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HEASP1011 > In class test 1 > Flashcards

In class test 1 Flashcards

Weeks 1-5 content

1
Q

Define ‘directional terms’

A

Descriptive terms that enable clinicians to describe one body structure in relation to another

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2
Q

Define ‘anatomical planes’

A

Hypothetical planes that transect the body in order to view structures of the body from different points of view

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3
Q

Define ‘anatomical position’

A

The position which we describe all of the body and its part always; standing feet apart, arms by side, face, palms and feet facing forward

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4
Q

Define ‘superior’

A

Toward the head (upper or above)

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5
Q

Define ‘inferior’

A

Toward the feet (lower or below)

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6
Q

Define ‘anterior’

A

Further to the front (in front of)

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7
Q

Define ‘posterior’

A

Further to the back (in back of)

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8
Q

What is another word for anterior?

A

Ventral

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9
Q

What is another word for posterior?

A

Dorsal

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10
Q

Define ‘medial’

A

Toward the midline of the body

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11
Q

Define ‘lateral’

A

Toward the side of the body

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12
Q

Define ‘proximal’

A

Closer to the axial body (towards the trunk)

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13
Q

Define ‘distal’

A

Further from the axial body (further from the trunk)

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14
Q

Define ‘superficial’

A

Closer to the surface of the body

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15
Q

Define ‘deep’

A

Further from the surface of the body

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16
Q

Define ‘supine’

A

Laying face up

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17
Q

Define ‘prone’

A

Laying face down

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18
Q

Explain the frontal plane

A

Divides the body into front and back

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19
Q

Explain the sagittal plane

A

Divides body into left and right

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20
Q

Explain the transverse plane

A

Divides body into upper body and lower body

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21
Q

In the frontal plane, movements occur around which axis?

A

Sagittal axis

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22
Q

In the sagittal plane, movements occur around which axis?

A

Frontal axis

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23
Q

In the transverse plane, movements occur around which axis?

A

Longitudinal axis

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24
Q

What are the four key tissues and what are their functions?

A

Epithelial (protects, secrets, absorbs), connective (protects supports, binds), muscular (movement, stabilizes joints), nervous (impulses for internal communication)

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25
Q

Name the term used for the region of the entire head

A

Cephalic

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26
Q

Name the term used for the region of the forehead

A

Frontal

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27
Q

Name the term used for the region of the back of the head

A

Occipital

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28
Q

Name the term used for the region of the eyes

A

Orbital region

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29
Q

Name the term used for the region of the nose

A

Nasal region

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30
Q

Name the term used for the region of the mouth

A

Oral region

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31
Q

Name the term used for the region of the neck

A

Cervical

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32
Q

Name the term used for the region of the chin

A

Mental region

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33
Q

Name the term used for the region of the ear

A

Octic

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34
Q

Name the term used for the region of the cheek

A

Buccal

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35
Q

Name the term used for the region of the shoulder blade

A

Scapular region

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36
Q

Name the term used for the region of the upper arm

A

Brachial region

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37
Q

Name the term used for the region of below the elbow

A

Antebrachial

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38
Q

Name the term used for the region of the entire hand

A

Manus

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39
Q

Name the term used for the region of the highest point on the shoulder blade

A

Acromial region

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40
Q

Name the term used for the region of the back of the elbow

A

The olecranal region

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41
Q

Name the term used for the region of the bend of the elbow

A

The antecubital region

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42
Q

Name the term used for the region of the wrist bones

A

Carpal

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43
Q

Name the term used for the region of the bones of the hand

A

Metacarpals

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44
Q

Name the term used for the region of the fingers

A

Digital region

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45
Q

Name the term used for the region of the thumb

A

Pollex

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46
Q

Name the term used for the region of the anterior side of the hand

A

Palmer region

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47
Q

Name the term used for the region of the entire chest

A

Thoracic region

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48
Q

Name the term used for the region of below the chest

A

Abdominal region

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49
Q

Name the term used for the region of below the abdominal

A

Pelvic region

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50
Q

Name the term used for the region of the breast bone

A

Sternal

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51
Q

Name the term used for the region of the breast

A

Mammary

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52
Q

Name the term used for the region of the chest

A

Pectoral

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53
Q

Name the term used for the region of the armpit

A

Axillary region

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54
Q

Name the term used for the region of where your legs meet your body

A

Inguinal region

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55
Q

Name the term used for the region of the spine

A

Vertebral region

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56
Q

Name the term used for the region of the neck

A

Cervical region

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57
Q

Name the term used for the region of the middle of the spine

A

Thoracic region

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58
Q

Name the term used for the region of lower back

A

Lumbar region

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59
Q

Name the term used for the region of the butt

A

Gluteal region

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60
Q

Name the term used for the region of the tailbone

A

Sacral

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61
Q

Name the term used for the region of the hip

A

Coxal region

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62
Q

Name the term used for the region above the knee

A

Femoral region

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63
Q

Name the term used for the region below the knee

A

Crucal region

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64
Q

Name the term used for the region of the foot

A

Pedal

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65
Q

Name the term used for the region of the front of the knee

A

Patellar

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66
Q

Name the term used for the region of the back of the knee

A

Popliteal

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67
Q

Name the term used for the region in the back of the calf muscle

A

Sural region

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68
Q

Name the term used for the region of below the knee on the outer leg

A

Fibular

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69
Q

Name the term used for the region of the nakle bones

A

Tarsals

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70
Q

Name the term used for the region of the heel bone

A

Calcaneal

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71
Q

Name the term used for the region of the toes

A

Digital

72
Q

Name the term used for the region of the big toe

A

Hallux

73
Q

Name the term used for the region of the body of the foot

A

Metatarsal

74
Q

Name the term used for the region of the bottom of the foot

A

Planter

75
Q

Define cutaneous membrane

A

Dry membrane that covers the outer surface of the body ie. skin

76
Q

Define mucous membrane

A

Wet membrane that lines cavities exposed to the body’s exterior

77
Q

Define secrous membrane

A

Wet membrane that lines cavities closed to the body’s exterior

78
Q

Define ‘angular movement’

A

Movements that increase or decrease the angle between bones, and occur across multiple body regions

79
Q

Define ‘special movement’

A

Movements that are specific to one or two body regions only

80
Q

List and define three coronal/frontal plane angular movements

A

Adduction: moving a limb toward the midline
Abduction: moving a limb away from the midline
Lateral flexion: bending sideways (only relates to the vertebral column)

81
Q

List and define two sagittal plane angular movements

A

Flexion: decreasing the angle between two bones

Extension: increasing the angle between two bones

82
Q

List and define 3 transverse plane angular movements

A

Rotation: turning a bone around its longitudinal axis

Internal rotation: turning a bone towards the midline

External rotation: turning a bone away from the midline

83
Q

List and describe 3 special movements that occur on the coronal/frontal plane

A

Elevation and depression: gliding body part superiorly or inferior, respectively

Radial and ulnar deviation: moving wrist towards radius or ulna, respectively, turning the thumb in is ulnar and turning the thumb out is radial

Inversion and eversion: tilting the sole of the foot medially or laterally, respectively

84
Q

Name and describe one special movement that occurs on the sagittal plane

A

Dorsiflexion and plantarflexion; moving the ankle upwards or downwards, respectively

85
Q

What are the five main movements of the jaw?

A

Depression
Elevation
Protrusion
Retrusion
Lateral deviation

86
Q

Describe what radiography is

A

A type of imaging that produces 2 dimensional images formed via the use of x-rays

87
Q

Does radiography use radiation

A

Yes

88
Q

What are the uses of a radiograph?

A

To assess bones, organs and dense structures

89
Q

Pros and cons of radiography?

A

Pros: quick and low expertise required, inexpensive and easily accessible
Cons: 2D image and low resolution, radiation exposure

90
Q

Describe ‘videofluroscopy’ including its uses, pros, cons and the types

A

sing ionising radiation (x-rays to view internal human anatomy, dense structures appear bright)

Uses: bones organs, dense structures

Pros: real time image, quick and low expertise required, inexpensive and easily accessible

Cons: 2D image and radiation exposure

Types: modified barium swallow (MBS)

91
Q

Describe a CT scan including its uses, pros, cons and the types

A

3 dimensional images formed via the use of ‘x-rays’ (radiation), dense objects appear bright

Uses: bones, organs, dense structures

Pros: 3D image, deep view, high resolution, relatively quick, cheap (bulk billed), reasonably accessible

Cons: very high radiation exposure, reasonably expensive and high expertise required

Types: with or without contrast

92
Q

Describe an MRI scan including its uses, pros, cons and the types

A

3 dimensional images formed via the use of magnetic materials (no radiation)

T1-weighted; fat appears bright, T2-weighted: water appears bright

Uses: tissues containing fluid

Pros: 3D image, deep view and high resolution, no radiation exposure

Cons: Inaccessible, slow (45 min), expensive and high expertise required, claustrophobia

93
Q

Describe an ultrasound scan including its uses, pros, cons and the types

A

2 or 3 dimensional images formed via the use of ultrasound waves (no radiation).

Dense objects appear bright

Uses: soft tissues, organs, superficial structures

Pros: ‘real time’, dynamic, inexpensive, quick, no radiation exposure

Cons: low resolution, superficial viewing only, high expertise required

94
Q

Define eukaryotic cells

A

Plant and animal cells with a nucleus and membrane-enclosed organelles

95
Q

Define prokaryotic cells

A

Unicellular organisms without a nucleus or membrane-enclosed organelles

96
Q

List three things that all cells have

A

a cell membrane, cytoplasm, and genetic material

97
Q

Describe lipids and their function in the cell

A

Hydrophobic tails, hydrophilic heads

Functions: physical barrier, selective permeability, communication, cell recognition

98
Q

Name the two types of proteins which assist with transport in the cell

A

Channel or carrier proteins

99
Q

What is the function of proteins in the cell?

A

Transport, cell-to-cell joining, communication, cell recognition

100
Q

What is the function of carbohydrates in the cell?

A

Cell-to-cell joining (adhesion), communication, cell recognition, physical barrier

101
Q

What is the function of the endoplasmic reticulum?

A

Storage, metabolism, protein synthesis

102
Q

What is the function of the mitochondria?

A

Produces energy through aerobic metabolism

103
Q

What is the function of the golgi apparatus?

A
  • contains transport vesicles that allow for the processing of proteins
  • exocytosis
104
Q

Lists three features that make up the nucleus

A
  • nuclear envelope
  • chromatin
  • nucleolus
105
Q

What is the function of the nucleus?

A

To produce DNA (instructions for protein synthesis)

106
Q

What are the seven types of functions that cells can perform?

A
  1. connectivity
  2. transport
  3. movement
  4. control
  5. defence
  6. reproduction
  7. storage
107
Q

Define diffusion

A

The movements of solutes across a semipermeable membrane from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration; simple, facilitated, channel-mediated, carrier-mediated

108
Q

Define simple diffusion

A

A fat-soluble substance crosses the plasma membrane on its own

109
Q

Define facilitated diffusion

A

Fat insoluble substance requires facilitated diffusion to cross the membrane

110
Q

What are the two types of facilitated diffusion?

A

Carrier-mediated diffusion: The carrier binds to the substance causing the carrier to change shape

Channel-mediated diffusion: the substance travels through the channel protein

111
Q

Define osmosis

A

the movement of water across a semipermeable membrane from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration

112
Q

Explain ‘hypotonic solution’

A

Diluted solution with a lack of solute (CELL WILL SWELL AS WATER MOVES IN)

113
Q

Describe ‘isotonic solution’

A

Normal; cell with remain the same

114
Q

Descibe ‘hypertonic solution’

A

Concentrated; cell with shrink as WATER MOVES OUT

115
Q

Define ‘active transport’

A

The movement of solutes across a semipermeable membrane from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration; requires ATP

116
Q

Describe the process of the ‘sodium potassium pump’

A
  1. ATP binds to the protein pump
  2. Intracellular sodium binds to the carrier protein pump
  3. ATP hydrolyses into ADP (energy is released)
  4. The carrier protein pump changes shape, sodium is released out of the cell
  5. 2 Extracellular potassium binds to the carrier protein pump
  6. The carrier protein pump changes shape, and potassium is released into the cell
117
Q

Define ‘vehicular transport’

A

the movement of vesicles across an impermeable membrane; endocytosis and exocytosis

118
Q

Define endocytosis

A

Process the cell uses to engulf extracellular material

119
Q

Define ‘exocytosis’

A

Process the cell uses to expel material into the extracellular space

120
Q

Name and explain the three types of endocytosis

A

Phagocytosis; is used by white blood cells that look for debris, bacteria, etc.; is taken into the cell and is digested and broken down

Pinocytosis; the cell ‘drinks’ (nonspecific), the cell plasma membrane invaginates → forms a vesicle

Receptor-mediated endocytosis; specific receptors, receptors and molecules are separated so that molecules can be digested and receptors can be reused

121
Q

Briefly explain the process of exocytosis

A

Starts in Golgi

Takes proteins, lipids, and hormones from rough and smooth ER and forms vesicles

Uses ATP to move vesicles into the extracellular space

122
Q

Describe ‘interphase’ as a step in the cell cycle

A

Interphase: happens before mitosis

Nucleus is intact

Uncoiled form of DNA (Chromatin)

The cell replicates its chromatin so that there are identical sister chromatids

This is important so that the identical daughter cells can be identical

123
Q

Identify and explain the 4 phases of mitosis

A

Prophase; protein synthesis + DNA replication
Chromatin coils and forms chromosomes
The nucleus disintegrates
Spindle apparatus forms

Metaphase
Chromosomes line up down the middle of the cell

Anaphase
The sister chromatids are separated from each other and pulled to different ends of the cell

Telephase
Chromosomes uncoil, the nucleus returns, the spindle apparatus breaks down, cell divides in half (cytokinesis)

124
Q

Describe epithelial tissue and its function

A

Tightly packed cells
Apical free surface
Basal (deep) surface
Lack blood vessels
Functions; provides protection, sensory functions, secretions, absorption
Classification of epithelial tissue is based on: cell shape

125
Q

What are the three types of epithelial cells?

A

Squamous- thin and flat
Cuboidal: cube shaped
Columnar: more tall than wide

126
Q

Describe stratified vs simple epithelial

A

Stratified: two or more cell layers
Simple: one cell layer

127
Q

Which tissue is the most abundant and widely distributed tissue in the body?

A

Connective tissue

128
Q

Name three types of loose connective tissue and an example for each

A
  1. Areolar; example; mucous membrane
  2. Adipose; example; subcutaneous tissue
  3. Reticular; example; lymphoid organs
129
Q

Name three types of dense connective tissue and an example for each

A
  1. Irregular; example; joint capsules
  2. regular; tendons
  3. elastic; elastic membranes in arteries
130
Q

Define cartilage tissue

A

A tough, flexible tissue that typically resists forces and provides support

131
Q

Name three types of cartilage and provide an example for each

A
  1. Hyaline; example; costal cartilage
  2. Elastic; example; ear cartilage
  3. Fibrocartilage; example; intervertebral discs
132
Q

Name four bone cells and their functions

A

Osteocytes: monitoring cells
Osteoclasts: bone-forming cells
Osteoclasts: bone reabsorption cells
Osteoprogenitor cells: bone stem cells

133
Q

Identify and explain the two primary processes that are responsible for bone formation

A

Endochondral ossification: long bone formation derived from hyaline cartilage

Intramembranous ossification: flat bone formation derived from fibrocartilage

134
Q

Describe plasma (relative to blood) and explain it’s function

A
  • Makes up 55% of whole blood
  • Includes nutrients, gases, electrolytes, water, waste

Functions: REGULATION –> maintain body temp, pH,fluid volume (eg. blood pressure)

135
Q

Describe the ‘buffy coat’ in relation to blood and explain its function

A
  • <1% of whole blood
  • Made of white blood cells and platelets

Function –> PROTECTION; prevents blood loss (platelets), defends against infection (leukocytes)

136
Q

Describe erthrocytes (red blood cells) and explain their function

A
  • make up 45% of whole blood
  • biconcave discs of hemoglobin

FUNCTION: TRANSPORT–>
- delivering oxygen from lungs and nutrients from digestive system to body cells
- Transports and eliminates metabolic waste (eg. C02
- Transports hormones from endocrine organs to target organs

137
Q

What are the three types of muscles?

A

Skeletal muscle, smooth muscle, cardiac muscle

138
Q

Define skeletal muscle and explain its function

A

Striated muscle found around the skeleton and responsible for:

Voluntary movement
Maintaining posture and body position
Stabilising joints
Thermoregulation

139
Q

Define ‘smooth muscle’

A

Non straited muscle found predominantly in hollow organs of the body and responsible for involuntary visceral functions

140
Q

Define cardiac muscle

A

Straited muscle found only within the walls of the heart responsible for the involuntary contractions of the heart

141
Q

What are the four supporting cells of the central nervous system and what are their functions?

A

Oligodendrocytes: produce myelin

Microglial cells: tissue regenerations

Astrocytes: neuronal support and controls blood brain barrier

Ependymal cells: Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) regulation

142
Q

Name the two supporting cells of the Peripheral Nervous System and their functions

A

Satellite cells; tissue regeneration
Schwann cells: produce myelin

143
Q

What makes up white matter?

A
  • myelinated axons
144
Q

What makes up grey matter?

A
  • unmyelinated axons
  • cell bodies
  • neuroglia
145
Q

Identify and describe the three phases of tissue repair in relation to skin

A

Inflammation:
1. Trauma evokes an immune response (inflammatory chemicals)
Clotting seals injured skin to prevent infection (forms a scab)

  1. Granulation tissue formation
    Capillary ingrowth and fibroblast activity leads to new tissue formation (ie. epithelial tissue)
  2. Regeneration (scar tissue formation)
    New tissue thickens and matures forming scar tissue
146
Q

What are the 5 cardinal signs of inflammation?

A

Pain
Heat
Redness
Swelling
Loss of function/movement

147
Q

Identify and describe the four stages of bone repair

A
  1. Hematoma forms; bleeding, inflammation and blood clots form (happens within hours)
  2. Soft callus; capillary ingrowth, osteoblast activity (happens within days)
  3. Bony callus; spongy bone formation; endochondral ossification (happens within weeks)
  4. Remodelling; compact bone formation (happens within months)
148
Q

Name 9 fracture classifications and their meanings

A
  1. Open (compound); open wound
  2. Close (simple); no open wound
  3. Partial (incomplete); fracture does not transect the entire bone width
  4. Complete; fracture that transects entire bone width
  5. Stable; fracture that has not displaces usual alignment
  6. Unstable; fracture has displaced usual alignment
  7. Stress; fracture from repetitive overuse
  8. Pathological; fracture caused by other underlying pathology (eg. cancer)
  9. Avulsion; fracture characterized by a fragment of bone where a tendon or ligament is attached that has been pulled away from the rest of the bone
149
Q

Name 5 types of bone and one example of each

A
  1. Long (eg. femur, tibia)
  2. Short (eg. tarsal bones)
  3. FLat (cranial bones)
  4. Irregular (eg. pelvis)
  5. Sesamoid (eg. patella)
150
Q

Name 6 function of bones and an example for each function

A
  1. Protection: eg. cranium
  2. Anchorage: eg. ALL BONES
  3. Hormone production: eg. all bones!
  4. red blood cell production: long bones – spongy bone
  5. Fat and mineral storage; eg.long bones – spongy bone
  6. Support; eg. vertebra, ribs, pelvis, femur etc.
151
Q

Define periosteum in relation to bones on a microscopic level

A

outermost membrane of the bone

152
Q

Define endosteum in relation to bones on a microscopic level

A

The membrane within the bone

153
Q

Name four bone cells (microscopic level) and their function

A

Osteocytes: monitor and maintain healthy bone matrix

Osteoblasts: bone building cells (formation)

Osteoclasts: bone destroying cells (reabsorption)

Osteogenic cells: Stem cells that differentiate into osteoblasts

154
Q

Outline the steps of endochondral ossification and the week in which they occur from infancy to adolescence

A

Week 9-12: bone collar forms around diaphysis and medullary cavity forms within diaphysis

Week 12-38: spongy bone forms within diaphysis and epiphyses appear

Childhood to adolescence: epiphyses ossify and epiphyseal plates appear

155
Q

Define intramembranous ossification

A

Bone formation via fibrous cartilage
Cranium and clavicles only (flat bones mostly)

156
Q

Define endochondral ossification

A

Bone formation via hyaline cartilage
All bones except cranium & clavicles

157
Q

Outline the steps of intramembranous ossification

A
  • ossification centre emerges within fibrous connective tissue
  • spongy bones forms and eventually is replaced by compact bone and surrounded by periosteum
158
Q

Define deposition in relation to bone

A

the process of new bone formation- osteoblasts

159
Q

Define reabsorption

A

the process of bone destruction- osteoclasts

160
Q

List the elements which make up the vertebral column

A

CERVICAL:
C1- C7 –> supports the neck
C1: ATLAS –> allows you to nod your head
C2: AXIS –> allows you to shake your head

THORACIC:
T1-T12

LUMBAR:
L1-L5

SACRAL:
S1-S5 –> connects the spine to the hip bone

COCCYX:
4 fused vertebrae

161
Q

Explain the function of intervertebral discs

A

Provide cushioning and prevent the bones from rubbing together

ALSO NOTE: There’s no intervertebral disc between C1 and C2

162
Q

Name 5 unique characteristics of cervical vertebra

A
  1. kidney shaped vertebral body
  2. triangular vertebral foramen
  3. bifid spinous process
  4. transverse foramen
  5. articular facet orientation (superior to inferior)
163
Q

Name 4 unique characteristics of thoracic vertebra

A
  1. circular vertebral body with two superior an two inferior costal facets
  2. circular vertebral foramen
  3. long sharp spinous process (project inferiorly)
  4. articular facet orientation (anterior to posterior)
164
Q

Outline the three types of ribs and their meanings

A
  1. true ribs 1-7 –> directly attach to the sternum
  2. false ribs 8-10 –> indirectly attach to sternum
  3. Floating ribs 11-12 –> do not attach to sternum
165
Q

Describe the hyoid bone and explain its function

A

A small U shaped bones situated in the midline of the neck anteriorly just above the larynx

FUNCTION: key attachment for the muscles of the tongue and pharynx

166
Q

What are four key characteristics of skeletal muscle

A

Excitability: responsiveness to stimuli
Contractility: ability to generate force and shorten
Extensibility: ability to lengthen under tension
Elasticity: ability to recoil

167
Q

Explain the stages of the cross bridge cycle (how a muscle contracts)

A

Cocking phase: myosin adopts high energy ‘cocked’ position

Bridge formation: myosin binds to actin

Power stroke: myosin pivots & pulls actin (towards M line) → energy released

Bridge detachment: Myosin detaches from actin

168
Q

Explain the stages of the sliding filament model (how a muscle contracts)

A

Thin filaments move towards the M line
I band reduces in size
H zone disappears
Consecutive Z discs move closer together

169
Q

Name the muscles responsible for depression of the mandible

A

Lateral pterygoid, digastric, mylohyoid

170
Q

Name the muscles responsible for elevation of the mandible

A

masseter, temporalis, medial, pterygoid

171
Q

Name the muscles responsible for protrusion of the mandible

A

lateral pterygoid

172
Q

Name the muscles responsible for retrusion of the mandible

A

masseter, temporalis

173
Q

In the neck, deep vertebral muscles serve what purpose?

A

Support head and stablize vertebral column

174
Q

In the neck, the lateral/carniothoracic muscles serve what function?

A

Neck movement

175
Q

In the neck, the hyoid muscles serve what function?

A

Stablise and mobilise hyoid bone during speech and swallowing

176
Q

Explain suprahyoid muscles and their function

A

Four pharyngeal muscles located above the hyoid bone that stablise and elevate the hyoid during swallowing and speech

177
Q

Explain infrahyoid muscles and their function

A

Four pharyngeal muscles located below the hyoid bone that stabilise and depress the hyoid during swallowing and speech

HEASP1011 (1 decks)

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