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Embryology 1 > In class review questions > Flashcards

In class review questions Flashcards

1
Q

what are the four parts of the uterine tube

A

infundibulum, Ampulla, Isthmus, and Uterine part

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2
Q

primary and seconday sights of fertilization?

A

ampulla and infundibulum

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3
Q

what are the fingerlike projections around the margin of the infundibulum?

A

fimbriae

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4
Q

definition of nulliparous woman and characteristics of her uterus?

A

woman w no children, thick and muscular uterine walls. inverted pear shape

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5
Q

internal Os is the:

A

isthmus of uterus

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6
Q

external Os is the:

A

opening of the cervical canal into the vagina

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7
Q

layers of the uterus? superficial-deep

A

perimetrium, myometrium, endometrium

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8
Q

layers of the endometrium? Which one sloughs off during menstruation?

A

functional and basilar layers. Functional layer sloughs off

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9
Q

which hormone initiates female REPRODUCTION?

A

gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH)

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10
Q

which two hormones are stimulated by GnRH? what are they produced by?

A

FSH and LH. produced by the anterior pituitary

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11
Q

what is the function of fertility drugs?

A

increase fertility by increasing FSH and LH

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12
Q

which hormone triggers OVULATION (release of the secondary oocyte) and secretion of progesterone?

A

LH

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13
Q

which hormone stimulates development of ovarian follicles and estrogen secretion?

A

FSH

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14
Q

how many follicles become primary follicles?

A

5-12

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15
Q

how many primary follicles complete the maturation process? what happens to the others?

A

uno, others degenerate into atretic follicles

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16
Q

what happens to secondary follicles?

A

follicular fluid accumulates among the follicular cells. space enlarges to form antrum

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17
Q

mature follicle develops into what glandular structure following OVULATION?

A

corpus luteum

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18
Q

what happens to corpus luteum if fertilization does not occur?

A

corpus luteum involutes (goes away) 10-12 days after ovulation and turns into white scar called corpus albicans

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19
Q

what happens to corpus luteum if fertilization does occur?

A

corpus luteum enlarges and increases its output of progesterone and estrogen. becomes corpus luteum of pregnancy

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20
Q

function of hormonal methods of contraception (birth control)

A

inhibit ovulation (suppress LH and FSH secretion) and thicken cervical mucus (prevent sperm from entering uterus)

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21
Q

phases of menstrual cycle:

A

menstrual phase (4 to 5 days)
proliferative phase (9 days)
secretory (luteal) phase (13 days)
Ischemic phase (1 day)

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22
Q

menstrual phase:

A

functional layer of endometrium sloughs off

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23
Q

proliferative phase:

A

endometrium doubles or triples in thickness due to secretion of estrogen

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24
Q

secretory phase:

A

increased progesterone causes secretion by endometrial glands, further thickening of endometrium

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25
Q

ischemic phase:

A

if no fertilization, endometrium shrinks and ischemia (no blood supply)

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26
Q

after fimbriae have swept the secondary oocyte into the infundibulum and into uterine tube what action moves it towards the uterus?

A

peristalsis

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27
Q

what nourishes sperm?

A

fructose from the seminal fluid

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28
Q

what is capacitation?

A

7 hour period of additional maturation of the sperm within the isthmus of the uterine tube

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29
Q

explain the acrosome reaction:

A

sperm comes in contact with the corona radiata surrounding the oocyte and acrosome releases enzymes which allow sperm to penetrate the oocyte and fuse w its cell membrane

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30
Q

explain zona reaction:

A

once zona pellucida is penetrated by sperm, it becomes impermeable to other sperms

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31
Q

term for oocyte containing two unfused pronuclei?

A

ootid

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32
Q

inner cell mass of morula gives rise to:

A

tissues of the embryo

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33
Q

outer cell mass of morula gives rise to:

A

trophoblast

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34
Q

embryonic stem cells are PLURIPOTENT, meaning:

A

they can form any cell or tissue type, potential to cure a broad range of diseases

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35
Q

adult stem cells are MULTIPOTENT, meaning:

A

they are restricted in their ability to form cells

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36
Q

2 differentiations of trophoblasts:

A

cytotrophoblast and syncytiotrophoblast

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37
Q

function of syncytiotrophoblast?

A

secretes hCG and anchors blastocyst to the wall

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38
Q

which hormones indicates that implantation has occurred? (pregnancy)

A

human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

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39
Q

what are the two layers of the bilaminar embryonic disc?

A

hypoblast layer (small cuboidal cells) and epiblast layer (tall columnar cells)

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40
Q

explain the decidual reaction:

A

endometrial cells swell as they fill w glycogen and lipids to provide nutrients to the early embryo

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41
Q

chorion is formed by the:

A
  • extraembryonic somatic mesoderm
  • cytotrophoblast
  • syncytiotrophoblast
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42
Q

what structures are suspended within the chorionic sac?

A

embryo
amniotic sac
umbilical vesicle

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43
Q

prechordal plate is important for the formation of what?

A

mouth and head

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44
Q

ectopic pregnancy:

A

implantation anywhere outside uterine cavity

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45
Q

ectopic tubal pregnancy:

A

implantation anywhere outside uterine cavity

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46
Q

ectopic abdominal pregnancy:

A

implantation in recto-uterine pouch

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47
Q

ectopic cervical pregnancy:

A

implantation in cervical canal

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48
Q

ectopic mesenteric pregnancy:

A

implantation in mesentery of small intestine

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49
Q

ectopic ovarian pregnancy:

A

implantation in ovary

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50
Q

characteristics of spontaneous abortion (miscarriage)

A
  • most occur within 3 weeks of fertilization
  • over 50% result from chromosomal abnormalities
  • inverse relationship between frequency of spontaneous abortion and teratogenesis
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51
Q

what is gastrulation?

A

bilaminar embryonic disc is converted into the trilaminar embryonic disc
- begins w formation of primitive streak on epiblast
- results in formation of 3 germ layers

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52
Q

term for development of body form? (process begins with gastrulation)

A

morphogenesis

53
Q

3 germ layers?

A

ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm

54
Q

4 characteristics of the notochord?

A
  • defines the longitudinal axis of the embryo
  • provides rigidity to the embryo
  • forms the central part of the intervertebral discs
  • is the primary signaling center for development in the early embryo
55
Q

term for formation of the neural tube?

A

neurolation

56
Q

_____ will differentiate into the CNS, including brain and spinal cord

A

neuroectoderm of the neural plate

57
Q

vertebral column comes from:

A

somites

58
Q

somites give rise to the:

A

axial skeleton, axial musculature, dermis of skin

59
Q

when do blood vessels first appear?

A

week 3 of development

60
Q

blood vessels first appear where?

A

umbilical vessel, connecting stalk, chorion

61
Q

which system is first system to become functional?

A

cardiovascular

62
Q

where do all exchanges occur? oxygen, nutrients, waste, etc?

A

chorionic villi

63
Q

primary chorionic villi:

A

appear during week 2 as cellular extensions which grow into the syncytiotrophoblast

64
Q

secondary chorionic villi:

A

develop early in week 3, when mesenchyme (primary connective tissue) grows into primary villi

65
Q

tertiary chorionic villi:

A

develop near the end of week 3, when capillaries grow into villi

66
Q

cytotrophoblastic shell are formed by what

A

cytotrophoblastic processes

67
Q

hydatidiform mole:

A

embryo dies and the chorionic villi degenerate and form cysts which resemble a bunch of grapes

68
Q

folding of embryo occurs in which week

A

week 4

69
Q

ventral folding of the embryo occurs at the:

A
  • cranial end
  • caudal end
  • lateral edges
70
Q

foregut is developed by what process

A

ventral folding of the head which incorporates part of the endoderm into the head. this folding also causes oropharyngeal membrane and heart to move ventrally

71
Q

hindgut is developed by what process

A

ventral folding of the caudal end which incorporates part of the endoderm. terminal part of hindgut forms cloaca

72
Q

midgut is developed by what process

A

ventral folding of the lateral edges of the embryo incorporates part of the endoderm. this folding forms lateral and ventral body walls (forms intestines)

73
Q

the body cavity enclosed within the ventral folding of the lateral edges forms the:

A

intraembryonic coelom

74
Q

during which week do spontaneous movements of the embryo occur?

A

week 6

75
Q

heartbeat is detectable by ultrasound during which week?

A

weeks 6 to 7

76
Q

during which week do purposeful movements of the limb occur?

A

week 8

77
Q

ectoderm gives rise to which two major divisions?

A

surface ectoderm and neuroectoderm

78
Q

SURFACE ECTODERM major division of the ectoderm gives rise to:

A
  • epidermis and its derivatives
  • dental enamel
  • special sensory organs
  • anterior pituitary gland
79
Q

NEUROECTODERM major division of the ectoderm gives rise to:

A
  1. neural tube
    - CNS
    - posterior pituitary
    - pineal gland
    - retina
  2. neural crest cells
    - the rest of the NS as well as pulmonary trunk and aorta
80
Q

mesoderm gives rise to which three major divisions?

A

paraxial mesoderm, intermediate mesoderm, lateral mesoderm

81
Q

PARAXIAL MESODERM major division of the mesoderm gives rise to:

A

-bone
-connective tissue associated w skeleton
- muscle
- dermis

82
Q

INTERMEDIATE MESODERM major division of the mesoderm gives rise to:

A
  • organs and ducts of urinary system
  • organs and ducts of reproductive system
83
Q

LATERAL MESODERM major division of the mesoderm gives rise to:

A
  • cardiovascular system
  • lymphatic system
  • stroma of organs
  • membranes lining body cavities
  • cortex of suprarenal gland
84
Q

connective tissue framework of organs?

A

stroma

85
Q

functional cells of organs?

A

parenchyma

86
Q

endoderm gives rise to?

A
  • epithelium of respiratory system
  • epithelium of digestive system
  • epithelium of bladder and urethra
  • parenchyma of liver, pancreas, thyroid, parathyroid, tonsils, and thymus
87
Q

3 phases of embryonic development:

A
  • growth, cell division
  • morphogenesis, development of body and organs
  • differentiation, the production of cells and their organization into tissues/organs
88
Q

an interaction between tissues which leads to a change in the course of development?

A

induction

89
Q

failure of induction to occur in the limited time provided can lead to?

A

development errors

90
Q

gestation age:

A

40 weeks. dated from LNMP

91
Q

embryonic age:

A

38 weeks. dated from fertilization

92
Q

is the fetus or embryo more susceptible to teratogenic agents?

A

embryo

93
Q

growth in LENGTH is more pronounced which months?

A

3-5

94
Q

increase in WEIGHT is most rapid during which months?

A

8 and 9

95
Q

during which month are the movements of the fetus felt by the mother?

A

5

96
Q

low birth weight: most often due to? leads to? caused by?

A
  • most often due to placenta insufficiency which reduces oxygen and nutrient flow
  • leads to intrauterine growth restriction
  • caused by smoking, drugs, preeclampsia, multiple fetuses
97
Q

ultrasonography is used for:

A
  • estimation of embryonic or fetal age
  • estimation of growth rate
  • guidance during biopsy procedures
  • ID of multiple births
  • ID of ectopic pregnancies
  • detection of some birth defects (trisomy 21)
98
Q

how is trisomy 21 detected through ultrasonography?

A

screening for Nuchal translucency (indicates fluid accumulation in back of neck)

99
Q

what is amniocentesis?

A

inserting needle through the anterior abdominal wall and uterus of mother to sample amniotic fluid (detects abnormalities, confirms trisomy 21)

100
Q

amniocentesis use is indicated in:

A
  • advanced maternal age (38+)
  • previous birth of child w trisomy 21
  • family history of neural tube defects
  • family history of chromosomal abnormalities
101
Q

elevated levels of AFP in maternal serum are associated w?

A
  • neural tube defects
  • sacrococcygeal teratoma
  • major abnormalities of the gut
102
Q

decreased levels of AFP in maternal serum are associated w?

A
  • trisomy 21
  • trisomy 18
  • sex chromosome abnormalities
103
Q

chorionic villus sampling (CVS) detects:

A
  • chromosomal abnormalities
  • x-linked disorders
  • inborn errors of metabolism
104
Q

non-ionizing radiation:

A

ex: microwave, ultrasound, radiowaves
- no risk to embryo

105
Q

ionizing radiation:

A

ex: x-rays, gamma rays
- can be teratogenic, mutagenic or carcinogenic
-risk of later developing childhood leukemia is increased regardless of dose

106
Q

two parts of placenta:

A

fetal part (formed by chorion)
maternal part (formed by endometrium)

107
Q

during pregnancy, functional layer of endometrium is called decidua. what are the three layers of the decidua?

A
  • decidua basalis (forms maternal part of feus)
  • decidua capsularis (covers fetus superficially)
  • decidua parietalis (covers remainder of uterine cavity)
108
Q

maternal blood enters the intervillous space via which arteries? oxygenated or deoxygenated?

A

spiral endometrial arteries, oxygenated

109
Q

umbilical arteries:

A

carry deoxygenated blood from fetus to placenta

110
Q

umbilical veins:

A

carry oxygenated blood from placenta to fetus

111
Q

what is the most important factor to fetal health?

A

adequate uterine-placental circulation

112
Q

which substances are exchanged via the placenta?

A

gases, nutrients and electrolytes, maternal antibodies, hormones, waste products

113
Q

most bacteria and viruses do not get through the placenta, what are the exceptions?

A

HIV, rubella, cytomegalo virus, toxoplasmosis, zika

114
Q

which hormone stimulates uterine contraction? secreted by?

A

oxytocin secreted by posterior pituitary

115
Q

stages of labor:

A
  • dilation (enlargement of external os)
  • expulsion (delivery of fetus)
  • placental stage (“after birth” placenta and fetal membranes are expelled)
116
Q

occurs when blastocyst implants just above the internal os and the placenta develops below it, blocking the birth canal?

A

placenta previa, leads to bleeding during later pregnancy and requires C section

117
Q

functions of amniotic fluid? (NOT A SOURCE OF NUTRIENTS)

A
  • permits symmetrical growth of fetus
  • barrier to infection
  • shock absorber
  • temperature regulator
  • allows free movement facilitating muscle development
118
Q

what are amniotic bands?

A

tears in amnion, may amputate digits or cause limb constrictions

119
Q

what are the 2 types of twins:

A
  • dizygotic (fraternal, originate from two zygotes)
  • monozygotic (identical, originate from one zygote)
120
Q

which twins have their own amniotic sac, but share a common chorionic sac and placenta?

A

monozygotic twins (identical)

121
Q

when does umbilical chord detach?

A

7-8 days after birth

122
Q

what leads to the loss of 10% of neonate’s weight?

A

discharge of meconium

123
Q

oligohydramnios, what is it and what does it cause:

A

abnormally low volume of amniotic fluid. leads to defects of face or limbs due to fetal compression

124
Q

polyhydramnios what is it and what does it cause:

A

abnormally high volume of amniotic fluid. leads to major defects of CNS and esophagea atresia (prevents fetus from swallowing fluid)

125
Q

source of all germ layers?

A

epiblast

126
Q

what is human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) secreted by?

A

syncytiotrophoblast

127
Q

an embryonic disc which does not completely seperate results in?

A

conjoined twins

128
Q

what causes oligohydramnios?

A
  • placental insufficiency (low blood flow)
  • premature rupture of amniochorionic membrane
  • renal agenesis (failure of kidney formation)

Embryology 1 (2 decks)

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