Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Improve > Improve 1 > Flashcards

Improve 1 Flashcards

1
Q 
What muscle lies over and protect the radial nerve of the lateral aspect of the humerus? 
Anconeus
Superficial pectoral
Brachiocephalicus
Bracialis
A

Brachialis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q 
What is the treatment for severe shoulder dysplasia? 
Artrodesis
Amputation
Replacement
Conservative
A

Artrodesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the most common manifestation of elbowdysplasia?

Medial compartment disease
Ununited medial epicondyle of the humerus
OCD of the medial epicondyle of humerus
Un united anconeal process

A

Medial compartment disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How is it best to manage a partially torn and painful biceps tendon?

  • Tenotomy and or/ tenodesis
  • Tenotomy and surgical excision
  • Tenotomy and steroids
  • Conservative management
A

Tenotomy and or/ tenodesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q 
Radial carpal bone fractures are most common in which dog breed:
• Labradors 
• Boxers 
• Terriers 
• Lurchers
A

Boxers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following answers regarding distraction index is correct?
• Hip osteoarthrosis is more likely with a distraction index < 0.3
• Hip osteoarthrosis is more likely with a distraction index > 0.3
• Hip osteoarthrosis is more likely with a distraction index < 0.7
• Hip osteoarthrosis is more likely with a distraction index > 0.7

A

Hip osteoarthrosis is more likely with a distraction index > 0.7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is characteristic for type IV central tarsal bone fractures?
• Dorsal slab, no displacement
• Dorsal slab, displacement
• Sagittal fracture, displacement of medial fragment
• Both dorsal and medial slab fractures, displacement

A

Both dorsal and medial slab fractures, displacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q 
Gastrocnemius tendon avulsion with intact SDFT (superficial digital flexor tendon) is considered
• Type I Achilles tendon rupture 
• Type IIa Achilles tendon rupture 
• Type IIb Achilles tendon rupture 
• Type IIc Achilles’ tendon rupture
A

Type IIc Achilles’ tendon rupture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

OCD lesions usually occur
• 96% on the medial aspect of the lateral femoral condyle
• 96% on the lateral aspect of the lateral femoral condyle
• 96% on the medial aspect of the medial femoral condyle
• 96% on the lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle

A

96% on the medial aspect of the lateral femoral condyle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

In patella alta the ratio of patellar ligament length to patellar length measurement is

  • < 1.45
  • > 1.45
  • < 1.97
  • > 1.97
A

• > 1.97

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q 
Which of the following implants resists shear forces at the fracture site?
• IM pin 
• Lag screw 
• External fixator 
• Cerclage wire
A

External fixator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the correct insertion technique for placing an IM pin in the tibia?
• Normograde, medially, caudal to patella tendon
• Normograde, laterally, caudal to patella tendon
• Retrograde exiting laterally proximally
• Retrograde exiting medially proximally

A

Normograde, medially, caudal to patella tendon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

You are presented with an oblique fracture of the tibia. You elect to use cerclage wires as part of the repair. Which of the following statements is false?
• It is recommended to place two cerclage wires
• The full circumference of the bone must be reconstructable when using cerclage wires
• Pushing the knot over at the end of twisting results in a loss of tension
• Cerclage wires interfere with the blood supply to the bone

A

Cerclage wires interfere with the blood supply to the bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

LC-DCP plates are considered to have a number of advantages compared to DCP plates. Which statement is false?
• The LC-DCP can be used to create compression across the fracture
• The design of the LC-DCP prevents stress concentration at the screw holes
• The design of the LC-DCP interferes with the vascularity of the bone
• The LC-DCP can be contoured

A

The design of the LC-DCP interferes with the vascularity of the bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

5) Which of the following statements about conventional screw-plate systems is false?
• The stability of the conventional screw-plate construct relies upon frictional force generated between the plate and bone
• During ambulation axial forces transmitted along bone are converted to shear forces at the bone-plate interface
• The resistance of screws to shear force can be increased by using screws with a larger core diameter
• Anatomic reconstruction does not contribute to load sharing between the plate and bone

A

Anatomic reconstruction does not contribute to load sharing between the plate and bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q 
What is considered the gold standard technique for diagnosis of osteomyelitis?
• Serial radiographic examination 
• Blood culture 
• Bone biopsy and culture
• Scintigraphy
A

Bone biopsy and culture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q 
What is the commonest organism isolated in cases of osteomyelitis?
• Escherichia coli 
• Pseudomonas 
• Streptococcus 
• Staphylococcus aureus
A

Staphylococcus aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q 
Which one of the following thoracic injuries is most commonly seen on thoracic radiographs of dogs with appendicular fractures caused by road traffic accidents?
• Pulmonary contusion
• Haemothorax 
• Pneumothorax 
• Pneumomediastinum
A

Pulmonary contusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q 
Platelet rich plasma is a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ bone graft?
• Osteoinductive 
• Osteoconductive 
• Osteogenic 
• Osteopromotive
A

Osteopromotive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q 
Which of the following antibiotics is most suitable for prophylactic use in canine fracture repair? 
• Ampicillin 
• Gentamycin 
• Metronidazole 
• Second generation cephalosporins
A

Second generation cephalosporins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q 
A patient with non-ambulatory tetraparesis, reduced muscle tone and reduced spinal reflexes most likley has which of the following?
• Peripheral neuropathy
• C1-C5 myelopathy 
• C6-T2 myelopathy 
• Inflammatory CNS disease
A

Peripheral neuropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

When performing a neurological examination on a dog with ambulatory paraparesis you identify a sharp panniculus cut-off at T13. This suggests which of the following neuroanatomical locations?
• A lesion at T13
• A lesion 1-2 vertebral bodies cranially
• A lesion 1-2 vertebral bodies caudally
• A lesion at C6-T2

A

A lesion 1-2 vertebral bodies cranially

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q 
Peripheral vestibular ataxia usually presents with which of the following?
• Upper motor neurone paresis 
• Generalised proprioceptive ataxia 
• Ipsilateral trigeminal nerve deficits 
• Ipsilateral Horner’s syndrome
A

Ipsilateral horners (same side)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q 
Which imaging modality provides the best spatial resolution?
• MRI 
• CY 
• Radiographs 
• CT-myelography
A

Radiographs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q 
Mannitol’s main role is to do which of the following?
• Decrease intracranial pressure
• Increase brain volume 
• Decrease brain perfusion 
• Increase systemic blood pressure
A

Decrease intracranial pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which of the following would be a contraindication for CSF collection?
• Coagulopathy
• Diffuse cerebral changes
• Pappiloedema with no other neurological signs
• Proprioceptive deficits in all four limbs

A

Coagulopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

After performing an MRI you are planning to perform a C6-C7 vertebral distraction-stablisation in a 6 year old Dobermann. Which specific test would you perform prior to surgery?

Electrolytes
• Electromyography
• Biochemistry
• Buccal mucosal bleeding time

A

Buccal mucosal bleeding time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q 
Which of the following drugs is most likely to be associated with melena when administered in cases of spinal cord injury?
• Metronidazole 
• Methocarbamol
• Dexamethasone 
• Gabapentin
A

Dexamethasone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q 
What pain relief combination would be appropriate to use in the first 24 hours following an hemilaminectomy?
• Methadone and prednisolone 
• Prednisolone and meloxicam 
• Gabapentin 
• Methadone, gabapentin and meloxicam
A

• Methadone, gabapentin and meloxicam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q 
Which of the following is not a possible complication in a paraplegic patient after a hemilaminectomy 
• Pressure sores 
• Laryngeal paralysis
• Urine scalding 
• Dehydration
A

Laryngeal paralysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q 
Iodophors are most effective at a:
• 0.1% Solution 
• 1% solution 
• 10% solution 
• 100% solution
A

0.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

The risk of a surgical site infection:
• Doubles for every hour of general anaesthesia indepently of surgical time
• Doubles for every hour of surgical time
• Doubles if single gloving is used instead of closed gloving
• Doubles if prophylactic antibiotics aren’t used

A

Doubles for every hour of surgical time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q 
The primary cell type expected to be found in surgical wound at 48-96 hours is the:
• Platelet 
• Neutrophil 
• Macrophage
• Fibroblast
A

Macrophage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q 
Which of the following dressings is most appropriate for the management of a highly exudative open wound?
• Adhesive film 
• Hydrocolloid sheet 
• Hydrogel 
• Alginate
A

Alginate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

5) Which of the following statements regarding z-plasty is correct?
• There is a gain in length along the central limb of the z
• The central limb of the z is parallel to the wound
• There is an increase in tension along the central limb of the z
• There is a decrease in tension parallel to the length of the wound

A

There is a gain in length along the central limb of the z

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q 
What is the most common tumour of the salivary glands?
• Adenoma 
• Adenocarcinoma
• Lymphoma 
• Fibrosarcoma
A

Adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q 
Dissection must be performed under which muscle to achieve complete mandibular/sublingual salivary gland excision?
• Digastricus
• Masseter 
• Stylohyoideus 
• Hyoglossus
A

Digastricus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q 
A dog runs onto a stick on a walk. The stick penetrates via the mouth and is palpable in the neck. Which structure in the neck is most commonly damaged?
• Oesophagus
• Larynx 
• Vagosympathetic trunk 
• Salivary Gland
A

Oesophagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q 
How could you treat gastric adenocarcinoma in the pylorus of a dog?
• Chemotherapy 
• Pyloroplasty 
• Pylorectomy
• Gastric bypass
A

Pylorectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q 
Which of the following is a risk factor for development of gastric dilatation and volvulus?
• Sibling that has had a GDV 
• Feeding table scraps 
• Previous gastric surgery 
• Obesity
A

Sibling that has had a GDV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q 
Which artery must be retained when performing subtotal colectomy (including the iliocolic valve) for feline megacolon?
• Left colic artery 
• Middle colic artery 
• Right colic artery 
• Cranial rectal artery
A

• Cranial rectal artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q 
What is the recommended treatment for an insulinoma in the distal left limb of the pancreas 
• Euthanasia 
• Medical management with prednisolone 
• Marginal resection 
• Partial pancreatectomy
A

Partial pancreatectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q 
What is the most appropriate treatment for biliary mucocele
• Medical management 
• Cholecystotomy and lavage 
• Cholecystectomy 
• Common bile duct stent
A

Cholecystectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q 
Which of the following liver masses has the best outcome after surgical resection, assuming that there is a single large mass that is amenable to surgical resection?
• Hepatocellular adenocarcinoma 
• Cholangiocellular carcinoma 
• Haemangiosarcoma 
• Carcinoid
A

Hepatocellular adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the most commonly performed surgery for perineal rupture/hernia?
• Muscle apposition plus gluteal muscle flap
• Muscle apposition plus internal obturator muscle flap
• Muscle apposition plus prosthetic mesh
• Muscle apposition plus semitendinosus flap

A

Muscle apposition plus internal obturator muscle flap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

A 6 year old female (n) Bassett Hound presented with two episodes of haematuria, which were self-limiting. Clinical examination was unremarkable.
On diagnostic evaluation
Biochemistry profiles were within normal limits. Haematology revealed a mild anaemia (28 % PCV).
Platelet count, clotting profiles and Von Willebrands factor were within normal limits.
Urine culture was sterile; on analysis the only abnormality was numerous red blood cells
Intravenous urogram, retrograde urethrogram and ultrasound examination were unremarkable
Which treament option is most suitable for this case?
• Celiotomy and nephrectomy
• Chemotherapy
• Serial monitoring of PCV and TP
• Cystoscopy, celiotomy and nephrectomy

A

Serial monitoring of PCV and TP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

2) A 7 year old male (n) Great Dane is presented with a football sized scrotum after castration the day before. The scrotum is still dripping blood.
Heart rate is 145, peripheral pulses are thready, mucus membranes are pale and the dog is subdued. PCV is 18%, total protein is 53 g/l.

What is your treatment plan?
• Blood transfusion and cold pack the scrotum
• Blood transfusion followed by anaesthesia and celiotomy once perfusion has improved and ligation of the testicular artery
• Blood transfusion
• Blood transfusion followed by anaesthesia once perfusion has improved; scrotal haematoma removal and ligation of the testicular artery.

A

Blood transfusion followed by anaesthesia and celiotomy once perfusion has improved and ligation of the testicular artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

A 6 year old Domestic Short Hair cat presents with a 3 week history of a caudal solitary mammary mass, no other clinical signs are present.

Your initial advice to the owner is:
• It is most likely to be benign, monitor and remove if it grows in the next few weeks
• It is most likely to be benign, excised and submit for histopathology
• It is most likely to be malignant it should be removed by radical mastectomy
• It is most likely to be malignant but can be removed with a lumpectomy

A

It is most likely to be malignant it should be removed by radical mastectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

A 7-year-old female (n) Cross-bred was presented with a two-week history of stranguria, pollakiuria and haematuria. Clinical examination was unremarkable.

 On diagnostic evaluation:

Urinalysis revealed a pH of 9.0, numerous red blood cells, 50-100 WBC per HPF, large numbers of cocci, proteinuria and struvite crystalluria.
Urine culture yielded staphylococcus intermedius
Radiographic examination of the abdomen revealed two relatively large radiodense smooth mineral densities in the bladder.

A presumptive diagnosis of infection-induced struvite urolithiasis was made based on the above information.

A struvite dissolution diet was fed and a two-week course of amoxicillin-clavulanic acid was started at 22 mg/kg PO twice daily.

At the 4 week re-examination the urine was persistently infected with staphylococcus and there was little change in the uroliths.

Which of the following is the most likely reason for treatment failure?
• Non-struvite urolith composition
• Concurrent Pyelonephritis
• Owner non compliance
• Inappropriate duration of antibiotic treatment

A

• Inappropriate duration of antibiotic treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

After intravesicular correction (neoureterocystostomy) the most common complication is pyelonephritis

An American cat is presented for assessment of a kidney transplant. On clinical examination the cat is bright but has been losing weight (about 10% over the last 3 months) despite appropriate medical management of the kidney failure.

On screening for the transplant program the following information is noted

Which of the below would exclude the cat from the transplant programme?
• A fine needle aspirate of the kidneys under ultrasound guidance demonstrates renal amyloidosis.
• Blood profiles reveal azotaemia, with a creatinine level of over 400 umol/L
• The cat is 9 years of age
• A viral upper respiratory tract infection is present

A

A fine needle aspirate of the kidneys under ultrasound guidance demonstrates renal amyloidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

A 10 year Yorkshire Terrier presents to you with a goose honk cough. You suspect that the patient may have tracheal collapse. What would be considered the gold standard method for diagnosis of this condition?
• Radiography
• Bronchio-alveolar lavage
• Presence of goose honk cough on clinical examination
• Tracheoscopy

A

Tracheoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

A 10 year old Labrador Retriever presents to you with excessive panting, exercise intolerance, increased inspiratory noise and a recent change in vocalisation. Which is your most likely differential diagnosis based on these clinical signs?
• Laryngeal collapse
• Elongated soft palate with everted laryngeal saccules
• Laryngeal paralysis
• Laryngeal neoplasia

A

Laryngeal paralysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

A 5 month Bulldog presents to your clinic with lethargy, increased respiratory rate, a moist cough and moist lung sounds bilaterally. You take a radiograph as displayed below. What advice is most appropriate to the owner?

  • The radiograph shows no abnormalities and the best action at present is to send the patient home with oral antibiotics and careful monitoring. If the patient deteriorates, you will see the patient again and repeat the radiographs in case the radiographic picture changes.
  • The radiograph shows evidence of aspiration pneumonia and the best course of action is to send the patient home with oral antibiotics and re- see the patient in 48 hours or sooner if concerned.
  • The radiographs shows evidence of aspiration pneumonia and the best course of action is intravenous antibiotics and hospitalization.
  • The radiograph shows evidence of aspiration pneumonia and a hypoplastic trachea and the best course of action is intravenous antibiotics and hospitalization.
A

The radiograph shows evidence of aspiration pneumonia and a hypoplastic trachea and the best course of action is intravenous antibiotics and hospitalization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

You are currently the locum veterinary surgeon and are presented with a case for which you have not previously seen. On the clinical notes, you read that your next patient is a Bulldog returning from a local referral practice for a post operative check having recently had surgery for an elongated soft palate and everted laryngeal saccules. The notes suggest that the dog was also diagnosed with grade II laryngeal collapse. Which of the following would you expect to have been noted on laryngoscopy with this diagnosis?
• Laryngeal saccule eversion alone
• Laryngeal saccule eversion with collapse of the epiglottis dorsally
• Laryngeal saccule eversion with medial displacement of cuneiform process of arytenoid cartilage
• Laryngeal saccule eversion with medial displacement of the corniculate process of the arytenoid cartilage

A

• Laryngeal saccule eversion with medial displacement of cuneiform process of arytenoid cartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

A 13 year old domestic shorthaired cat presents with bilateral epistaxis. Biochemistry, haematology and coagulation profiles are all normal and a CT scan is performed revealing large mass in the caudal nasal chamber. A blind nasal grab biopsy confirms nasal lymphoma. Which of the following would be the recommended treatment option in order to maximise the survival time of the patient?
• Rhinotomy and surgical resection of the mass
• Chemotherapy
• Radiotherapy
• Rhinotomy and surgical resection of the mass with concurrent chemotherapy

A

Radiotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q 
Which of the following is an essential requirement in cases of chest trauma?
• Chest tube 
• Oxygen 
• Thoracic imaging 
• Thoracocentesis
A

Oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q 
What finding may be suggestive of traumatic myocarditis?
• Atrial flutter 
• Ventricular premature complexes 
• Diastolic murmur 
• Weak peripheral pulses
A

• Ventricular premature complexes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q 
Which is the most common lung lobe to undergo torsion in pugs?
• Right caudal 
• Right cranial 
• Left caudal 
• Left cranial
A

Left cranial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

When is surgery indicated in cases of pyothorax?
• In every case
• After unsuccessful conservative management
• In every cat
• Where CT is not available

A

After unsuccessful conservative management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the reported overall percentage survival to discharge in patients undergoing surgery within 24h to correct a traumatic diaphragmatic hernia, according to Gibson et al (Gibson, TWG, Brisson, BA, Sears, W. Perioperative survival rates after surgery for diaphragmatic hernia in dogs and cats: 92 cases (1990–2002), Journal of the American Veterinary Medical Association July 1, 2005, Vol. 227, No. 1, Pages 105-109)
• 89% were discharged alive after surgery
• 99% were discharged alive after surgery
• 59% were discharged alive after surgery
• 29% were discharged alive after surgery

A

89%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

1) Use of drain in oncological surgery increases the risk of:
• Metastases
• Local recurrence
• Extent of tumour if the excision is incomplete
• risk of infection

A

Extent of tumour if the excision is incomplete

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

2) The diagnostic accuracy of FNAs for mesenchymal tumours is:
• equal to the accuracy for round cell tumours
• 30-40%
• 70-100%
• 50-61%

A

50-61%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q 
Which surgical dose is necessary for curative intent surgery?
• marginal and wide resections 
• marginal and radical resections 
• debulking and wide resection 
• wide and radical resection
A

wide and radical resection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

During tumour resection it is acceptable to:
• directly handle the tumour
• manipulate the tumour with stay sutures or atraumatic instruments
• shell out well encapsulated masses
• use multifilament sutures

A

manipulate the tumour with stay sutures or atraumatic instruments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q 
Histological grading is important for
• Canine MCT 
• Feline MCT 
• Feline STS 
• Canine melanoma
A

Canine MCT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q 
What is the most commonly used approach to the shoulder joint for removal of an OCD flap?
• Caudal 
• Caudolateral 
• Craniolateral 
• Cranial
A

Caudolateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q 
Elbow arthroscopy is most commonly performed on the: 
• Lateral aspect of the joint 
• Medial aspect of the joint 
• Caudal aspect of the joint 
• Caudal aspect of the joint
A

Medial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q 
Incomplete ossification of the humeral condyle is most common in which dog breed?
• Cavalier King Spaniel 
• Portuguese water spaniel 
• English springer spaniel 
• Welsh springer spanie
A

English springer spaniel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q 
5) Partial carpal arthrodesis includes fusion of all carpal joints except the:
• Carpometacarpal joint 
• Intercarpal joint 
• Antebrachiocarpal joint 
• Metacarpophalangeal joint
A

Antebrachiocarpal joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q 
The prognosis for stifle OCD is
• Excellent 
• Good 
• Guarded 
• Poor
A

Guarded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q 
What is the appropriate angle of arthrodesis for the stifle joint?
• 100º 
• 120º 
• 140º 
• 160º
A

140

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q 
Supracondylar fractures are best stabilised with
• IM pin 
• Plates 
• K-wires 
• Lag screws
A

Plates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q 
The most common type of distal physeal femoral fractures in dogs is
• Type I Salter Harris 
• Type II Salter Harris
• Type III Salter Harris 
• Type IV Salter Harris
A

Typ 2 sAlter

A above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q 
The prevalence of lateral congenital patella luxation in small breed dogs is
• 0% 
• 25% 
• 50% 
• 75%
A

25

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q 
What is the maximum interfragmentary strain that will permit primary bone formation to occur?
• 2% 
• 5% 
• 10% 
• 20%
A

2%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Under what biological conditions will gap healing occur?
• Absolute stability and a fracture gap < 10mm
• Absolute stability and a fracture gap < 5mm
• Absolute stability and a fracture gap < 3mm
• Absolute stability and a fracture gap > 3mm

A

Gap <3mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q 
What is the critical strain level for bone formation in granulation tissue?
• 10% 
• 20% 
• 75% 
• 100%
A

100%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q 
What fracture pattern develops following a compressive force to a long bone?
• Transverse 
• Oblique 
• Comminuted 
• Butterfly
A

Oblique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q 
What nerve is being tested when stimulating the sensory field on the dorsal aspect of the metacarpals and paw?
• Ulna 
• Median 
• Radial 
• Peroneal
A

Radial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q 
Which of the following factors is not a cause of delayed union?
• Large fracture gap 
• Excessive motion at the fracture site 
• Hypothyroidism 
•Use of a synthetic bone allograft
A

Use of a synthetic bone allograft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

In the radiograph below what terms best describes the type of implant?

På billedet er der mellemrum mellem distale og proksimale del i knoglen
• Neutralization 
• Compressive 
• Bridging 
• Elastic
A

Bridging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

When repairing a comminuted fracture with minimimally invasive osteosynthesis which of the following is considered to be the main advantage?
• Preservation of optimal biological environment for osteosynthesis
• Accurate anatomic reduction
• Load sharing between bone-implant construct
• Rigid fixation

A

Preservation of optimal biological environment for osteosynthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What term best describes the type of non union in the radiograph below?

Billedet viser en meget stor bulet knogle der nærmest ser tumorøs ud. 
• Oligotrophic non union 
• Hypertrophic non union 
• Dystrophic non union 
• Necrotic non union
A

Hypertropisk mon union

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q 
Haematogenous osteomyelitis typically occurs in which anatomical region of long bones?
• Metaphysis 
• Epiphysis 
• Diaphysis 
• Joint surface
A

Metafyse

Epi-Meta-Dia-Meta-Epi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q 
A 5-year-old Dachshund with non-ambulatory paraparesis and exaggerated pelvic limb spinal reflexes most likely has a spinal lesion at which neuroanatomical location?
• C1-C5 
• C6-T2 
• T3-L3 
• L4-S2
A

T3-L3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Which of the following statements about the paw placement test is correct?
• It tests conscious proprioception alone
• Intact motor function is not required
• It tests unconscious proprioception alone
• It is a postural reaction test

A

Postural reaction test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q 
Disc extrusions typically result in which of the following myelographic patterns
• Normal 
• Extradural 
• Intradural-extramedullary 
• Intramedullary
A

Extradural

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q 
Which of the following conditions can consistently be definitively diagnosed and accurately localised with radiographs alone?
• Acute intervertebral disc extrusion 
• Caudal cervical spondylomyelopathy 
• Spinal neoplasia 
• Atlanto-axial instability
A

Atlanto-axial instability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q 
What is the onset of action of rectally administered diazepam when treating seizures?
• Immediate 
• Within 5 minutes 
• 10-40 minutes 
• Over 40 minutes
A

10-40 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q 
What it the most common clinical sign in cases of mild cervical intervertebral disc disease?
• Pain 
• Proprioceptive deficits 
• Lack of segmental spinal reflexes 
• Obtundation
A

Pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q 
A 4 year old, GSD was presented with a history of one generalized tonic clonic seizure.  Which drug would you give the owners for emergency treatment at home?
• Phenobarbitone orally 
• Diazepam orally 
• Diazepam rectally 
• Propofol
A

Diazepam rectally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

A dog was presented with a history of spinal trauma and you suspect a vertebral fracture and/or subluxation. The dog has no deep pain. Which of the following options would you initially choose?
• Laterolateral and horizontal-beam ventrodorsal radiographs
• Laterolateral and a ventrodorsal radiographs
• MRI
• Scintigraphy

A

Laterolateral and horizontal-beam ventrodorsal radiographs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q 
A 3 year old, male neutered Dachshund was presented with paraplegia. MRI revealed a left sided extradural lesion at the level of T13-L1 consistent with a disc extrusion. Which surgery would you recommend?
• Right hemilaminectomy 
• Left hemilaminectomy 
• Corpectomy 
• Dorsal laminectomy
A

Left hemilaminectomi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q 
A 1 year old, female Yorkshire Terrier was presented with seizures which were progressively becoming more frequent, more severe and were usually occurring a couple of hours after being fed.  The neurological examination was consistent with a diffuse or multifocal localization. What is your main differential diagnosis?
• Meningioma 
• Granulomatous meningoencephalitis 
• Cerebrovascular accident 
• Hepatic encephalopathy
A

Hepatic encephalopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Which of the following describes the least traumatic way to use scissors?
• Double-blade cutting with the tips only
• Double-blade cutting with the length of the blade
• Blunt dissection with the tips only
• Blunt dissection with the length of the blade

A

Double-blade cutting with the tips only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q 
Which of the following antiseptics has a residual action when used as a surgical scrub?
• Alcohols 
• Iodophors 
• Chlorhexidine 
• Triclosan
A

Chlorhexidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q 
Which of the following is an absorbable monofilament suture material?
• Monofilament nylon 
• Polypropylene 
• Polyglactin 910 
• Polydioxanone
A

Polydioxanone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q 
An axial pattern flap derives its blood supply principally from which of the following?
• Musculocutaneous arteries 
• Deep dermal plexus 
• Superficial dermal plexus 
• Direct cutaneous artery
A

Direct cutaneous artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q 
Which salivary gland/duct is most likely to be damaged in a cat with a cervical mucocele?
• Mandibular 
• Sublingual 
• Parotid 
• Molar
A

Sublingual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q 
Where in the oesophagus are bone foreign bodies most commonly located (for dogs referred for endoscopy)?
• Caudal to the pharynx 
• Thoracic inlet 
• Base of heart 
• Caudal thorax
A

Caudal thorax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q 
Which animals are susceptible to oesophageal stricture after ingestion of oral medications? 
• Cats 
• Dogs 
• Rabbits 
• Ferrets
A

Cats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q 
Which breed of dog has the highest risk of developing a GDV
• Shar Pei 
• Irish Setter 
• Great Dane 
• weimernaer
A

Grand danois

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q 
What drug is given for treatment of ventricular arrhythmias in dogs with GDV?
• Lidocaine 
• Ketamine 
• Metoclopramide 
• Magnesium
A

Lidocaine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q 
What is the most appropriate treatment for biliary mucocele
• Medical management 
• Cholecystectomy 
• Cholecystotomy and lavage 
• Common bile duct stent
A

Cholecystectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q 
What is the mortality rate after surgical treatment of septic peritonitis?
• 10% 
• 30% 
• 50% 
• 70%
A

50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

During laparotomy, you notice the small intestines have changed from a normal pink to a dark purple colour. What is the most likely cause?
• Arterial thromboembolism
• Hypovolaemia
• Accidental ligation of the cranial mesenteric artery
• Iatrogenic volvulus of the small intestine

A

Iatrogenic volvulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q 
How would you treat a dog with perianal fistulas?
• Surgical excision of fistula 
• Prednisolone and hypoallergenic diet 
• Ciclosporin 
• Topical tacrolimus
A

Ciclosporine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

A 10 year old Male Labrador presents with dysuria, haematuria, pyrexia, anorexia and a painful caudal abdomen. On clinical examination his temperature is 40.2° C and an irregular firm caudal abdominal mass is palpable at the pelvic inlet. On rectal palpation the prostate is enlarged, asymmetrical and painful. Haematology blood profiles are unremarkable bar a neutrophilia of 23 x 10⁹/l with a left shift. Biochemistry blood profiles are within normal limits. Ultrasound examination reveals a large (4cm) cavitary lesion within the prostate. Culture of the urine reveals an E Coli infection. Which of the following is the most suitable treatment option?
• Percutaneous drainage of the prostatic lesion under ultrasound guidance followed by castration and antibiotic therapy
• Surgical drainage of the prostate, biopsy of the parenchyma followed by closed suction drain placement, castration and antibiotic therapy
• Surgical drainage of the prostate, biopsy of the parenchyma followed by omentalization with castration and antibiotic therapy
• Surgical drainage of the prostate, biopsy of the parenchyma followed by marsupialisation, castration and antibiotic therapy

A

Surgical drainage of the prostate, biopsy of the parenchyma followed by omentalization with castration and antibiotic therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

A 6 year old female West Highland white terrier presents with haematuria and stranguria. Urine culture and analysis yields no growth, urine analysis reveals haematuria and reactive epithelial cells. Ultrasound examination of the bladder reveals a mass affecting the trigone of the bladder.

A catheter biopsy is consistent with a transitional cell tumour of the bladder. What is your advice to the owner?
• This is a slow growing tumour that is best treated with surgical resection, with average survival times after surgery in the order of 18-24 months
• This is an aggressive tumour but very responsive to chemotherapy with survival times in the order of 18-24 months
• This is a benign tumour that can be treated with non-steroidal anti-inflammatories
• This is an aggressive tumour which may respond to chemotherapy with survival times in the order of 4-10 months

A

This is an aggressive tumour which may respond to chemotherapy with survival times in the order of 4-10 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

When repairing a cystostomy incision which of the following statements is correct?
• A two layer appositional suture pattern has a higher bursting strength at 24 hours post surgery than a two layer inverting suture pattern.
• An inverting suture pattern results in better primary healing compared to an appositional suture pattern
• An inverting suture pattern reduces the risk of urine leakage when compared to an appositional suture pattern
• There is no difference in bursting strength at 24 hours post-surgery when comparing single and double appositional suture patterns

A

There is no difference in bursting strength at 24 hours post-surgery when comparing single and double appositional suture patterns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What is the most likely reason for the appearance of this dog with a testicular tumour? På billeder ser man alopeci på bagbenene
• Pain/ inflammation causing excessive perineal licking
• Testerosterone secretion by a seminoma
• Oestrogen secretion by a sertoli cell tumour
• Concurrent hypothyroidism

A

Oestrogen secretion by a sertoli cell tumour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

A 4 year old male (n) domestic short hair cat is presented after a road traffic accident with a flaccid bladder which is easily expressible. There is no tail tone but pain sensation is present at the base of the tail. Radiographic examination reveals a sacro-coccygeal luxation. What is your advice to the owner?
• The cat is unlikely to regain urinary continence
• The cat is likely to regain urinary continence but it is likely to take 2-3 months
• The cat is likely to regain urinary continence with the week but it may take up to 6 weeks
• The cat is likely to lose motor function in the hind limbs over the next few days

A

The cat is likely to regain urinary continence with the week but it may take up to 6 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q 
Which of the following is the most common lingual tumour in cats?
• Squamous cell carcinoma 
• Malignant melanoma 
• Fibrosarcoma 
• Mast cell tumour
A

Squamous cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q 
Which of the following is the main blood supply to the hard palate?
• Minor palatine artery 
• Major palatine artery 
• Infraorbital artery 
• Angularis oris artery
A

Major palatine artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q 
Which of the following gingival tumours has the highest metastatic rate?
• Squamous cell carcinoma 
• Fibrosarcoma 
• Melanoma 
• Acanthomatous ameloblastoma
A

Melanoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q 
Which of the following is a primary cause of otitis externa?
• Abnormal ear conformation 
• Excessive moisture due to swimming 
• Otitis media 
• Atopic dermatitis
A

Atopic dermatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Which of the following is the most common cause of otitis media in cats?
• Ascending upper respiratory tract infection
• Extension of otitis externa
• Haematogenous spread
• External ear neoplasia

A

Ascending upper respiratory tract infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q 
A 10 year Yorkshire Terrier presents to you with a goose honk cough.  You suspect that the patient may have tracheal collapse and elect to perform tracheoscopy.  On tracheoscopy, the trachea appears dorsoventrally collapsed by approximately 75% of the normal trachea. What grading of tracheal collapse would this represent?
• Grade 1 
• Grade 2 
• Grade 3 
• Grade 4
A

Grad 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q 
A Pug is presented to you with increased upper respiratory noise, snoring and occasional episodes of exercise intolerance and cyanosis. You suspect correctly that the patient has brachycephalic obstructive airway syndrome and are prepared to induce the patient for examination with concurrent surgery under the same anaesthetic. On examination the patient has stenotic nares, everted laryngeal saccules, collapse of the cuneiform process and an elongated soft palate. When documenting this in your clinical records, what grade of laryngeal collapse would you assign to the patient?
• I 
• II 
• III 
• IV
A

Grad 2 cuneiform

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q 
An 8 -month Bulldog presents to you with clinical signs of brachycephalic obstructive airway syndrome (BOAS). Which of the following is NOT a recognised clinical sign associated with this condition?
• Regurgitation 
• Cyanosis 
• Stertorous breathing 
• Change in vocalisation
A

Change in vocalisation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

A three year old German Shepherd presents with unilateral mucopurulent nasal discharge and intermittent unilateral epistaxis. You suspect that the patient may have nasal aspergillosis. Which is the best diagnostic technique to be certain that you have nasal aspergillosis?
• CT of the nose
• MRI of the nose
• A positive serology antibody
• Biopsy and culture of a suspicious area of plaques visualized by rigid rhinoscopy

A

Biopsy and culture of a suspicious area of plaques visualized by rigid rhinoscopy

122
Q

A patient presents with nasal depigmentation, epistaxis and mucopurulent nasal discharge. You suspect the patient has nasal aspergillosis and start to discuss the diagnostic tests, treatments and prognosis with the owner. Which of the following is true regarding the treatment and prognosis?
• The most appropriate treatment is a rhinotomy to debride and remove the fungal plaques. The success of this depends on the location of the fungal plaques
• The most appropriate treatment is topical clotrimazole (either through the frontal sinus or the nose) but the long term prognosis for most cases is very guarded.
• The most appropriate treatment is oral itraconazole as the literature has shown this to have the highest success rate for long term resolution
• The most appropriate treatment is topical clotrimazole. The prognosis is generally very good but often multiple treatments are needed.

A

The most appropriate treatment is topical clotrimazole. The prognosis is generally very good but often multiple treatments are needed.

123
Q

When performing an intercostal thoracotomy, which muscle can be used as a landmark for rib identification?
• scalenus, which attaches on rib 5
• scalenus, which attaches on rib 7
• latissimus dorsi, which attaches on rib 5
• latissumus dorsi, which attaches on rib 7

A

Scalenus, rib 5

124
Q

Which of the following is a potential complication associated with median sternotomy?
• reduced access to the thoracic cavity compared with a lateral thoracotomy
• seroma formation
• lung adhesions
• traumatic myocarditis

A

Seroma

125
Q 
When should a thoracostomy tube be placed?
• following any lung resection/biopsy 
• following any cardiac surgery 
• following any median sternotomy 
• following any thoracic procedure
A

following any thoracic procedure

126
Q 
Where is the needle placed during thoracocentesis?
• between 7-8 intercostal space 
• between 4-5 intercostal space 
• between 9-10 intercostal space 
• between 5-6 intercostal space
A

Mellem 7e og 8e intrakostalrum

127
Q

Which of the following is true?
• lidocaine cannot be placed down thoracostomy tubes
• Heimlich valves are useful in cases of pyothorax
• A buster collar is essential for patients with thoracostomy tubes
• General anaesthesia is mandatory for placement of a MILA chest tube

A

A buster collar is essential for patients with thoracostomy tubes

128
Q

The Vaccine-Associated Feline Sarcoma Task Force (VAFSTF) recommends:
• Not vaccinating cats every year
• Surgical resection of a FISS with 5 cm margins and one fascial plane
• Obtaining a biopsy specimen of a mass located at the site of a vaccine or injection based on the 3-2-1 rule
• Excisional biopsy of the mass

A

Obtaining a biopsy specimen of a mass located at the site of a vaccine or injection based on the 3-2-1 rule

129
Q 
A  five year old Male Siamese cat is presented with vomiting, anorexia and weight loss. A mass is palpable in the cranial abdomen. This patient is most likely to have:
• A gastrointestinal stromal tumour 
• Extrahepatic biliary obstruction 
• Lymphoma 
• An adenocarcinoma
A

Lymphoma

130
Q

A six year old female neutered DSH is presented with halithosis, inappetence and a soft swelling of the mandible. Several teeth are loose and a plaque like lesion is visible on the mucosa. The diagnosis and treatment for this patient is most likely.
• Dental disease, removal of teeth and oral care will result in full cure
• Fibrosarcoma with local aggressive surgical resection a 40% recurrence rate is likely
• Squamous cell carcinoma. Surgical resection will most likely result in a high risk of local recurrence, radiation therapy will unlikely result in increased survival times.
• Melanoma, local aggressive surgery can result in median survival times of 6 months

A

Squamous cell carcinoma. Surgical resection will most likely result in a high risk of local recurrence, radiation therapy will unlikely result in increased survival times.

131
Q 
A preoperative biopsy should always be performed for:
• Cerebellar mass 
• Splenic mass 
• lung mass 
• cutaneous mass
A

Cutaneous Mass. FNA ?

132
Q 
The most sensitive diagnostic test to diagnose pulmonary metastases is:
• CT 
• MRI 
• 3-view radiographs 
• Scintigraphy
A

CT

133
Q 
Lower urinary tract obstruction in the cat can cause alterations in serum electrolytes. What is a common abnormality to diagnose with this disease?
• Hypokalaemia 
• Alkalaemia 
• Reduced total body potassium 
• Hypernatraemia
A

• Reduced total body potassium

134
Q

Which of the renal veins may receive a contribution from which other organ?
• Right renal from the caudate process of the caudate liver lobe
• Right renal from the right ovary
• Left renal from the left colic vein
• Left renal from the left testicle

A

• Left renal from the left testicle

Kan også være venstre ovarie

135
Q 
You are presented with a 13 year old Siamese cat with a large left kidney. Investigations find no evidence of urinary tract obstruction and it appears that there is a mass lesion affecting the kidney. What course of action would be sensible, considering the most likely differential diagnosis?
• Complete ureteronephrectomy 
• Open surgery and wedge renal biopsy 
• Open surgery and trucut needle biopsy 
• Ultrasound guided trucut needle biopsy
A

Open surgery and trucut needle biopsy

136
Q

You remove a left renal adenocarcinoma in a 7 year old castrated male standard poodle. You have identified a renal artery and vein, double ligated them and transected. Copious haemorrhage ensues as you continue dissection to remove the kidney. Pressure is applied and you have time to think; what manipulation will you perform to best visualise the paralumbar gutter and why might there be bleeding despite having identified and ligated the artery and vein ?
• Colonic manoeuvre; supernumerary renal arteries can be present
• Colonic manoeuvre; iatrogenic injury to cava likely
• Duodenal manoeuvre; supernumerary renal arteries can be present
• Duodenal manoeuvre; iatrogenic injury to cava likely

A

Colonic manoeuvre; supernumerary renal arteries can be present

Fra testes/ovarie

137
Q

What is the anatomical location of the ureter?
• Entirely abdominal
• Entirely retroperitoneal
• Proximal third retroperitoneal, remainer abdominal
• Proximal 2/3 retreperitoneal, remainder abdominal

A

Proximal 2/3 retreperitoneal, remainder abdominal

138
Q

What is the most sensitive and specific imaging study to diagnose ectopic ureter?
• Ultrasound of the urinary tract, especially identification of ureteral jets
• Retrograde dual contrast urethracystography
• Antegrade positive contrast ureterography
• Computed tomographic excretory intravenous ureterogram

A

Computed tomographic excretory intravenous ureterogram

139
Q 
What feature can be visualised using ultrasound to confirm the identity of an intrabdominal testicle?
• Mediastinum testis 
• Hyperechoic tunica 
• Gubernaculum testis 
• Sustentaculum testis
A

Mediastinum testes

140
Q 
What type of ureterolith are most common in small dogs and cats?
• Calcium oxalate 
• Ammonium biurate 
• Struvite 
• Cysteine
A

Calcium oxalat

141
Q 
What concurrent surgical procedure might be recommended in a dog with cysteine urolithiasis?
• Hepatic biopsy 
• Bladder wall culture 
• Castration 
• Renal biopsy
A

Castration

142
Q 
What intervention is the current gold standard for idiopathic renal haematuria?
• Sclerotherapy 
• Partial renal artery occlusion 
• Ureteronephrectomy 
• Frusemide therapy
A

Scleroterapy

143
Q 
What is the radiographic diagnosis in this case?
• Metastatic neoplasia 
• Oesophageal foreign body 
• Oesophageal neoplasia 
• Primary lung tumour

Billedet viser en ujævn forændring i relation tililende esophagus lige cranialt for diafragma. Esophagus forløb kan ikke følges videre

A

• Oesophageal foreign body

144
Q

You are presented out of hours with a 5yr old Great Dane who is non-productively retching after a long walk. The dog ate a full meal a couple of hours ago. His abdomen appears bigger than usual according to his owner. What radiographic view is the most appropriate choice to investigate this patient further?
• Dorso-ventral projection
• Horizontal beam at the level of the costo-chondral junction
• Lateral projection in right lateral recumbency
• Ventro-dorsal projection

A

Lateral projection in right lateral recumbency

145
Q 
Indicate one drug that MAY result in oesophageal perforation
• Corticosteroids 
• H-2 antagonists 
• Sucralfate 
• Tetracycline
A 
Corticosteroids
Tertracyclinderivat (doxycyclin) kan dog give esophagit
146
Q 
Which is the most common location of oesophageal foreign bodies?
• Base of the heart 
• Lower oesophageal sphincter
• Thoracic inlet 
• Upper oesophageal sphincter
A

Lower oesophageal sphincter

147
Q 
Which salivary glands are more commonly affected by a salivary mucocele?
• Mandibular and sublingual 
• Zygomatic and parotid 
• Parotid and mandibular 
• Maxillary and sublingual
A

Mandibular and sublingual

148
Q 
You have performed an intestinal resection. Indicate which is the strongest intestinal layer that must therefore be incorporated in the sutures for an end-to-end anastomosis?
• Mucosa 
• Muscularis 
• Serosa 
• Submucosa
A

Submucosa

149
Q 
2) What is the name of the procedure consisting in the removal of the gallbladder?
• Cholecystotomy 
• Cholecystectomy 
• Choledochotomy 
• Cholecystostomy
A

Cholecystectomy

150
Q 
These photographs show a hepatic mass being removed. Indicate the precise name of the instrument being used for the partial hepatectomy. 
• Linear cutter stapler 
• Lobectomy stapler 
• Surgical stapler 
• Thoracoabdominal stapler
A

Thoracoabdominal stapler

151
Q 
Which of the following suture pattern should be used to close an enterotomy?
• Single layer appositional pattern 
• Single layer inverting pattern 
• Double layer appositional pattern 
• Double layer everting pattern
A

Single layer appositional pattern

152
Q

In the presence of diffuse pancreatic disease, what is the preferred site to perform a pancreatic biopsy?
• Body of the pancreas
• Middle of the left limb of the pancreas
• Tip of the left limb of the pancreas
• Tip of the right limb of the pancreas

A

Tip of right limb

153
Q 
Which of the following is the most common labial tumour in dogs?
• Melanoma 
• Squamous cell carcinoma 
• Fibrosarcoma 
• Mast cell tumour
A

Melanoma

154
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the palatine tonsils is correct?
• Efferent lymphatic drainage is to the superficial cervical lymph nodes.
• They have no afferent lymphatic supply
• They are supplied by a single tonsillar artery
• They are located in the nasopharynx

A

Thet have no affærent lymphatic supply

155
Q 
Which of the following gingival tumours has the lowest metastatic rate?
• Squamous cell carcinoma 
• Fibrosarcoma 
• Acanthomatous ameloblastoma 
• Melanoma
A

Acanthomatous ameloblastoma

156
Q 
Which of following is NOT a primary cause of otitis externa in dogs?
• Ear mites 
• Atopic dermatitis 
• Foreign body 
• Otitis media
A

Otitis media

157
Q

Which of the following is the most common cause of otitis media in dogs?
• Extension of otitis externa
• Ascending upper respiratory tract infection
• Haematogenous spread
• External ear neoplasia

A

Extension of otitis externa

158
Q

You examine a 6-month Bulldog and suspect that he is displaying clinical
signs of brachycephalic obstructive airway syndrome (BOAS). You plan to
examine the patient and take thoracic radiographs and perform corrective
surgery under the same anaesthetic, should this be required. Which of the
following is not possible to correct surgically?
• Elongated soft palate
• Hypoplastic trachea
• Everted laryngeal saccules
• Stenotic nares

A

Hypoplastic trachea

159
Q

A 10-year-old Yorkshire Terrier presents to you with a 2 month history of an
intermittent goose honk cough and a tracheal collapse is suspected. A grade
2 tracheal collapse is confirmed on tracheoscopy. Which of the following
would me the most appropriate initial treatment?
• Referral for investigations and possible placement of an intratracheal stent
• Referral for investigations and possible placement of extra-tracheal prosthetic rings
• Medical management with a sedative, e.g. ACP
• Medical management with antitussives, e.g. Lomotil

A

• Medical management with antitussives, e.g. Lomotil

160
Q

A 12 year old cat presents to you with a bilateral superficial crusting on the nasal planum. Oral examination reveals moderate tartar on the teeth and there is unilateral left sided mild submandibular lymphadenopathy. Which of the following is most likely:
• The nasal crusting represents nasal squamous cell carcinoma with metastatic spread to the submandibular lymph node
• The nasal crusting represents nasal lymphoma, with metastatic spread to the submandibular lymph node
• The nasal crusting represents nasal squamous cell carcinoma with lymphadenopathy associated with dental disease
• The nasal crusting represents nasal lymphoma with lymphadenopathy associated with dental disease

A

The nasal crusting represents nasal squamous cell carcinoma with lymphadenopathy associated with dental disease

161
Q

A 10 year old Labrador Retriever presents to you with excessive panting, exercise intolerance, increased inspiratory noise and a recent change in vocalisation. Which is your most likely differential diagnosis based on these clinical signs?
• Laryngeal collapse
• Elongated soft palate with everted laryngeal saccules
• Laryngeal paralysis
• Laryngeal neoplasia

A

Laryngeal paralysis

162
Q 
What is the major souce of septic peritonitis in dogs?
• Gastrointestinal tract
• Gall bladder 
• Urinary Tract 
• Genital tract
A

Gastrointestinal tract

163
Q 
What is the most common complication following thoracotomy?
• Osteomyelitis 
• Wound infection 
• Seroma formation 
• Haemorrhage
A

Seroma formation

164
Q 
Which diagnostic test is NOT required on fluid removed from a cat's chest?
• Cytology 
• Biochemistry 
• Bacteriology 
• Virus titres
A

Virus titers

165
Q 
4) Which surgical approach is not used for pericardectomy?
• Median sternotomy 
• Trans-diaphragmatic approach 
• Thorascopic approach 
• Right intercostal thoracotomy
A

Trans-diaphragmatic approach

166
Q 
Which of the following is a surgical option for treatment of chylothorax?
• Thoracic duct ligation 
• Pericardectomy 
• Cysterna chyli ablation 
• All of the above
A

All of the above

167
Q 
Which of these biopsy techniques is seen as gold-standard for diagnosing soft tissue sarcomas?
• Fine needle aspiration 
• Needle core (Trucut) biopsy 
• Incisional biopsy 
• Excisional biopsy
A

Incisional biopsy

168
Q 
2) What is the correct ration of formalin:tissue when submitting samples for histopathological analysis?
• 1:10 
• 1:5 
• 5:1 
• 10:1
A

10 formalin:1 tissue

169
Q

What effect does using adjunctive radiotherapy in cases of incompletely excised soft tissue sarcomas in dogs?
• Reduce the risk of postoperative infection
• Reduce the risk of local tumour recurrence
• Reduce the risk of wound complications
• Reduce the risk of distant metastasis

A

• Reduce the risk of local tumour recurrence

170
Q 
4) Which of these is a recognised grading system for canine cutaneous mast cell tumours?
• Henderson 
• Patnaik 
• Gruber 
• Enniking
A

Patniak

171
Q 
What is the most common intestinal tumour in cats?
• Adenocarcinoma 
• Mast Cell Tumour 
• Leiomyoscarcoma 
• Lymphoma
A

Lymphoma

172
Q

A 9month old Labrador has forelimb lameness clinically attributable to the elbow. Radiographs were unremarkable. Following on from the work of Moores et al 2009, what is the most effective work-up for accurate diagnosis of medial coronoid process disease?

  • Arthroscopy alone
  • CT alone
  • Contrast CT elbow
  • CT and arthroscopy
A

CT + arthroscopy

173
Q

Elbow dysplasia is a development disease process, which type of incongruity is correctly associated with the subsequent pathology?
• Positive radioulnar incongruity (short radius) medial coronoid disease
• Positive radioulnar incongruity (short radius) ununited anconeal process
• Negative radioulnar incongruity (long radius) medial coronoid disease
• Humeroulnar incongruity and humeral intracondylar fissure

A

Positive radioulnar incongruity (short radius) medial coronoid disease

174
Q 
Which of the following is not an option for traumatic medial shoulder luxation?
• Lateral biceps tendon transposition 
• Medial biceps tendon transposition 
• Arthrodesis 
• Modified Campbells prosthetic suture
A

Lateral biceps tendon transposition

175
Q

You are suspicious of left shoulder lameness in a 7 year old Border Collie. You perform a shoulder abduction test, which of the following suggests medial joint instability?
• Abduction of 30 degrees in left and right
• Abduction of 50 degrees in left and right
• Abduction of 50 degrees in left and 35 in right
• Abduction of 30 degrees in left and 25 in right

A

Abduction of 50 degrees in left and 35 in right

176
Q 
A 3 year old female neutered Boxer is presents with chronic pain and lameness of the left forelimb. Radiographs show a linear radiolucency in the radial carpal bone and signs of degenerative joint. Which of the following is the most adequate treatment considering the reported long-term prognosis for the different options?
• Conservative management 
• Fragment removal 
• Lag screw fixation 
• Pancarpal arthrodesis
A

Pancarpal arthrodesis

177
Q

You have an 8 year old Staffordshire Bull Terrier presenting with right hind limb lameness and stifle effusion. Mild cranial draw is detectable in flexion only. What does this signify and why?
• Craniomedial band rupture – as caudolateral band is tense in extension only
• Craniomedial band rupture – as caudolateral band is tense in flexion only
• Caudolateral band rupture - as caudolateral band is tense in extension only
• The cruciate is entirely intact

A

Craniomedial band rupture – as caudolateral band is tense in extension only

178
Q

What is the key difference between a block recession and wedge recession sulcoplasty?
• The block develops a deeper recession proximally and increases the area of retropatellar contact.
• The wedge develops a deeper recession proximally and increases the area of retropatellar contact.
• The block develops a deeper recession distally and increases the area of retropatellar contact.
• The wedge develops a deeper recession distally and increases the area of retropatellar contact.

A

The block develops a deeper recession proximally and increases the area of retropatellar contact

179
Q 
What is the main reported concern with cemented hip replacements?
• Bone fracture 
• Post-operative infection 
• Luxation 
• Aseptic loosening
A

Aseptic loosening

180
Q

Which meniscus is most commonly damaged in association with cruciate ligament rupture and why?
• Lateral meniscus due to its attachment to the femur (meniscofemoral ligament).
• Medial meniscus due to its attachment to the tibial (meniscotibial ligament) and the medial collateral.
• Medial meniscus due to its greater size and load bearing than the lateral meniscus
• Both are equally affected due to their intermeniscal ligament attachment

A

Medial meniscus due to its attachment to the tibial (meniscotibial ligament) and the medial collateral.

181
Q 
What is the main complication associated with pantarsal arthrodesis according to the published literature?
• Implant failure 
• Bone fracture 
• Plantar necrosis 
• Infection
A

Plantar necrosis

182
Q

Apply a supportive dressing to a fracture whilst awaiting surgery or transporting is recommended for which of the following?

  • Fractures including the shoulder and below
  • Fractures below the shoulder
  • Fracture including the elbow and below
  • Fractures below the elbow
A

Fractures below the elbow

183
Q

2) What strain is reported to be the limit of tolerance for bone formation?

  • 100%
  • 50%
  • 10%
  • 2%
A

2

184
Q 
Which Salter Harris classification of fracture involves the joint?
• Type I 
• Type II 
• Type III 
• Type V
A

Typ 3

SaLter
L for Low

185
Q

Which of the following best defines stress when considering bone biomechanics?
• Local force expressed in units of force per unit area (N/m2)
• Local deformation expressed as length per length
• The ultimate load a material can withstand before failure
• The rate at which at material deforms when a load is applied

A

Local force expressed in units of force per unit area (N/m2)

186
Q

Which of the following is not a site where avulsion fractures typically occurs?

  • Tibial tuberosity
  • Olecranon
  • Calcaneus
  • Sacrum
A

Sacrum

187
Q

Which of the following is NOT one of the AO principles of fracture repair?

  • Anatomical Reduction
  • Stable Fixation
  • Careful soft tissue handling
  • Early active mobilization
A

Careful soft tissue handling

188
Q

Locking plates are typically NOT recommended in which of the following fractures?
• Simple transverse diaphyseal fractures
• Metaphyseal fractures
• Comminuted diaphyseal fractures
• Pelvic fractures

A

Simple transverse diaphyseal fractures

189
Q

3) Bone graft obtained from within the greater trochanter of the humerus and
applied to a fracture site within the same patient is otherwise know as what?

  • Cancellous autogenous bone graft
  • Corticocancellous autogenous bone graft
  • Corticocancellous allograft
  • Cancellous allograf
A

Cancellous autogenous bone graft

Autograft fra patienten selv, Allograft fra et andet dyr af same art.

A cortical bone graft confers better structural support than cancellous bone, but has fewer cells and slower revascularization

Cortical tættere overflade. Cancelleous, marv

190
Q

The bending moment of inertia of an IM pin is equal to which of the following?

  • Radius * 2
  • Radius * 3
  • Radius * 4
  • Radius * 5
A

Radius *4

191
Q

Which of the following is NOT one of Halsted’s principles?
• Gentle handling of soft tissue
• Minimum tension in tissues
• Appropriate selection of suture material
• Preservation of blood supply

A

Appropriate selection of suture material

192
Q

Name 3 passive shoulderstabilisatours

A

Joint capsule
Lateral glenohumeral ligament
Medial glenohumeral ligament

193
Q

3 or more active shoulderstabilsators

A

Supraspinatous
Infraspinatus
Subscalpullaris
Biseps brachii
Teresminor
Deltoideus

194
Q

Name two orthopedic tests for the shoulder joint

A

Bicep tendon test (awake)=Flex shoulder extend elbow then apply pressure on the intratuberculare groove on craniomedial aspect of the proximal humerus
Shoulder abduction test (sedated)

195
Q

What has happened if you can extend the elbow fully while flexing the shoulder

A

Bicep tendon rupture

196
Q

Describe the meaning of a positive shoulder abduction test

A

Indicates rupture of medial ligamentous joint instability

197
Q

What is the normal shoulder abduction angles? What can affect the angle?

A

Normal =around 30. Compare with contra lateral limb
False positive with shoulder atrophy

198
Q

Name some problems that can be seen on a shoulder x-ray

A

Shoulder luxation
Dysplasia
OCD
Osteoarthritis

199
Q

Which part is most commonly involved in a shoulder OCD

A

Caudal third of the proximal humeral head

200
Q

What happens if a shoulder OCD flap loosens spontaneously?

A

If it moves caudaly the lamenes offen disapears.
If it moves cranially it can interfere with the bicep tendon and lamenes continues

201
Q

What kind of dogs presents wit shoulder OCD?

A

Giant breed -Great Danes
Retrievers
Border collies
Males more than females
4-7 month
Over 50% bilateral disease

202
Q

How should shoulder OCD be treated?

A

Flap removal has good outcome
Synthetic plugs
Conservative

203
Q

How does shoulder luxation happen? Medial/lateral

A

Significant trauma
Lateral requires sectioning of the lateral glenohumeral ligament + infraspinatus tendon, medial medial glenohumeral ligament and subscalpularis tendon

204
Q

How should traumatic shoulder luxation be treated?

A

If no fractures= reduce luxation and maintane with Velpau sling (medial), Spica splint (lateral) or hobbles.
Use 2 weeks followed by 4 weeks strict cagerest

205
Q

How do you do work up for shoulderinstability?

A

MRI Can be helpful but arthroscopy is the most effektive mean to diagnose this condition.it commonly identifies superficial erosion of the cartilage on the caudal region of the humoral head followed by erosions of the medial ridge of the glenoid

206
Q

How much strain is tolerated for primary bone healing?

A

2%

207
Q

Describe strain

A

Local deformation expressed as a %
Fx 1 mm fracturegap in 10 mm rat femur = 10% strain, 1 mm fracturegap in 300 mm dog femur is 0,3%

208
Q

When is primary bonhealing essential?

A

Intraarticular fractures

209
Q

Indirect boneheling is also known as *2

A

Secondary bone healing
Biological bone healing

210
Q

At which 3 locations in the bone is there callus formation and what are the different types called?

A

Medullary bridging callus
Periostal bridging callus
Intracortical bridging callus

211
Q

Hvor stærk skal fixationen være for at opnå primær vs sekundær bone healing?

A

Primær= as strong as required to allow direct bone healing (2% strain)
Sekundær= as strong as needed for callus formation

212
Q

What is the difference between a comminuted and segmental fracture?

A

Comminuted = minimum 2 fracture lines whit communication
Segmental= at least 2 lines that do not communicate

213
Q

How do you describe displacement?

A

The placement of the distal fragment

214
Q

Lokation af fraktur beskrives med vilka ord?

A

Epifys (proximal)
Metafys
Diafys (proximal, mid, distal)
Metafys (dist)
Epifys (mid)

215
Q

Vilka salter Harris frakturer är artikulera?

A

Typ III och typ IV

216
Q

Beskriv salter harris typerna

A

1 straight
2= Above
3= low
4 =througt everything
5=cRuch
6 = grenstic

217
Q

Nævn 5 frakturmønster

A

Transvers
Oblique
Spiral
Segmental
Comminuted

218
Q

Name the 5 different forces that affekt fractures

A

Compression
Torsion
Shear
Tension
Bending

219
Q

Nämn en typ fraktur som kan stabiliseres med skena.

A

Fraktur som bara påvverkas av bending og tension men är stabil för rotation, shear och compression samt är lokaliserad distraktion för armbåge/knä.

220
Q

Nämn 3 mekaniska faktorer som gör att starka implantat är nödvändigt?

A

Gigantras
Flera skadade ben
Ikke reducerbara fragment = ingen inbyggd stabilitet.
Alla dessa ger låg mecanical fracture assessorns score

221
Q

Nævn 3 mekaniske faktorer der gør at det er nok med en mindre rigid fiksering.

A

Toybreed
Single limb injurie reducable/partially stable fragments

222
Q

Nævn 5 faktorer der giver en dårlig biologisk frakturassesement

A

Gammel
Dårligt helbred (diabets, leverproblem, cushings fx)
Dårligt soft tissucoverage
Highh velocity injurie
Extensive disection
Cortical bone

223
Q

Nævn 4 faktorer der giver en god fracture assesment (høj)

A

Ung
ASA 1
Godt soft tissuecoverage
No soft tissuedamage
Cancellous bone

224
Q

What is cancellous bone?

A

Cancellous bone, spongy bone or trabecular bone, is characterized by its spongy, porous, honeycomb-like structure and is typically found at the ends of long bones.

225
Q

What does the biological fracture assesement determine?

A

How Long the implantat must be functional

226
Q

Clinical fracture assesement is determined by 2 factors:

A

Client compliance
Patient compliance

227
Q

Vad betyder “fracture disease?” Hvilke symptomer kan man se?

A

Ledstivhed
Muskelatrofi
Muskelkontraktur
Osteoporose

228
Q

Name 2 bones where you can’t use intramedullary pins

A

Radius
Mandibel

229
Q

Name 4 bones where you Can use intramedulary pinns

A

Humerus
Femur
Tibia
Calcaneus
Metacarpal

230
Q

When is eksternalfixation best used?

A

Lower limbs with poor tissue coverage.

231
Q

Can a cast be used for avulsion fracture?

A

No

232
Q

Name some fracture types that ar suitable for anatomical reconstruction

A

Transverse
Short / long oblique
Segmental
Minimal comminuted
Articular

233
Q

Name some principles of biological/secondary healing

A

Indirect fracture reduction= minimal disturbance of soft tissue
Achieving axial alignment
Limited reliance on secondary implants such as cerclage and screws

234
Q

What is the appropriate size orthopedic whire for a 20 kg dog? How much do the tensilestrenghet increase if you double the diameter for a tensionband ?

A

18g
4 (formel pi*r^2)

235
Q

What is appropriatsize cerclage for a cat vs a medium size dog?

A

22 g
20 g

236
Q

How much should cerclage whire be spaced apart and how long should the fracture line be to be able to use cerclage?

A

Minimum 1/2 bone diameter
Fracturline 2-3 times marrow cavity

237
Q

How large is a steinman pin and K-wire?

A

Steinman 1,5 mm-6,5mm
K wire=0,9-1,5 mm

238
Q

How do you insert a pin in the femur?

A

Normograde preffered, place in trochanteric fossa. Normohrade reducer risk of isciatic injury

239
Q

How do you place a humural pin?

A

Normograde is preffered. Drill perpindicular to the surfade and then redirect.

240
Q

Hos to put a pin in ulna?

A

Normograde or retrograde, difficult Normograde

241
Q

How do you place a pin in the tibia?

A

Normograde, reducera risk for injurie to the stifflejoint. Insett pin from medial side

242
Q

How to put pins in metacarpal/metatarsal joints?

A

Retrograde. Avoid large pins

243
Q

What is a rushpin?

A

A pin tror only penetrates one cortex and den Travels inside the bonemarrowcanal.

244
Q

Hvilke 6 dele skal indgå i en neurologisk vurdering?

A

1) mentation
2) gait evaluation
3) proprioception
4) segmental reflexes
5) sensorium
6) cranial nerve

245
Q

What is the normal protein levels for CSF from cisterna magna and the lumbar site in dogs and cats?

A

25 mg/dl c.m.
40 mg/dl lumbar

246
Q

What is the normal RBC and WBC in CSF?

A

RBC= 0
WBC less than 5/uL

247
Q

For every 1000 RBC, how much lower is the true protein and leukocytes?
(In cerebral fluid?)

A

1 mg/dl less protein
2 WBC less/uL

248
Q

Hvilke hunde får typisk steroidresponsiv meningitis?

A

Unge hunde under 2 år
Beagle, bernese mountain dog, boxer

249
Q

Hvilke hunde får granulomatose meningitis?

A

Midelaldrende tæver, små racer som malteser, pudel og terrier

250
Q

Name a intramedullar tumor

A

Glioma

251
Q

Name a intradural-extramedular tumor

A

Nerve sheattumor
Meningioma
Lymphoma

252
Q

What disk type is most probable in a young chondrodystrophic dog?

A

Hansen type 1
Extrusion of the nuclear disk material

253
Q

What are the six sections of a neurological examination?

A

Mentation
Gait Evaluation
Proprioceptive testing
Segmental spinal reflexes
Sensorium
Cranial nerve examination

254
Q

Where is the lesion located for a dog with 1. Shiff-Sherrington 2. Decerebrat rigidity 3. Decerebrellate rigidity

A
  1. Spinal injury T3-L3
    2.+3 Brain injury
255
Q

How does a dog with Shiff-Sherrington present?

A

Stiff front limbs and flaccid hind limbs. No neurological defects front limbs.

256
Q

Describe the 3 types of ataxia

A

Proprioceptive-unaware of the placements of the limbs
Vestibular- leaning, drifting
Cerebellar-hypermetric

257
Q

What is paresis and plegia?

A

Paresis = weakening
Plegia= complete lack of function

258
Q

If you have lower motor neuron signs in the pelvic limbs, where are yours neuroanatomical localization?

A

L4 -S2
or peripheral neuropathy

259
Q

1) What is the most common clinical sign in cases of cervical intervertebral disc disease?
• Neck Pain
• Proprioceptive deficits in the thoracic limbs
• Lack of segmental spinal reflexes in all limbs
• Obtundation

A

Neck pain

260
Q

A 4 year old, GSD was presented with a history of one generalized tonic clonic seizure. Which drug would you give the owners for emergency treatment at home?
• Phenobarbitone orally
• Diazepam orally
• Diazepam rectally
• Levetiracetam

A

Diazepam rectally

261
Q

A cat was presented with a history suggestive of a thoracolumbar spinal trauma and you suspect a vertebral fracture and/or subluxation. Which of the following diagnostic procedure would you choose first?
• Laterolateral and horizontal-beam ventrodorsal radiographs
• Laterolateral radiographs only
• MRI of the entire spine
• CT scan of the entire spine

A

Laterolateral and horizontal-beam ventrodorsal radiographs

262
Q

A 3 year old, male neutered Dachshund was presented with paraplegia. MRI revealed a left sided extradural lesion at the level of T13-L1 consistent with a disc extrusion. Which surgery would you recommend?
• Right hemilaminectomy
• Left hemilaminectomy
• Corpectomy
• Dorsal laminectomy

A

Left hemilaminectomy

263
Q

A 1 year old, female Yorkshire Terrier was presented with seizures which were progressively becoming more frequent, more severe and were usually occurring a couple of hours after being fed. The neurological examination was consistent with a diffuse or multifocal localization. What is your main differential diagnosis?
• Meningioma
• Granulomatous meningoencephalitis
• Cerebrovascular accident
• Hepatic encephalopathy

A

Hepatic encephalopathy

264
Q

A colleague has removed endoscopically a foreign body from the cervical oesophagus of a West Highland White Terrier. The dog was hypoproteinaemic on presentation and so your colleague wishes to increase nutrition post-procedure by tube feeding. Which of the following techniques would be most appropriate?
• Gastrostomy tube
• Jejunostomy tube
• Naso-oesophageal tube
• Oesophagostomy tube

A

Gastrostomy tube

265
Q

This 3-year-old Dachshund was presented with a painless swelling of the upper neck, which, according to the owner has been present, unchanged for 2 weeks. What is the most likely cause of such a swelling?
The picture showed a large mass under the mandible.
• Foreign body abscessation
• Thyroid carcinoma
• Salivary mucocele
• Haematoma

A

Salivary mucocele

266
Q

Your initial laboratory database in an Irish Setter dog with suspected gastric dilation volvulus reveals a plasma lactate level of 7.1 mmol/L. Which ONE of the following is the MOST appropriate interpretation of this result?
• Moderate hypoperfusion is present
• Moderate to severe hypoperfusion is present
• Moderate to sever hypoperfusion is present, but gastric necrosis is unlikely
• Moderate to severe hypoperfusion is present and gastric necrosis is very likely

A

Moderate to severe hypoperfusion is present and gastric necrosis is very likely

267
Q

Which technique should be used in first instance for treatment of a fish hook oesophageal foreign body?
• Fluoroscopic retrieval
• Administration of emetic agent
• Open surgery
• Fiber optic oesophagoscopy

A

Fiber optic oesophagoscopy

268
Q

What is the most common gastric neoplasm in dogs?

A

Adenocarcinoma

269
Q

What is the most common gastric neoplasm in cats?

A

Lymphoma

270
Q

Name the two main types of bone screws.
What’s the differance
Which one is strongest

A

Cortical and cancellous
Cortical have more threads/cm and shallower threads. They are always fully threaded.
Cortical screw is stronger

271
Q

What is the difference between self tapping and non self tapping screw?

A

The self tapping screw only requires a drilled hole (a little bit bigger than the core of the screw) but no tapping. More heat is generated when inserting a self tapping screw
2.0 self tapping screws break’s easier

272
Q

What is a locking screw?

A

The head of the locking screw locks into the plate.

273
Q

How do yo drill to place a positional screw versus a lag screw?

A

Positional = almost same diameter as core diameter.
Lag screw = cis cortex drilled with a diameter almost equal to the outer diameter of the screw and trans cortex wit core diameter (smaller diameter)

274
Q

What is the maximum hole diameter in bone?

A

20% of bone diameter

275
Q

You want to use a 2 mm screw (threaded) as a lag screw. What is the core diameter and how big should the drill diameters be?

A

2mm screw = 1,3 mm core
Use 2 mm for cis cortex and 1,5 fore trans cortex.

276
Q

How much compression do you achieve if the load guide is used on a 3,5 mm plate?

A

1mm/screw

277
Q

How many screws can be put in using load?

A

Max 4, 2 on each side of the fracture site

278
Q

Which side should you place a plate on the Femur, Tibia, Humerus, Radius?

A

Femur = lateral
Tibia = cranial/ medial
Humerus= cranial/medial
Radius = craniomedial or cranial
Place plate on the tension site

279
Q

A neutralisationplate would not be a good idea in this fracture
a) longe oblique fracture
b) transverse fracture mid radius
c) comminuted fracture that can be reduced accurately using lagscrew/whire
d) spiral fracture

A

b) transverse fracture mid radius
A compression plate would be ideal here

280
Q

Describe type 1a,1b, II and type III eksternal skeletal fixators

A

1a, unilateral, uniplanar only half pins
1b, unilateral, biplanar only half pins
II bilateral fullpinns, modified 2 use both full and half
III bilateral and biplanar

281
Q

Describe grade 1-3 open fractures

A

1: small puncture wound less than 1 cm
2: Larger skin defect over 1 cm. Foreign material can be present
3: extensive skin injury contamination and comminution. High risk of complications

282
Q

A short radius will give problems where?
Long radius?

A

Medial coronoid process
Processus anconeus

283
Q

Name a muscle that attatches to the lesser trochanter of the femur

A

Ileopsoas

284
Q

Name a muscle that attatches to the greater trochanter of the femur

A

Middle and deep gluteal

285
Q

What approach do you use to make a FHNE

A

Craniolateral approach to the hip. Tenotomy of deep gluteal.

286
Q

What two fracture types accounts for 75% of all central tarsal fractures?

A

Type IV+V
IV= Medial slab with dorsal slab
V =Cominutted

Typ 1 er dorsal slab without diceplacement, type 2 with displacement and 3 medial slab

287
Q

Name the tarsal joints from proximal to distal

A

Talocrural
Proximal intratarsal (aka talocentral/ calcaneoquatral)
Distal intratarsal
Tarsometatarsal

288
Q

Where in the tarsus is OCD most common and what breeds are affected?

A

Plantaromedial talar ridge

Labrador, Rottweiler, bull terrier

289
Q

Name the 3 tendons that makes the common calcaneus tendon.

A

1)Gastronemicus t
2) Common tendon of bicepsfemoris, semitendinosus and gracilis
3) The tendon of the superficial digital flexor tendon

290
Q

What approach is preferred for OCD removal of the shoulder?

A

Approach to the caudolateral shoulder with separation of the acromial and scapular head of the deltoideus

291
Q

What priority is an open fracture, how would you care for it?

A

What priority is an open fracture, how would you care for it?

A
EMERGENCY!

Haemostasis
Cover wound with a sterile dressing whilst preparing for lavage
Wear sterile gloves, hat, mask and gown
Apply water soluble gel or saline soaked swabs to the wound
Clip away hair, working from the wound outwards if possible to reduce contamination
Flush wound with a large amount of of sterile saline to remove debris & dilute bacteria
Take a deep bacterial swab for culture (very important!)
Apply a sterile dressing & bandage

292
Q

What are the different grades of open fractures? Explain how they are defined.

A

Grade I - small puncture wound caused by a bone end penetrating skin from the inside out, without skin loss
Grade II - large skin wound caused by external trauma with loss of skin
Grade III - extensive skin and soft tissue damage, often associated with severe comminuted fractures and risks of complications high

293
Q

What are the two types of growth plate?

A

A
Pressure growth plates - found at the ends of long bones and responsible for most bone growth
Traction growth plates - found where muscle insert, or originate and these only contribute a little to bone growth

294
Q

What are the 5 principles for corrective surgery for premature growth plate closure / angular limb deformity?

A

A
Restore joint congruity
Restore to a functional position
Correct rotation deformity
Correct angular deformity
Restore limb length

295
Q

Do individual growth plates of the radius and ulna contribute equally to growth?

A

No. Proximal radius GP contributes to 40% of growth and distal radius GP to 60%. On the other hand, the distal ulna GP is 100% responsible for bone growth.

296
Q

5 possible consequences of premature ulna GP closure

A

Radius curvus
Carpal valgus
Rotation of paw
Joint incongruity
Abnormal limb length

297
Q

What are the most common diaphyseal fractures?

A

Humeral (most frequently in the distal half to third of the bone)
Distal Radial and Ulna
Femoral

298
Q

Fractures of the weight bearing axis of the pelvis need surgical repair. Which bone structures are involved in this axis?

A

The acetabulum, ilium and sacroiliac joint

299
Q

Where do you make the thoracotomy for the following structures?
PDA
Caudal esophagus
Caudal vena cava
Feline thoracic duct

A

Left 4th
L/R 7-9th
R 7-9
L8-10

300
Q

Where do you make the thoracotomy for the following structures?

Canine thoracic duct
Cranial lunglobe
Intermediate lunglobe
Caudal lunglobe
cranial esophagus
Pulmonic valve

A

Opposite as cat, right 8-10 th
4-5 th
Right 5th (no intermediate on left side)
5-6th
Right 3th or 4 th
Left 4th

301
Q

What gastric tumor is most common in Dogs? Name some dxx

A

Adenocarcinoma
Lymphoma
Adenoma
Leiomyoma

302
Q

When should intraoperative blood be administered?

A

Intra OP blood loss over 20% of total blood volume and concurrent drop in blood pressure with MAP under 80/ SAP under 100.

Improve (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions