In Pleadings & Practice Flashcards

1
Q

When may PJ be exercised under Indiana’s long arm statute?

A

If the cause of action arises out of the following acts committed by that person/person’s agent:

(1) Doing any business in IN;
(2) Causing any PI or property damage by an act done in IN;
(3) Causing any PI or property damage in IN that results from any act done outside IN, if D regularly does/solicits business in IN or derives substantial revenue from goods/services used, consumed, or rendered in IN;
(4) Supplying/contracting to supply services, goods, or materials in IN;
(5) Owning, using, or possessing real property in IN;
(6) Contracting to insure persons/property in IN;
(7) Living in a marital relationship in IN, if the action concerns obligations arising from alimony, child custody/support, or property settlement and the other party continues to reside in IN; and
(8) Abusing, harassing, or disturbing the peace of or violating a PO of any person in IN by an act or omission in IN, or an act or omission outside IN that is part of a continuing course of conduct having an effect in IN.

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2
Q

Who is responsible for preparing the summons?

A

The litigant or his attorney, who must then provide it to the clerk of court with the complaint.

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3
Q

How may process be served on an individual in Indiana?

A

(1) Registered or certified mail to person’s residence or place of business,
(2) Personal service,
(3) Leaving a copy of the complaint and summons at a person’s usual place of abode, followed by a mailing, or
(4) Service on an agent, followed by a mailing.

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4
Q

What is the process for service of process by publication?

A

This is a last resort. Affidavits must be submitted showing a diligent search was made. The summons must be published 3 times in a newspaper authorized by law. The first publication must occur “promptly” after the complaint is filed. The 2 succeeding publications must occur at least 7 days, but not more than 14 days, after the preceding publication.

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5
Q

What are Indiana’s preferred venues?

A

(1) Defendants’ residence,
(2) County in which the land in question is located,
(3) Where the accident occurred,
(4) Defendant’s PPB, or
(5) County to which the parties stipulated in the contract.

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6
Q

When is transfer of venue required?

A

When a claim is filed in a county that is not a preferred venue and a party objects. The plaintiff must then pay the costs and traveling expenses (and attorneys’ fees if done in bad faith).

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7
Q

When is a change of venue from a preferred county available?

A

(1) The county is a party, or

(2) A party is unlikely to receive a fair trial due to prejudice and/or bias.

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8
Q

What are the rules re: a change of judge?

A

A party is entitled to one change of judge.

The application must be filed no later than 10 days after the issues are closed on the merits.

No reason for the request is needed.

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9
Q

What are considered “pleadings?”

A

Complaint and answers (in whatever form).

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10
Q

What is a preliminary injunction?

A

A preliminary injunction is sought by a party prior to trial on the merits of the complaint. It may not be issued unless the adverse party receives notice and a hearing.

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11
Q

What is the standard for receiving a preliminary injunction?

A

A party must show, by a preponderance of the evidence, that:

(1) He has a substantial likelihood of success on the merits,
(2) His remedy at law in inadequate and he will suffer irreparable harm,
(3) The threatened injury to the plaintiff outweighs the harm that may be caused if issued, and
(4) The public interest would not be disserved.

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12
Q

What is a TRO?

A

Temporary restraining order.

TROs are granted by a court when it is necessary to prevent irreparable injury to a party and the injury will result before a preliminary injunction hearing can be held.

A TRO may be granted ex parte if the moving party shows she has made all efforts to notify the adverse party.

The moving party will need to provide security.

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13
Q

What are the time restrictions on a TRO?

A

May not exceed 10 days unless good cause is shown for an extension.

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14
Q

What must a complaint contain?

A

(1) Short and plain statement of the claim, and

(2) Demand for relief.

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15
Q

When must a claim be stated with particularity?

A

Fraud or mistake and special damages.

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16
Q

What are the Rule 12 motions?

A

(1) Lack of SMJ (can be raised at any time),
(2) Lack of PJ,*
(3) Improper venue,*
(4) Insufficiency of process,*
(5) Insufficiency of service of process,*
(6) Same action pending in another Indiana court,*
(7) Failure to state a claim upon which relief can be granted, or
(8) Failure to join a party needed for a just adjudication.

*Must be raised at the time of motion or answer, otherwise deemed waived.

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17
Q

When must a defendant serve an answer if no pre-answer motion is made?

A

Within 20 days after service.

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18
Q

If a pre-answer motion is denied, when must a defendant serve an answer?

A

Within 10 days after notice of the court’s action.

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19
Q

When must affirmative defenses be asserted?

A

In the answer, or else they are deemed waived.

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20
Q

When are pleading amendments allowed?

A

Once, before a responsive pleading is served, or if no response pleading is required, within 30 days of service of the pleading. Thereafter, amendments are only allowed with written consent of the adverse party or leave of the court.

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21
Q

What are the rules re: changing a named party?

A

An amendment changing the named party relates back if it is re: the same conduct, transaction, or occurrence as the original pleading, and

If within 120 days after filing the complaint, the new party has received notice of the action and she knew or should have known that but for the mistake she would have originally been a party.

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22
Q

When does a cause of action accrue (i.e. when does the statute of limitations begin to run)?

A

When a claimant knows or should have known of the injury.

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23
Q

When is the statute of limitations tolled?

A

(1) While the defendant is a nonresident of the state,
(2) During concealment of an action, or
(3) A person under legal disabilities may bring a cause of action within 2 years after the disability is removed.

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24
Q

What is the general statute of limitations?

A

10 years.

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25
Q

When is joinder of a party needed for just adjudication?

A

If:

(1) Complete relief cannot be given to existing parties in her absence,
(2) Disposition in her absence may impair her ability to protect her interest in the controversy, or
(3) Her absence would expose existing parties to a substantial risk of double or inconsistent obligations.

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26
Q

When is a counterclaim compulsory?

A

When the defendant has a claim that arises out of the same T/O.

Failure to assert the compulsory counterclaim will preclude the defendant from bringing the action.

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27
Q

What is an impleader?

A

When a defendant may bring in a person not a party to the action who is or may be liable to the defendant for all or part of the plaintiff’s claim against him (indemnification).

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28
Q

When is impleader not applicable?

A

When:

(1) The defendant asserts he is not liable at all to the plaintiff,
(2) The defendant asserts an entirely unrelated claim against the 3rd party, or
(3) The defendant asserts an individual claim of relief from the 3rd party not contingent on the plaintiff’s recovery against the defendant.

29
Q

When must a defendant file an impleader/3rd party complaint?

A

With his original answer.

30
Q

What is an intervention of right?

A

When a nonparty enters the case on his own motion (statute or related interest).

31
Q

When are named representatives permitted to sue on behalf of a class?

A

(1) Numerous class,
(2) Common questions,
(3) Typicality,
(4) Fair and adequate representation, and

(a) Risk of inconsistent results, or
(b) Injunctive or declaratory relief appropriate, or
(c) Common questions predominate and a class action is superior to alternate methods of adjudication.

32
Q

What are the rules re: shareholders’ derivative suits?

A

Minority shareholders must allege in a verified complaint:

(1) That she made demand on the directors,
(2) The she was a shareholder at the time of the transaction complained of, and
(3) She can adequately and fairly represent the interests of the shareholders.

33
Q

Can evidence that would otherwise be admissible at trial still be discoverable?

A

Yes, as long as it is relevant to the subject matter of the pending action (and it’s not privileged information).

34
Q

Is the existence and content of an insurance agreement discoverable?

A

Yes.

35
Q

When might work product be discoverable?

A

If a party shows:

(1) A substantial need for the materials, and
(2) She is unable without undue hardship to obtain the substantial equivalent of the materials by other means.

36
Q

Re: experts used at trial.

A

Through interrogatories, a party may require the other party to:

(1) ID each person whom the other party expects to call as an expert witness, and
(2) State the subject matter on which the expert is expected to testify.

Consulting experts’ opinions are not discoverable.

37
Q

What are the available methods of discovery?

A

(1) Oral depos,
(2) Written depos,
(3) Interrogatories,
(4) Production of documents/things,
(5) Physical and mental exams, and
(6) Requests for admissions.

38
Q

What is the number limit on interrogatories?

A

25, including subparts.

39
Q

When must interrogatories be answered by?

A

Under oath, within 30 days.

40
Q

When must a production of documents request be responded to?

A

Within 30 days.

41
Q

When may a court permit a physical or mental exam?

A

When the condition is in controversy.

42
Q

What happens if a medical examinee requests a copy of her exam results?

A

She is to be furnished a copy, but she then waives the patient-doctor privilege as to copies of any medical reports (made previously or thereafter) and testimony of any person pertaining to the same condition.

43
Q

Admissions are deemed made unless within 30 days the party receiving the request serves:

A

(1) A denial,
(2) The reasons why he cannot admit or deny, or
(3) An objection that the request is improper.

44
Q

When may a court invoke protection re: discovery?

A

If the discovery request is meant to:

(1) Annoy, embarrass, oppress, or cause an undue burden, or
(2) The discovering party is attempting to discover things beyond the permissible scope of discovery.

45
Q

What must a party do before asking the court to compel discovery? What are the sanctions for the adverse party?

A

A discovering party may move for an order compelling discovery only after conferring or attempting to confer with the failing party.

Sanctions may include:

(1) Having appropriate designated facts established against her,
(2) Be prohibited from supporting or opposing appropriate designated claims, defenses, or evidentiary propositions,
(3) Have parts or all of her pleadings stricken,
(4) Have the proceedings stayed until she complies,
(5) Be dismissed or defaulted,
(6) Have any other just orders entered against her re: the failure, or
(7) Pay adverse parties’ attorneys’ fees.

46
Q

How may depositions be used at trial?

A

(1) By any party to contradict or impeach,
(2) By any adverse party for any purpose,
(3) By any party for any purpose, if the courts finds:

(a) The deponent-witness is dead,
(b) The deponent-witness’s absence was not secured by the party offering the depo and the deponent-witness is out of state,
(c) The deponent-witness is unable to attend or testify because of age, illness, infirmity, or imprisonment,
(d) The party offering the depo has been unable to procure the attendance of the witness by subpoena, or
(e) Such exceptional circumstances exists and that it would be in the interests of justice to to allow the depo to be used.

47
Q

At what point is the attorney conference required?

A

At least 10 days prior to the pretrial conference, attorneys for each party must meet to exchange exhibits, stipulations, and witness lists and to discuss settlement.

The court may order attorneys’ fees if an attorney fails to show or shows up grossly unprepared.

48
Q

When may a plaintiff voluntarily dismiss his action?

A

(1) Any time before service by the adverse party of an answer or motion for summary judgment, which over occurs first,
(2) By stipulation,
(3) By order of the court, or
(4) Dismissal without prejudice (only allowed once).

49
Q

When might a case be involuntarily dismissed?

A

(1) Failure to comply with trial rules, or

(2) To take action in a civil case for 60 days.

50
Q

When must summary judgment be granted?

A

If, from the pleadings, affidavits, and discovery materials, it appears there is no genuine issue of material fact and the moving party is entitled to JMOL.

51
Q

When may a claimant move for summary judgment?

A

Any time after 20 days from commencement of the action or after service of a motion for summary judgment by an adverse party.

52
Q

When may a defendant move for summary judgment?

A

Any time.

53
Q

An adverse party has how many days after service of a motion for summary judgment to respond?

A

30 days.

54
Q

What are the requirements for affidavits re: motions for summary judgment?

A

(1) Must be made on personal knowledge,
(2) Set forth such facts as would be admissible in evidence, and
(3) Show the affiant is competent to testify to the matter stated.

An adverse party must respond with affidavits or similar evidence showing there is a genuine issue for trial.

55
Q

May an action equitable in nature be tried to a jury?

A

No, only to the court.

56
Q

When must a jury demand be filed?

A

Within 10 days after the first responsive pleading to a complaint.

57
Q

How many peremptory challenges are allowed? For cause?

A

3 peremptory per side, unlimited challenges for cause.

58
Q

What is a motion to correct error? When must it be filed?

A

Seeks to have the trial court correct any error that may have been made during trial or in entering a final judgment.

It must be filed within 30 days after the entry of a final judgment or an appealable final order.

59
Q

When is a motion to correct error a prerequisite to an appeal?

A

When a party seeks to address:

(1) Newly discovered material evidence, including alleged jury misconduct, capable of production within 30 days of final judgment, or
(2) A claim that a jury verdict is excessive or inadequate.

60
Q

Generally, only what type of judgment may be appealed?

A

Final judgments (disposes of all claims of all parties).

A court may “make” final, for purposes of appeal, its disposition of 1+ but fewer than all claims as to all parties by, in writing:

(1) Expressly determining that there is no just reason for delaying entry of judgment, and
(2) Expressly direct the entry of judgment.

61
Q

How is an appeal initiated?

A

By filing a notice of appeal with the clerk of the trial court within 30 days after the date of judgment.

62
Q

What are the trial judgments that do not require a final judgment on the merits to be appealed?

A

(1) Judgments awarding money or property,
(2) Preliminary injunctions,
(3) Class action certifications, and
(4) Transfer of venue decisions.

63
Q

What is required in order for claim preclusion (res judicata) to apply?

A

(1) The earlier judgment is a valid, final judgment “on the merits,”
(2) The cases are brought by the SAME claimant against the SAME defendant, and
(3) The same “cause of action” is involved in the later suit.

64
Q

What is issue preclusion (collateral estoppel)?

A

A final judgment for the plaintiff or defendant is conclusive in a subsequent action on a different cause of action between the SAME parties as to issues actually litigated and essential to the judgment in the first action.

65
Q

What is the Indiana Tort Claims Act?

A

Unless immunity applies, the state and its political subdivisions are liable in tort.

66
Q

A governmental entity or an employee acting within the scope of employment is not liable if a loss results from:

A

(1) Acts in the performance of a discretionary function,
(2) The initiation of a judicial or administrative proceeding,
(3) The adoption and enforcement of (or failure to adopt or enforce) a law,
(4) An act or omission performed in good faith and without malice under the apparent authority of a statute,
(5) An unintentional misrepresentation, and
(6) An act relating to a 911 emergency system.

*There is no immunity for dangerous operation of an emergency vehicle.

67
Q

What is the timing for filing a claim under the Indiana Torts Claim Act?

A

Within 180 days after the loss occurs re: a political subdivision.

Within 270 days after the loss occurs re: the state.

68
Q

What are the caps on damages under the Indiana Torts Claim Act?

A

$700,000 for the injury or death of one person in any one occurrence, or

$5M for the injury or death of all persons in the one occurrence.

69
Q

What standard of negligence applies under the Indiana Torts Claim Act?

A

Traditional contributory negligence. If a plaintiff is AT ALL at fault for his injuries, it is a complete bar to recovery.