic
c) Efferent and parasympathetic
d) Afferent and parasympathetic

A

Afferent and Sympathetic

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6
Q

The rate of collagen turnover in the PDL compared to the gingiva is:

a) slower.
b) similar.
c) faster.

A

Faster

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7
Q

Which is NOT a supra hyoid muscle?

a) Digastric
b) Stylohyoid
c) Geniohyoid
d) Thyrohyoid

A

Thyrohyoid

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8
Q

MMPs are proteolytically activated by:

a) pepsin.
b) plasmin.
c) thrombin.
d) α2-macroglobulin.

A

Plasmin

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9
Q

Which protein regulates adhesion, attachment, and spreading of osteoclasts to the bone surface?

a) Osteocalcin
b) Osteonectin
c) Osteopontin
d) Alkaline phosphatase

A

Osteopontin

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10
Q

Antithrombin activity is potentiated by:

a) heparin.
b) histamine.
c) protamine.
d) tissue plasminogen activator.

A

Heparin

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11
Q

Which mediator constricts blood vessels?

a) Histamine
b) Adenosine
c) Endothelin
d) Nitric oxide

A

Endothelin

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12
Q

Which of the following occurs when there is an increase in blood concentration of T3 and T4 levels?

a) The rate of TSH secretion rises.
b) The rate of calcitonin secretion decreases.
c) The rate of TRH levels remain unchanged.
d) The rate of somatostatin secretion increases.

A

The rate of somastatin secretion increases

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13
Q

Which is a catecholamine-mediated response to hypoglycemia?

a) Suppression of lipolysis
b) Stimulation of hepatic gluconeogenesis
c) Suppression of skeletal muscle glycogenolysis
d) Stimulation of insulin secretion by the pancreatic ß-cells

A

Suppression of lipolysis

which seems wrong. B should be correct as catecholamines should induce lipolysis during states of hypoglycemia?

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14
Q

Co-infection with ___ has NOT been associated with periodontitis.

a) influenza virus (H1N1)
b) herpes simplex virus (HSV)
c) human cytomegalovirus (HCMV)
d) Epstein-Barr virus type I (EBV-1)

A

Influenza Virus (H1N1)

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15
Q

Rheumatic fever is a complication of infection by which organism?

a) S. pyogenes
b) S. agalactiae
c) S. pneumoniae
d) S. dysgalactiae

A

S. pyogenes

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16
Q

Intracellular signaling within host immune cells relies primarily on a _____ signal transduction pathway.

a) SMAD dependent
b) SMAD independent
c) Mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK) dependent
d) Mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK) independent

A

Mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK) dependent

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17
Q

Which of the following is MOST important in the defense against a viral pathogen?

a) PMNs
b) Complement
c) Cytotoxic T cells
d) Antibody to the protein coat

A

Cytotoxic T cells

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18
Q

Patients with the combination of salivary markers of IL-6 and ___ had the highest risk of gingival inflammation.

a) MMP-1
b) MMP-2
c) MMP-8
d) MMP-10

A

MMP-1

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19
Q

RANK is mainly expressed in:

a) oral epithelial cells.
b) gingival fibroblasts.
c) osteoclast precursors.
d) osteoblast precursors.

A

Osteoclast precursors

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20
Q

According to Kornman and Loesche (1980), the prevalence and levels of black pigmented bacteroides increased in which trimester of pregnancy?

a) First
b) Second
c) Third

A

Second

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21
Q

Masters and Hoskins (1964) found the presence of cervical enamel projections in more than _____ of isolated periodontally involved mandibular root furcations.

a) 15%
b) 40%
c) 75%
d) 90%

A

90%

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22
Q

Goodson et al. (1982) reported that in chronic periodontitis patients, the approximate percentage of sites that remained unchanged over a one year period was:

a) 23%.
b) 43%.
c) 63%.
d) 83%.

A

83%

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23
Q

Aggressive periodontitis is transmitted as an ________________ inheritance pattern.

a) X-linked dominant
b) X-linked recessive
c) autosomal dominant
d) autosomal recessive

A

Autosomal Dominant

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24
Q

According to Hwang et al. (2014), serum IgG response to periodontal bacteria in generalized aggressive periodontitis is ____________ compared to localized aggressive periodontitis.

a) decreased
b) similar
c) increased

A

Similar

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25
Q

What type of periodontal disease is described as having a non-contributory medical history, familial aggregation, and rapid attachment loss and bone destruction?

a) Chronic periodontitis
b) Aggressive periodontitis
c) Necrotizing periodontal disease
d) Periodontitis associated with systemic disease

A

Aggressive Periodontitis

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26
Q

What is the key element of virulence and pathogenicity of A. actinomycetemcomitans?

a) Leukotoxin
b) Bacteriocin
c) Collagenase
d) Lipopolysaccharide

A

Leukotoxin

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27
Q

In studying the frequency of peri-implant diseases, data based upon implants rather than subjects could ________________ the true prevalence of the disease.

a) underestimate
b) be equally predictive of
c) overestimate

A

Underestimate

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28
Q

According to Sicilia et al. (2008), the estimated prevalence of titanium allergy is:

a) 0.6%.
b) 1.6%.
c) 2.6%.
d) 3.6%.

A

.6%

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29
Q

Zidovudine (Retrovir®) acts by:

  1. destroying HIV DNA.
  2. destroying HIV RNA.
  3. eliminating infected host cells.
  4. inhibiting reverse transcriptase.
A

Inhibiting reverse transcriptase

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30
Q

What are the earliest symptoms associated with local anesthetic toxicity?

  1. Tonic-clonic seizures
  2. Hypotension and diaphoresis
  3. Skeletal muscle fasciculations
  4. Tinnitus, vertigo, and restlessness
A

Tinnitus, vertigo and restlessness

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31
Q

The anti-inflammatory effects of COX-2 inhibitors are ______________ compared to traditional NSAIDs.

a) inferior
b) similar
c) superior

A

Similar

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32
Q

False pulse oximeter readings can be caused by all of the following EXCEPT:

a) shivering.
b) diaphoresis.
c) methemoglobin.
d) carboxyhemoglobin.

A

Diaphoresis

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33
Q

What category of drug is diltiazem (Cardizem®)?

a) α1 receptor agonist
b) β1 receptor antagonist
c) Calcium channel blocker
d) Phosphodiesterase inhibitor

A

Calcium channel blocker

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34
Q

For periodontal surgical procedures, the target INR range for a patient with a prosthetic heart valve is:

a) 1.5-2.5.
b) 2.5-3.5.
c) 3.5-4.5.

A

2.5-3.5

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35
Q

Concomitant use of statins and macrolide antibiotics is contraindicated due to increased risk of:

a) hepatic failure.
b) cerebral edema.
c) rhabdomyolysis.
d) pulmonary fibrosis.

A

Rhabdomyolysis

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36
Q

Hepatic clearance of warfarin is decreased if taken concurrently with what drug?

a) Ciprofloxacin (Cipro®)
b) Metronidazole (Flagyl®)
c) Erythromycin estolate (E-mycin®)
d) Doxycycline Hyclate (Vibramycin®)

A

Metronidazole (Flagyl)

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37
Q

Which characteristic of a diagnostic test is analogous to the statistical power of a study?

a) Sensitivity
b) Specificity
c) Positive predictive value
d) Negative predictive value

A

Sensitivity

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38
Q

According to Miller et al. (2014), which of the following factors entails the HIGHEST risk for molar tooth loss?

a) Mobility
b) Smoking
c) Probing depth
d) Furcation involvement

A

Smoking

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39
Q

According to Gonzalez et al. (2015), in patients with rheumatoid arthritis, a significantly higher concentration of auto-antibodies against _____ was associated with alveolar bone loss.

a) fillagrin
b) clusterin
c) vimentin

A

Vimentin

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40
Q

What is the stage of a lesion in an asymptomatic subject on an IV anti-resorptive regimen presenting with exposed and necrotic bone, or a fistula that probes to bone, and no evidence of infection?

a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3

A

1

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41
Q

All the following are considered GCF biomarkers for bone resorption EXCEPT:

a) osteonectin.
b) osteopontin.
c) osteocalcin.
d) Osteoprotegerin.

A

Osteoprotegerin

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42
Q

In a canine study, Etter et al. (2002) found that following probing, the healing of the epithelial attachment around dental implants was complete after ___ days.

a) 2
b) 3
c) 5
d) 7

A

5

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43
Q

According to Döri et al. (2013), the use of platelet-rich plasma (PRP) in combination with EMD and ABBM in the treatment of intrabony defects resulted in _____________________ CAL gain as compared to the use of EMD and ABBM.

a) significantly less
b) similar
c) significantly more

A

Similar

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44
Q

According to Ogihara and Tarnow (2014), grafting intrabony defects with EMD and FDBA led to _____ clinical outcomes compared to EMD and DFDBA.

a) inferior
b) similar
c) superior

A

Similar

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45
Q

According to Rams et al. (2014), the microflora of peri-implantitis lesions were LEAST resistant to which antibiotic regimen?

a) Amoxicillin alone
b) Clindamycin alone
c) Metronidazole alone
d) Amoxicillin and metronidazole

A

Amoxicillin and metronidazole

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46
Q

According to Poulias et al. (2013), ridge preservation using an allograft in combination with a facial xenograft overlay led to _____ ridge width reduction as compared to ridge preservation with the allograft alone.

a) significantly less
b) similar
c) significantly more

A

Significantly less

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47
Q

Strietzel et al. (2015) reported a marginal bone loss reduction of _____mm around platform switched implants as compared to platform matched implants.

a) 0.1
b) 0.5
c) 1.0
d) 1.5

A

.5

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48
Q

In a 10-year follow-up study, Sculean et al. (2008) showed that the treatment of intrabony defects using EMD resulted in _____ CAL gain as compared to GTR.

a) significantly less
b) similar
c) significantly more

A

Similar

49
Q

According to Bernhardt et al. (2006), increased PDs are associated with all the following factors EXCEPT:

a) age.
b) smoking.
c) female gender.
d) non-working side contacts.

A

Female gender

50
Q

Unwaxed floss is ___________ effective in terms of plaque removal and controlling gingivitis compared to waxed floss.

a) less
b) equally
c) more

A

Equally

51
Q

The use of interdental brushes in individuals with chronic periodontitis leads to ________ interdental plaque removal compared to dental floss.

a) inferior
b) similar
c) superior

A

Superior

52
Q

According to the ADA Council on Dental Therapeutics, an effective agent for the treatment of gingivitis must reduce plaque and gingival inflammation over a period of at least________ months.

a) 3
b) 6
c) 9
d) 12

A

6

53
Q

In the experimental gingivitis study by Löe et al. (1965), most participants had resolution of clinical signs of gingival inflammation within ______ day(s) of resuming oral hygiene.

a) 1
b) 3
c) 5
d) 7

A

7

54
Q

In a systematic review by Smiley et al. (2015), which was shown to increase CAL gain as an adjunct to SCRP when treating chronic periodontitis?

a) Erbium laser
b) Nd:YAG laser
c) Non-PDT diode laser
d) Sub-antimicrobial dose doxycycline

A

Sub-antimicrobial dose doxycycline

55
Q

According to a series of studies by Bowers et al. (1989), a new attachment apparatus was NOT found in:

a) submerged teeth following flap curettage.
b) submerged teeth following flap curettage and root planing.
c) non-submerged teeth following flap curettage and root planing.
d) non-submerged teeth following flap curettage and grafting with DFDBA

A

Non-submerged teeth following flap curettage and root planing

56
Q

In a 10-year longitudinal study by McGuire et al. (2012) CAF+CTG resulted in __________ complete root coverage and mean percentage root coverage compared to CAF+EMD.

a) greater
b) similar
c) less

A

Similar

57
Q

According to Pfeifer (1963), who evaluated the healing response of bone exposed during surgery, all of the following are true EXCEPT:

a) bone resorption was rapid.
b) excessive bone resorption occurred.
c) osteoclastic activity peaked at 4 to 10 days.
d) connective tissue proliferating from the PDL started by 2 days.

A

Excessive bone resorption occurred

58
Q

According to Lindhe and Nyman (1975), which is TRUE regarding the long-term (5 year) effectivess of osseous resective surgery?

a) Ten percent of teeth were lost.
b) Plaque index increased by 13.8%.
c) Less than 1% of sites lost 2mm attachment.
d) Greater than 20% of sites had 2mm gingival recession.

A

Less than 1% of sites lost 2mm attachment

59
Q

All of the following are essential to optimal healing in regenerative procedures EXCEPT:

a) primary closure.
b) wound stability.
c) space provision.
d) use of occlusive membrane.

A

Use of occlusive membrane

60
Q

Root surface conditioning agents lead to _________ CAL gain compared to no adjunctive root surface conditioning.

a) less
b) similar
c) greater

A

Similar

61
Q

. In a RCT, Coomes et al. (2014) showed that sites receiving absorbable collagen sponge (ACS) alone were ______ times more likely to need additional ridge augmentation at the time of implant placement compared to ACS + rhBMP-2.

a) 3
b) 6
c) 9
d) 12

A

3

62
Q

In a 5-year CBCT study, Jung et al. (2015) found ______ following GBR and simultaneous implant placement at the mid-buccal peri-implant sites.

a) significant bone resorption
b) stable bone levels
c) significant bone apposition

A

Stable bone levels

63
Q

In a systematic review, Thoma et al. (2015) observed that the complication rate for longer implants placed in augmented sinuses was _________ shorter implants placed in a reduced alveolar ridge.

a) lower than
b) similar to
c) higher than

A

Higher than

64
Q

Osseointegration occurs when there is _________ of the initial inflammatory reaction following implant placement.

a) a decrease
b) no change
c) an increase

A

A decrease

65
Q

What is the most likely diagnosis of the gingival lesion shown in Figure 6, which presented histologically with “saw-toothed” rete ridges and an intense, bandlike infiltrate subjacent to the epithelium?

a) Lichen planus
b) Plasma cell gingivitis
c) Graft-versus-host disease
d) Chronic ulcerative stomatitis

A

Plasma cell gingivitis

66
Q

Patients suffering from which disease should be referred to an ophthalmologist due to potential symblepharon formation?

a) Epidermolysis bullosa
b) Paraneoplastic pemphigus
c) Toxic epidermal necrolysis
d) Mucous membrane pemphigoid

A

Mucous membrane pemphigoid

67
Q

What common benign condition exhibits characteristic lesions on the anterior two thirds of the dorsal tongue?

a) Erythema migrans
b) Acanthosis nigricans
c) Xeroderma pigmentosum
d) Systemic lupus erythematosus

A

Erythema Migrans

68
Q

What is the most common site for oral soft tissue metastases?

a) Gingiva
b) Tongue
c) Soft palate
d) Floor of the mouth

A

Gingiva

69
Q

Which lesion presents histologically with multiple large stellate-shaped, multinucleated fibroblasts?

a) Irritation fibroma
b) Giant cell fibroma
c) Granular cell tumor
d) Peripheral giant cell granuloma

A

Giant cell fibroma

70
Q

What hematologic disorder depicts the characteristic “hair-on-end” appearance on a lateral skull radiograph?

a) Thalassemia
b) Aplastic anemia
c) Polycythemia vera
d) Langerhans cell histiocytosis

A

Thalassemia

71
Q

The BANA test detects which bacterial species?

a) P. micra
b) T. denticola
c) P. intermedia
d) A. actinomycetemcomitans

A

T. denticola

72
Q

According to Loke et al. (2015), obstructive sleep apnea is significantly associated with:

a) severe periodontitis only.
b) moderate periodontitis only.
c) both moderate and severe periodontitis.
d) neither moderate nor severe periodontitis.

A

Neither moderate nor severe periodontitis

73
Q

The rotated palatal flap receives much of its blood supply from branches of the _______ artery

a) facial
b) maxillary
c) internal carotid
d) superficial temporal

A

Maxillary

74
Q

What anatomical structure on the dorsum of the tongue is the primordial site of development of the thyroid gland

a) lingual follicle
b) palatine tonsil
c) foramen cecum
d) palatoglossal arch

A

Foramen Cecum

75
Q

At which stage of tooth development does the inner enamel epithelium elongate and differentiate into ameloblasts?

a) bell
b) bud
c) cap

A

Bell

76
Q

The lines of von Ebner represent cellular cyclic activity during _____ formation.

a) dentin
b) enamel
c) cementum
d) alveolar bone

A

Dentin

77
Q

According to Greenstein et al. (2008), the inferior alveolar nerve is often located midway between the buccal and lingual cortical plates in the area of the:

a) second premolar
b) first molar
c) second molar
d) third molar

A

First molar

78
Q

According to Reiser et al (1996), the distance between the palatine artery and the CEJ of maxillary premolars and molars is ___ mm in a high palatal vault

a) 7
b) 12
c) 15
d) 17

A

17

79
Q

According to Sawyer et al (1998), the frequency of accessory mental foramina in American whites is:

a) 1.4%
b) 14%
c) 24%
d) 34%

A

1.4%

80
Q

What is the principal inorganic component of cementum?

a) Hyaluronate
b) type I collagen
c) hydroxyapatite
d) octacalcium phosphate

A

Hydroxyapatite

81
Q

According to Bower (1979), a concavity on the frugal aspect is more commonly found on the _______ root of a maxillary first molar

a) palatal
b) distobuccal
c) mesiobuccal

A

Mesiobuccal

82
Q

Which results from the failure of Hertwig’s epithelial root sheath cells to separate from the forming root surface?

a) cementicles
b) enamel pearls
c) hypercementosis
d) cemento-ename projections

A

Enamel pearls

83
Q

Which are the most numerous lingual papillae?

a) folliate
b) filiform
c) fungiform
d) circumvallate

A

Filiform

84
Q

The excretory duct of the submandibular salivary gland is the _______ duct.

a) stenson’s
b) wharton’s
c) bartholin’s

A

Wharton’s

85
Q

Which is an endochondral bone?

a) clavicle
b) humerus
c) mandible
d) temporal

A

Humerus

86
Q

The epithelium of the vermillion border of the lip is:

a) simple columnar
b) keratinized stratified squamous
c) nonkeratinized stratified squamous
d) nonciliated pseudo stratified columnar.

A

Keratinized stratified squamous

87
Q

Which dentin contains large type III collagen fibers?

a) mantle
b) reparative
c) reactionary
d) circumpulpal

A

mantle

88
Q

The greater palatine foramen is most often located opposite the:

a) first molar
b) second molar
c) third molar

A

Third molar

89
Q

Fordyce granules are ectopic _______ glands found on the buccal mucosa and vermilion of the upper lip

a) lymph
b) serous
c) sebaceous
d) seromucous

A

Sebaceous

90
Q

In structure and composition, cementum most closely resembles:

a) bone
b) dentin
c) enamel

A

Bone

91
Q

The principal cell type of the gingival oral epithelium is the:

a) merkel cell
b) melanocyte
c) keratinocyte
d) langerhans cell

A

Keratinocyte

92
Q

The greater palatine nerve anastomoses in the premaxilla with branches of the _______ nerve.

a) infraorbital
b) nasopalatine
c) middle superior alveolar
d) anterior superior alveolar

A

Nasopalatine

93
Q

The infraorbital nerve is found ___ mm below the inferior portion of the infraorbital ridge.

a) 3
b) 5
c) 7
d) 9

A

5

94
Q

Which type of cementum is located in the furcation?

a) acellular, fibrillar
b) cellular, mixed fiber
c) cellular, intrinsic fiber
d) acellular, extrinsic fiber

A

cellular, mixed fiber

95
Q

Elevated cytoplasmic ______ levels cause detachment of the osteoclast from bone

a) calcium
b) hydrogen
c) potassium
d) phosphate

A

Calcium

96
Q

Activation of the parasympathetic autonomic nervous system causes:

a) sweating
b) salivation
c) bronchodilation
d) increased heart rate

A

salivation

97
Q

Which is TRUE about the junctional epithelium?

a) impermeable
b) interconnected by hemidesmosomes
c) derivative of Hertwig’s epithelial root sheath
d) presence of large number of lysosomal bodies

A

Presence of large number of lysosomal bodies

98
Q

Ephinephrine has ______ effect on insulin release

a) a stimulatory
b) no
c) an inhibitory

A

An inhibitory

99
Q

A deficiency in ________ production is associated with neurogenic diabetes insidious

a) insulin
b) aldosterone
c) somatotropin
d) antidiuretic hormone

A

Antidiuretic hormone

100
Q

Elevated serum levels of insulin like growth factor 1 are indicative of:

a) acromegaly
b) diabetes insipidus
c) pheochromocytoma
d) guillain-barre syndrome

A

Acromegaly

101
Q

The function of salivary amylase includes conversion of starch to:

a) sucrose
b) lactose
c) maltose

A

Maltose

102
Q

Thyroid hormone causes a(n):

a) decrease in blood volume
b) increase in glucose absorption
c) increase in plasma cholesterol levels
d) decrease in RNA and protein systhesis

A

Increase in glucose absorption

103
Q

Early wound extracellular matrix is rich in which type of collagen?

a) I
b) II
c) III
d) IV

A

III

104
Q

Where does translation occur?

a) lysosome
b) ribosome
c) mitochondria
d) golgi apparatus

A

Ribosome

105
Q

Myelin sheath is produced by:

a) astrocytes
b) Schwann cells
c) ependymal cells
d) oligodendrocytes

A

Schwann cells

106
Q

Which enzyme catalyzes the first step in glycolysis?

a) hexokinase
b) galaxtokinase
c) pyruvate kinase
d) phosphofructokinase

A

Hexokinase

107
Q

Hemoglobin consists of two ____ chains.

a) α and β
b) β and γ
c) α and γ

A

α and β

108
Q

Oral keratinocytes migrate across provisional matrices at a rate of:

a) .01mm/day
b) .05mm/day
c) .1mm/day
d) .5mm/day

A

.5mm/day

109
Q

Which glands produce the majority of the saliva?

a) parotid
b) sublingual
c) minor salivary glands
d) submandibular

A

Submandibular

110
Q

What is the primary sympathetic cardiovascular regulatory center located in the medulla oblongata?

a) nucleus ambiguus
b) vasomotor center
c) nucleus of tracts solitarius

A

Vasomotor center

111
Q

All of the following viruses demonstrate retrograde axonal transport except:

a) Epstein Barr virus
b) Varicella zoster virus
c) Herpes simplex virus 1
d) Herpes simplex virus 2

A

Epstein barr virus

112
Q

Extracellular blood calcium concentration is maintained in part by:

a) thyroxin
b) vasopressin
c) parathyroid hormone

A

Parathyroid hormone

113
Q

Which type of collage links the basal surface of epithelial cells to the underlying connective tissue?

a) I
b) III
c) IV
d) VII

A

VII

114
Q

Which is a “sentinel” cell?

a) fibroblast
b) osteoclast
c) chondroblast
d) cementoblast

A

Fibroblast

115
Q

In the Wnt signaling pathway, ______ is an inhibitor that, if deficient, can lead to increased bone mass.

a) sclerotin
b) cathepsin K
c) osteopontin
d) osteonectin

A

Sclerotin

116
Q

What type of conduction is characterized by an action potential that jumps from node to node along the myelin sheath?

a) saltatory
b) chemical
c) continuous
d) repolarized

A

Saltatory

117
Q

Purkinje fibers are located in the:

a) epicardium
b) pericardium
c) myocardium
d) endocardium

A

Endocardium

118
Q

MMPs are ____ dependent endopeptidases

a) zinc
b) copper
c) potassium
d) magnesium

A

Zinc

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