Important F1 Concepts Flashcards

1
Q

When is arterial blood gas (ABG) useful and what information does it provide?

A

Arterial blood gas is useful in any patient with a respiratory issue as it provides accurate readings of pO2 and pCO2.
pO2 is dependent on the FiO2. In healthy patients, the pO2 should be about 10 kPa less than the FiO2 (e.g., a patient on a 40% Venturi Mask should have a pO2 of around 30 kPa).

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2
Q

When is venous blood gas (VBG) useful and what additional information can it provide?

A

Venous blood gas is useful for situations where a rapid result is necessary (e.g., lactate, haemoglobin, sodium, potassium, calcium, pH).
Bicarbonate acts as a buffer for metabolic acids, and in acute metabolic acidosis, bicarbonate will be low.
Chronic CO2 retainers can be identified by a significantly raised bicarbonate level, indicating renal compensation by increasing bicarbonate reabsorption.

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3
Q

What is the difference between CPAP and BiPAP in Non-Invasive Ventilation (NIV)?

A

Non-Invasive Ventilation (NIV): Increases alveolar surface area participating in gas exchange.
CPAP (Continuous Positive Airway Pressure):
Used in type I respiratory failure.
Delivers a fixed pressure throughout both inspiration and expiration (IPAP = EPAP).
Holds open collapsing airways to facilitate gas exchange.
BiPAP (Bilevel Positive Airway Pressure):
Used in type II respiratory failure.
Delivers a higher pressure during inspiration (IPAP) and a lower pressure during expiration (EPAP).
The drop in pressure during expiration helps remove carbon dioxide from the body.

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4
Q

What is heart failure and what are its main consequences?

A

Heart failure is defined as the inability of the heart to pump sufficiently to meet the demands of the body.
Consequences include:
Reduced output, leading to shock and acute kidney injury (AKI).
Backlog of fluid into the peripheral and pulmonary circulation, resulting in peripheral oedema and pulmonary oedema.

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5
Q

What is the difference between Heart Failure with Reduced Ejection Fraction (HFrEF) and Heart Failure with Preserved Ejection Fraction (HFpEF)?

A

HFrEF:
Defined as heart failure with an ejection fraction of less than 40%.
Caused by inadequate emptying of the ventricles.
Prognostic benefit from ACE inhibitors, beta-blockers, and spironolactone.
HFpEF:
Defined as heart failure with an ejection fraction of greater than 50%.
Caused by inadequate filling of the ventricles due to stiffening of the myocardium.
No drugs provide prognostic benefit; treatment focuses on symptomatic management with diuretics.

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6
Q

Which critical drugs cannot be omitted?

A

Parkinson’s Disease medications.
Antiepileptics.
Antiretrovirals.
Long-term steroids.

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7
Q

What are the alternative routes for administering critical medications to patients who are nil by mouth?

A

NG Tube.
Parenteral Route (e.g., IV).
Transdermal Route.

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8
Q

What is Virchow’s Triad and how does it relate to clot formation?

A

Virchow’s Triad consists of three factors that contribute to clot formation:

Stasis: Example - Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT) primarily forms due to stasis, leading to coagulation factor activation. Anticoagulants are used to treat DVT.
Vessel Wall Injury: Example - Myocardial Infarction (MI) is caused by vessel wall injury due to atherosclerotic plaque rupture, leading to platelet activation and clot formation. Antiplatelets (e.g., aspirin) are used to treat MI.
Hypercoagulability: An inherent or acquired condition that increases the risk of thrombosis.

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9
Q

What are the key considerations for using heparins in VTE prophylaxis and treatment?

A

Low Molecular Weight Heparin (LMWH):
Mainstay of inpatient VTE prophylaxis.
Should be avoided in patients with poor renal function.
Unfractionated Heparin:
Has a short half-life and can be rapidly reversed.
Useful in patients with renal impairment.
Requires APTT ratio monitoring for VTE treatment.

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10
Q

What are the considerations for using Direct Oral Anticoagulants (DOACs)?

A

DOACs do not require monitoring but should be avoided in renal impairment.
Apixaban: Taken twice daily.
Rivaroxaban: Taken once daily.
May not be appropriate for patients at extremes of body weight.

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11
Q

What are the benefits and specific uses of warfarin?

A

Useful for patients at the extremes of body weight due to close monitoring and adjustment.
Used for patients with atrial fibrillation associated with moderate to severe mitral stenosis and patients with mechanical heart valves.

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12
Q

What are the three main aspects to managing alcohol excess?

A

Chlordiazepoxide Reducing Regime: Managed using the CIWA scoring system.
Pabrinex: Administer 2 pairs TDS (three times daily) for 3 days.
Blood Tests: Focus on liver synthetic function.

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13
Q

What is the purpose of the Chlordiazepoxide reducing regime in managing alcohol excess?

A

To safely manage and reduce alcohol withdrawal symptoms.
Uses the CIWA (Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment) scoring system to determine the appropriate dosage.

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14
Q

What are the diagnostic and management steps for ascites?

A

Diagnostic:
SAAG (Serum-Ascites Albumin Gradient)
Neutrophil count
Management:
Ascitic drain
Manage post-paracentesis circulatory dysfunction with Human Albumin Solution (HAS)
Prevent reaccumulation with Spironolactone or Furosemide

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15
Q

What are the treatment options for hepatic encephalopathy and coagulopathy?

A

Hepatic Encephalopathy:
Lactulose and Rifaximin to reduce absorption of nitrogenous products
Coagulopathy:
OGD (Oesophagogastroduodenoscopy)
Vitamin K

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16
Q

How is lactate produced in the body?

A

Lactate is produced during anaerobic respiration from pyruvate

17
Q

What is one mechanism of lactic acidosis related to hypoxia?

A

Hypoxia: Reduced oxygen availability leads to more pyruvate being shunted down the anaerobic pathway. Causes include:

Reduced oxygen delivery (e.g., vascular compromise, reduced effective circulating volume).
Reduced oxygen carriage (e.g., reduced gas exchange, anaemia).

18
Q

What are two other mechanisms of lactic acidosis besides hypoxia?

A

Mitochondrial Toxicity: Usually due to drugs such as metformin and propofol.
Reduced Metabolism of Lactate: Occurs due to liver, kidney, or muscle impairment.

19
Q

What is the fourth mechanism of lactic acidosis related to glycolysis?

A

Increased Glycolysis: Can occur due to:

Increased cellular glucose uptake (adrenergic stimulation).
Increased energy demand (exercise).

20
Q

What are common causes of delirium?

A

Constipation
Pain
Medications
Infections
Urinary retention
Dehydration

21
Q

What tests are included in a delirium screen?

A

FBC
U&E
LFT
Calcium
TFTs
B12/Folate
Glucose
Blood cultures
Urine dipstick
Urine MC&S
CXR

22
Q

What are some conservative measures for managing delirium?

A

Adequate lighting
Visible clocks
Hydration
Laxatives
1:1 nursing care

23
Q

What are the SOS medication options for managing delirium

A

Lorazepam 0.5-4 mg IV/IM/PO
Haloperidol IM/PO 0.5-2.0 mg (avoid in Parkinson’s disease)

24
Q

What is the broad-spectrum antibiotic escalation pathway?

A

Co-Amoxiclav → Tazocin → Meropenem

25
Q

Which antibiotics are good for Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A

Ceftazidime
Ciprofloxacin
Gentamicin
Amikacin

26
Q

Which antibiotics are effective against anaerobes?

A

Metronidazole
Nitrofurantoin

27
Q

Which antibiotics are good for intracellular pathogens?

A

Tetracyclines (e.g., doxycycline)

28
Q

Which antibiotics are primarily good for Gram-negative bacteria?

A

Aminoglycosides: Amikacin, gentamicin
Fluoroquinolones: Ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin, moxifloxacin

29
Q

Which antibiotics are primarily good for Gram-positive bacteria?

A

Beta-Lactams: Penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems
Glycopeptides: Vancomycin, teicoplanin
Oxazolidinones: Linezolid

30
Q

What are examples of weak, moderate, and strong opioids?

A

Weak Opioids:
Codeine
Dihydrocodeine
Moderate Opioid:
Tramadol
Strong Opioids:
Morphine
Oxycodone
Buprenorphine
Fentanyl

31
Q

How should morphine dosing be adjusted if a patient is using PRN oramorph very regularly?

A

Calculate the total daily dose of PRN oramorph.
Divide this total dose by two.
This new dose can be given as a modified release preparation (MST) twice daily.
For example, a patient using 60 mg of PRN oramorph per day can be switched to 30 mg BD MST.

32
Q

What is the preferred opioid for patients with renal impairment (eGFR < 30 mL/min)?

A

Oxycodone

33
Q

How should PRN immediate-release analgesia be managed for patients on maintenance opioid therapy?

A

Patients on maintenance analgesia (e.g., MST) should have PRN immediate-release analgesia (e.g., oramorph) at a dose that is 1/10 to 1/6 of the total daily opioid dose

34
Q

What are the equivalent doses of 10 mg of oral morphine?

A

Oxycodone 5 mg PO
Oxycodone 2.5 mg parenteral
Tramadol 100 mg PO and parenteral
Codeine 100 mg PO