In class review questions Flashcards
1
Q
what are the four parts of the uterine tube
A
infundibulum, Ampulla, Isthmus, and Uterine part
2
Q
primary and seconday sights of fertilization?
A
ampulla and infundibulum
3
Q
what are the fingerlike projections around the margin of the infundibulum?
A
fimbriae
4
Q
definition of nulliparous woman and characteristics of her uterus?
A
woman w no children, thick and muscular uterine walls. inverted pear shape
5
Q
internal Os is the:
A
isthmus of uterus
6
Q
external Os is the:
A
opening of the cervical canal into the vagina
7
Q
layers of the uterus? superficial-deep
A
perimetrium, myometrium, endometrium
8
Q
layers of the endometrium? Which one sloughs off during menstruation?
A
functional and basilar layers. Functional layer sloughs off
9
Q
which hormone initiates female REPRODUCTION?
A
gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH)
10
Q
which two hormones are stimulated by GnRH? what are they produced by?
A
FSH and LH. produced by the anterior pituitary
11
Q
what is the function of fertility drugs?
A
increase fertility by increasing FSH and LH
12
Q
which hormone triggers OVULATION (release of the secondary oocyte) and secretion of progesterone?
A
LH
13
Q
which hormone stimulates development of ovarian follicles and estrogen secretion?
A
FSH
14
Q
how many follicles become primary follicles?
A
5-12
15
Q
how many primary follicles complete the maturation process? what happens to the others?
A
uno, others degenerate into atretic follicles
16
Q
what happens to secondary follicles?
A
follicular fluid accumulates among the follicular cells. space enlarges to form antrum
17
Q
mature follicle develops into what glandular structure following OVULATION?
A
corpus luteum
18
Q
what happens to corpus luteum if fertilization does not occur?
A
corpus luteum involutes (goes away) 10-12 days after ovulation and turns into white scar called corpus albicans
19
Q
what happens to corpus luteum if fertilization does occur?
A
corpus luteum enlarges and increases its output of progesterone and estrogen. becomes corpus luteum of pregnancy
20
Q
function of hormonal methods of contraception (birth control)
A
inhibit ovulation (suppress LH and FSH secretion) and thicken cervical mucus (prevent sperm from entering uterus)
21
Q
phases of menstrual cycle:
A
menstrual phase (4 to 5 days)
proliferative phase (9 days)
secretory (luteal) phase (13 days)
Ischemic phase (1 day)
22
Q
menstrual phase:
A
functional layer of endometrium sloughs off
23
Q
proliferative phase:
A
endometrium doubles or triples in thickness due to secretion of estrogen
24
Q
secretory phase:
A
increased progesterone causes secretion by endometrial glands, further thickening of endometrium
25
ischemic phase:
if no fertilization, endometrium shrinks and ischemia (no blood supply)
26
after fimbriae have swept the secondary oocyte into the infundibulum and into uterine tube what action moves it towards the uterus?
peristalsis
27
what nourishes sperm?
fructose from the seminal fluid
28
what is capacitation?
7 hour period of additional maturation of the sperm within the isthmus of the uterine tube
29
explain the acrosome reaction:
sperm comes in contact with the corona radiata surrounding the oocyte and acrosome releases enzymes which allow sperm to penetrate the oocyte and fuse w its cell membrane
30
explain zona reaction:
once zona pellucida is penetrated by sperm, it becomes impermeable to other sperms
31
term for oocyte containing two unfused pronuclei?
ootid
32
inner cell mass of morula gives rise to:
tissues of the embryo
33
outer cell mass of morula gives rise to:
trophoblast
34
embryonic stem cells are PLURIPOTENT, meaning:
they can form any cell or tissue type, potential to cure a broad range of diseases
35
adult stem cells are MULTIPOTENT, meaning:
they are restricted in their ability to form cells
36
2 differentiations of trophoblasts:
cytotrophoblast and syncytiotrophoblast
37
function of syncytiotrophoblast?
secretes hCG and anchors blastocyst to the wall
38
which hormones indicates that implantation has occurred? (pregnancy)
human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
39
what are the two layers of the bilaminar embryonic disc?
hypoblast layer (small cuboidal cells) and epiblast layer (tall columnar cells)
40
explain the decidual reaction:
endometrial cells swell as they fill w glycogen and lipids to provide nutrients to the early embryo
41
chorion is formed by the:
- extraembryonic somatic mesoderm
- cytotrophoblast
- syncytiotrophoblast
42
what structures are suspended within the chorionic sac?
embryo
amniotic sac
umbilical vesicle
43
prechordal plate is important for the formation of what?
mouth and head
44
ectopic pregnancy:
implantation anywhere outside uterine cavity
45
ectopic tubal pregnancy:
implantation anywhere outside uterine cavity
46
ectopic abdominal pregnancy:
implantation in recto-uterine pouch
47
ectopic cervical pregnancy:
implantation in cervical canal
48
ectopic mesenteric pregnancy:
implantation in mesentery of small intestine
49
ectopic ovarian pregnancy:
implantation in ovary
50
characteristics of spontaneous abortion (miscarriage)
- most occur within 3 weeks of fertilization
- over 50% result from chromosomal abnormalities
- inverse relationship between frequency of spontaneous abortion and teratogenesis
51
what is gastrulation?
bilaminar embryonic disc is converted into the trilaminar embryonic disc
- begins w formation of primitive streak on epiblast
- results in formation of 3 germ layers
52
term for development of body form? (process begins with gastrulation)
morphogenesis
53
3 germ layers?
ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm
54
4 characteristics of the notochord?
- defines the longitudinal axis of the embryo
- provides rigidity to the embryo
- forms the central part of the intervertebral discs
- is the primary signaling center for development in the early embryo
55
term for formation of the neural tube?
neurolation
56
_____ will differentiate into the CNS, including brain and spinal cord
neuroectoderm of the neural plate
57
vertebral column comes from:
somites
58
somites give rise to the:
axial skeleton, axial musculature, dermis of skin
59
when do blood vessels first appear?
week 3 of development
60
blood vessels first appear where?
umbilical vessel, connecting stalk, chorion
61
which system is first system to become functional?
cardiovascular
62
where do all exchanges occur? oxygen, nutrients, waste, etc?
chorionic villi
63
primary chorionic villi:
appear during week 2 as cellular extensions which grow into the syncytiotrophoblast
64
secondary chorionic villi:
develop early in week 3, when mesenchyme (primary connective tissue) grows into primary villi
65
tertiary chorionic villi:
develop near the end of week 3, when capillaries grow into villi
66
cytotrophoblastic shell are formed by what
cytotrophoblastic processes
67
hydatidiform mole:
embryo dies and the chorionic villi degenerate and form cysts which resemble a bunch of grapes
68
folding of embryo occurs in which week
week 4
69
ventral folding of the embryo occurs at the:
- cranial end
- caudal end
- lateral edges
70
foregut is developed by what process
ventral folding of the head which incorporates part of the endoderm into the head. this folding also causes oropharyngeal membrane and heart to move ventrally
71
hindgut is developed by what process
ventral folding of the caudal end which incorporates part of the endoderm. terminal part of hindgut forms cloaca
72
midgut is developed by what process
ventral folding of the lateral edges of the embryo incorporates part of the endoderm. this folding forms lateral and ventral body walls (forms intestines)
73
the body cavity enclosed within the ventral folding of the lateral edges forms the:
intraembryonic coelom
74
during which week do spontaneous movements of the embryo occur?
week 6
75
heartbeat is detectable by ultrasound during which week?
weeks 6 to 7
76
during which week do purposeful movements of the limb occur?
week 8
77
ectoderm gives rise to which two major divisions?
surface ectoderm and neuroectoderm
78
SURFACE ECTODERM major division of the ectoderm gives rise to:
- epidermis and its derivatives
- dental enamel
- special sensory organs
- anterior pituitary gland
79
NEUROECTODERM major division of the ectoderm gives rise to:
1. neural tube
- CNS
- posterior pituitary
- pineal gland
- retina
2. neural crest cells
- the rest of the NS as well as pulmonary trunk and aorta
80
mesoderm gives rise to which three major divisions?
paraxial mesoderm, intermediate mesoderm, lateral mesoderm
81
PARAXIAL MESODERM major division of the mesoderm gives rise to:
-bone
-connective tissue associated w skeleton
- muscle
- dermis
82
INTERMEDIATE MESODERM major division of the mesoderm gives rise to:
- organs and ducts of urinary system
- organs and ducts of reproductive system
83
LATERAL MESODERM major division of the mesoderm gives rise to:
- cardiovascular system
- lymphatic system
- stroma of organs
- membranes lining body cavities
- cortex of suprarenal gland
84
connective tissue framework of organs?
stroma
85
functional cells of organs?
parenchyma
86
endoderm gives rise to?
- epithelium of respiratory system
- epithelium of digestive system
- epithelium of bladder and urethra
- parenchyma of liver, pancreas, thyroid, parathyroid, tonsils, and thymus
87
3 phases of embryonic development:
- growth, cell division
- morphogenesis, development of body and organs
- differentiation, the production of cells and their organization into tissues/organs
88
an interaction between tissues which leads to a change in the course of development?
induction
89
failure of induction to occur in the limited time provided can lead to?
development errors
90
gestation age:
40 weeks. dated from LNMP
91
embryonic age:
38 weeks. dated from fertilization
92
is the fetus or embryo more susceptible to teratogenic agents?
embryo
93
growth in LENGTH is more pronounced which months?
3-5
94
increase in WEIGHT is most rapid during which months?
8 and 9
95
during which month are the movements of the fetus felt by the mother?
5
96
low birth weight: most often due to? leads to? caused by?
- most often due to placenta insufficiency which reduces oxygen and nutrient flow
- leads to intrauterine growth restriction
- caused by smoking, drugs, preeclampsia, multiple fetuses
97
ultrasonography is used for:
- estimation of embryonic or fetal age
- estimation of growth rate
- guidance during biopsy procedures
- ID of multiple births
- ID of ectopic pregnancies
- detection of some birth defects (trisomy 21)
98
how is trisomy 21 detected through ultrasonography?
screening for Nuchal translucency (indicates fluid accumulation in back of neck)
99
what is amniocentesis?
inserting needle through the anterior abdominal wall and uterus of mother to sample amniotic fluid (detects abnormalities, confirms trisomy 21)
100
amniocentesis use is indicated in:
- advanced maternal age (38+)
- previous birth of child w trisomy 21
- family history of neural tube defects
- family history of chromosomal abnormalities
101
elevated levels of AFP in maternal serum are associated w?
- neural tube defects
- sacrococcygeal teratoma
- major abnormalities of the gut
102
decreased levels of AFP in maternal serum are associated w?
- trisomy 21
- trisomy 18
- sex chromosome abnormalities
103
chorionic villus sampling (CVS) detects:
- chromosomal abnormalities
- x-linked disorders
- inborn errors of metabolism
104
non-ionizing radiation:
ex: microwave, ultrasound, radiowaves
- no risk to embryo
105
ionizing radiation:
ex: x-rays, gamma rays
- can be teratogenic, mutagenic or carcinogenic
-risk of later developing childhood leukemia is increased regardless of dose
106
two parts of placenta:
fetal part (formed by chorion)
maternal part (formed by endometrium)
107
during pregnancy, functional layer of endometrium is called decidua. what are the three layers of the decidua?
- decidua basalis (forms maternal part of feus)
- decidua capsularis (covers fetus superficially)
- decidua parietalis (covers remainder of uterine cavity)
108
maternal blood enters the intervillous space via which arteries? oxygenated or deoxygenated?
spiral endometrial arteries, oxygenated
109
umbilical arteries:
carry deoxygenated blood from fetus to placenta
110
umbilical veins:
carry oxygenated blood from placenta to fetus
111
what is the most important factor to fetal health?
adequate uterine-placental circulation
112
which substances are exchanged via the placenta?
gases, nutrients and electrolytes, maternal antibodies, hormones, waste products
113
most bacteria and viruses do not get through the placenta, what are the exceptions?
HIV, rubella, cytomegalo virus, toxoplasmosis, zika
114
which hormone stimulates uterine contraction? secreted by?
oxytocin secreted by posterior pituitary
115
stages of labor:
- dilation (enlargement of external os)
- expulsion (delivery of fetus)
- placental stage ("after birth" placenta and fetal membranes are expelled)
116
occurs when blastocyst implants just above the internal os and the placenta develops below it, blocking the birth canal?
placenta previa, leads to bleeding during later pregnancy and requires C section
117
functions of amniotic fluid? (NOT A SOURCE OF NUTRIENTS)
- permits symmetrical growth of fetus
- barrier to infection
- shock absorber
- temperature regulator
- allows free movement facilitating muscle development
118
what are amniotic bands?
tears in amnion, may amputate digits or cause limb constrictions
119
what are the 2 types of twins:
- dizygotic (fraternal, originate from two zygotes)
- monozygotic (identical, originate from one zygote)
120
which twins have their own amniotic sac, but share a common chorionic sac and placenta?
monozygotic twins (identical)
121
when does umbilical chord detach?
7-8 days after birth
122
what leads to the loss of 10% of neonate's weight?
discharge of meconium
123
oligohydramnios, what is it and what does it cause:
abnormally low volume of amniotic fluid. leads to defects of face or limbs due to fetal compression
124
polyhydramnios what is it and what does it cause:
abnormally high volume of amniotic fluid. leads to major defects of CNS and esophagea atresia (prevents fetus from swallowing fluid)
125
source of all germ layers?
epiblast
126
what is human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) secreted by?
syncytiotrophoblast
127
an embryonic disc which does not completely seperate results in?
conjoined twins
128
what causes oligohydramnios?
- placental insufficiency (low blood flow)
- premature rupture of amniochorionic membrane
- renal agenesis (failure of kidney formation)
