Import from Quizlet 872

Question 1

What is the purpose of the Maricopa County Employee Compensation Plan?

Answer 1

Ensure that County employees are paid consistently, equitably, and in a manner that is competitive with the marketplace, so they are motivated to provide excellent service to the residents of Maricopa County.

Compensation Plan B7000

Question 2

Coaching shall be documented in Blue Team and shall be considered for ____ years prior to the current offense.

Answer 2

3 years

GC-17 Attachment A

Question 3

In reference to employee discipline, how many disciplinary offense categories are there?

Answer 3

7

GC-17 Attachment B

Question 4

Coaching:

Answer 4

A non-disciplinary interaction between a supervisor and an employee that supports an individual in achieving specific personal or professional goals by providing training, advice, and guidance in response to a specific situation.

GC-17 Attachment A

Question 5

Based on the disciplinary matrix, after review and determination by the PSB Commander the use of a non-disciplinary Coaching by a supervisor may be acceptable only for what kind of offense?

Answer 5

1. Category 1, 1st or 2nd offense

2. Category 2, 1st offense

Question 6

True or False?

A non-exempt, regular status employee shall not be suspended for more than 40 working hours per pay period.

Answer 6

True.

GC-17 Attachment A

Question 7

Demotions may be considered for personnel whose conduct falls in a discipline level which is equivalent to what?

Answer 7

80 hours or more suspension

GC-17 Attachment A

Question 8

When conduct of personnel falls in a discipline range from a suspension to dismissal, _____ hours will be the maximum number of hours an employee shall be suspended during each disciplinary procedure.

Answer 8

120 hours

GC-17 Attachment A

Question 9

Who are the Appointed Employees of Maricopa County (8)?

Answer 9

The statutory chief deputies of:
1. Assessor
2. Clerk of Superior Court
3. County Attorney
4. Recorder
5. Sheriff
6. Superintendent of Schools
7. Treasurer
 and or 
(8) any other employee so designated by the Board.

Compensation Plan B7000

Question 10

Appointing Authority:

Answer 10

An elected official, the single administrative or executive head of a department, or the designated representative authorized to act in this capacity.

Compensation Plan B7000
Employee Merit System Rules 1.04

Question 11

Who are the 4 Maricopa County Boards?

Answer 11

1. Maricopa County Board of Supervisors
2. Maricopa County Flood Control District Board of Directors
3. Maricopa County Library District Board of Directors
4. Maricopa County Stadium District Board of Directors

Compensation Plan B7000
Employee Merit System Rules 1.07

Question 12

Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA):

Answer 12

A federal act that establishes minimum requirements for tracking of employees’ hours worked for purposes of calculating overtime and other pay for full and part-time workers.

Compensation Plan B7000

Question 13

Hourly Rate:

Answer 13

Determined by dividing the employee’s annual salary by 2080 (40 hours x 52 weeks).

Compensation Plan B7000

Question 14

A specified period of time following the employment of an employee into a budgeted position in the classified service, during which the work performance of the employee is evaluated.

Answer 14

Initial Probation Employee

Compensation Plan B7000
Employee Merit System Rules 1.19

Question 15

What is: The established sets of rules that provide a uniform and equitable system of personnel administration.

Answer 15

Merit System Rules

Compensation Plan B7000

Question 16

The 3 merit systems are…?

Answer 16

1. Maricopa County Employee Merit System Rules
2. Maricopa County Law Enforcement Officers Merit System Rules
3. Judicial Merit System Rules

Compensation Plan B7000

Question 17

Severance Pay:

Answer 17

A discretionary payment to a classified or unclassified employee in exchange for a release of all claims which this employee may have against the County.

Compensation Plan B7000

Question 18

A Temporary Employee must meet one of the following according to Compensation Plan B7000:

Answer 18

1. Work 20 or more hrs/week for up to 19 weeks and less than 20 hrs/week for the remainder of the fiscal year
2. Work 20 or more hrs/week for less than 20 weeks in a fiscal year
3. Work less than 20 hrs/week for the entire fiscal year
4. Is not subject to Social Security coverage

Compensation Plan B7000

Question 19

In reference to Compensation Plan B7000, who is not covered by the Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA)? (6)

Answer 19

1. Elected officials and their personal staff
2. Policy making appointees
3. Legal advisors
4. Volunteers
5. Independent contractors
6. Prisoners

Compensation Plan B7000

Question 20

According to Compensation Plan B7000, what 2 entities establish minimum wage?

Answer 20

1. The Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA), and
2. Arizona’s Minimum Wage Act (ARS 23-364a).

Compensation Plan B7000

Question 21

Who must approve all salaries above the minimum of the range before job offers can be extended ?

Answer 21

Employee Compensation

Compensation Plan B7000

Question 22

What factors are considered when determining the new base pay rate of a demoted employee? (6)

Answer 22

1. Employee’s experience
2. Base pay rate prior to promotion
3. Internal equity
4. Responsibilities of demoted job in relation to current job
5. Budgeted rate of pay for new position
6. Other criteria identified as appropriate to the specific situation

Compensation Plan B7000

Question 23

What is: The Maricopa County Employee Merit System Commission as created by the Resolution.

Answer 23

Commission

Employee Merit System Rules 1.09

Question 24

Director:

Answer 24

The Maricopa County Human Resources Director or designee.

Employee Merit System Rules 1.14

Question 25

Eligible:

Answer 25

A person who has met standards based upon the established assessment process for a specific type of job. Employee Merit System Rules 1.16

Question 26

Eligible List:

Answer 26

An official list of eligibles for a particular job used by the appointing authority for selection for employment in the classified service. Employee Merit System Rules 1.17

Question 27

Furlough:

Answer 27

Mandatory unpaid leave imposed on classified employees as the result of a budget deficit or shortfall. (May be imposed as an alternative to, or in conjunction with, a Reduction in Force) Employee Merit System Rules 1.17

Question 28

Reduction In Force (RIF):

Answer 28

The separation of a regular employee from County employment for lack of funds, lack of work, or abolishment of position. Employee Merit System Rules 1.27

Question 29

Referral List:

Answer 29

List of names and associated employment applications of qualified eligibles referred by the Director to and appointing authority for selection for employment in the classified service. Employee Merit System Rules 1.28

Question 30

Resolution:

Answer 30

The Maricopa County Resolution of December 22, 1969 that established the Maricopa County Employee Merit System effective January 1, 1970 and all subsequent amendments. Employee Merit System Rules 1.30

Question 31

What is the purpose of the Employee Merit System Rules?

Answer 31

To implement the requirements of the Resolution which establishes a system of personnel administration based on merit principles. Employee Merit System Rules 2.01

Question 32

Service of Notice:

Answer 32

According to the Merit System, how should any paper or document notice be served to the addressee? 1. In person 2. By certified mail to the last known residence or business address Employee Merit System Rules 2.03

Question 33

The Commission shall hold meetings in accordance with what?

Answer 33

1. Arizona Open Meeting Act (ARS38-431) 2. The Resolution Employee Merit System Rules 3.01

Question 34

The announcement of recruitments shall specify what information:

Answer 34

1. Title of the position 2. Pay information 3. Essential job tasks (or where this info may be obtained) 4. Position qualifications 5. Final date for receipt of applications (or statement of continuous recruitment) 6. Selection procedures 7. How and where to apply Employee Merit System Rules 4.01

Question 35

The duration of job announcements shall be established by who?

Answer 35

The appointing authority, in consultation with the Director. Employee Merit System Rules 4.01

Question 36

List reasons for disqualifying applicants.

Answer 36

1. Do not meet minimum qualifications 2. Are addicted to narcotics/intoxicants 3. Made a false statement of material fact in application process 4. Used, or attempted to use, political pressure/bribery to secure an advantage 5. Directly/indirectly obtained info regarding confidential assessment materials to which they were not entitled 6. Failed to submit completed application correctly/within the prescribed time 7. Took part in the compilation, administration, or any part of the selection process 8. Previously dismissed from County for disciplinary reasons 9. Convicted of a felony 10. Convicted of crime involving narcotic or drugs 11. Charged/under indictment for any crime which upon conviction would cause denial of eligibility under this rule 12. Expiration of eligible list 13. Failed to respond to correspondence, appear for scheduled assessment/interview, failed any phase of the selection process 14. Indicated that they are no longer interested in the position/no longer available for selection 15. Refused/rejected a job offer for specific position 16. Abolishment of the eligible list 17. Otherwise violated the provisions of the Resolution or these Rules Employee Merit System Rules 4.03

Question 37

All applicants will be assessed for a job position using one or any combination of the following (5):

Answer 37

1. Written examination 2. Oral board 3. Demonstration/performance assessment 4. Evaluation of experience, training, education, and/or skills 5. Other objective and job-related methods of assessment Employee Merit System Rules 4.04

Question 38

When an oral board is used, the process shall be conducted, and applicants evaluated by whom?

Answer 38

A panel of two or more qualified, impartial individuals, as determined by the Director. Employee Merit System Rules 4.04

Question 39

True or False? At the discretion of the Director, assessments; which include but are not limited to: multiple choice examinations, typing test or other scored performance assessments, may be retaken or repeated within reasonable limits of scheduling.

Answer 39

True Employee Merit System Rules 4.07

Question 40

True or False? Candidates for a job position may compare their answer sheet for any multiple choice examination with the scoring key for the purpose of determining whether their answers have been accurately scored.

Answer 40

True Employee Merit System Rules 4.08

Question 41

In order to inspect a multiple choice answer sheet examination, a candidate must request the inspection in writing to the Director within _____ calendar days of the notification of results.

Answer 41

7 calendar days Employee Merit System Rules 4.08

Question 42

In the event of an evaluation error during a job examination, the error will be corrected if brought to the attention of the ___________ within 7 calendar days of notification of an evaluation rating to an applicant.

Answer 42

Director Employee Merit System Rules 4.10

Question 43

Who can receive preference points?

Answer 43

A candidate who is not a current employee and attains a passing score on a numerically scored assessment process. Employee Merit System Rules 4.13

Question 44

Who shall be responsible for the establishment and maintenance of eligible lists?

Answer 44

The Director Employee Merit System Rules 5.01

Question 45

At the conclusion of an assessment process, the Director shall do what with the names of the candidates? (3)

Answer 45

1. Prepare a list of eligible candidates, or 2. Merge the names of new eligibles with those on an existing list 3. Determine the order in which candidates are placed on an eligible list Employee Merit System Rules 5.02

Question 46

With the approval of the Director, an appointing authority may abolish an eligible list at any time in the event of what (5)?

Answer 46

1. Elimination of the position 2. New assessment process 3. Changes to position duties or requirements 4. Cancellation of a recruitment process 5. Whenever an existing eligible list has ceased to meet the needs of the appointing authority Employee Merit System Rules 5.04

Question 47

Only eligibles that have been placed on a referral list by __________ are authorized to participate in the selection process for a position.

Answer 47

the Director Employee Merit System Rules 6.01

Question 48

The life of a referral list should not exceed ______ calendar days from the date of issue, unless extended by the Director.

Answer 48

90 calendar days Employee Merit System Rules 6.03

Question 49

The initial probation period shall be a minimum of _____ months.

Answer 49

12 months Employee Merit System Rules 7.01

Question 50

The initial probation period may be extended for up to ______ additional months.

Answer 50

6 additional months Employee Merit System Rules 7.01

Question 51

An initial probationary employee has appeal rights under Employee Merit System Rules.

Answer 51

False. An initial probationary employee does NOT have appeal rights under these Employee Merit System Rules. Employee Merit System Rules 7.01

Question 52

In reference to separations and disciplinary actions, the appointing authority may do what to an employee?

Answer 52

1. Suspend 2. Involuntarily demote 3. Dismiss Employee Merit System Rules 9.03

Question 53

Before the appointing authority may suspend, involuntarily demote, or dismiss a regular employee, they must provide the employee with a written statement indicating what?

Answer 53

1. The action proposed to be taken, 2. The policies/procedures, or rules violated, 3. The specific reasons for the action (in sufficient detail to apprise the employee of the factual circumstances which justify the proposed action.) Employee Merit System Rules 9.03

Question 54

True or False? In reference to separations and disciplinary actions, the appointing authority shall include in the statement to the employee a notice of the employee's right to present reasons why the action should not be taken at a meeting with the appointing authority.

Answer 54

True Employee Merit System Rules 9.03

Question 55

Unless formal discipline is abandoned, the written notice of the final decision shall state that the employee has a right to appeal in writing to the Commission with in _____ calendar days from the date of personal delivery or certified mailing of the final decision.

Answer 55

10 calendar days Employee Merit System Rules 9.03

Question 56

True or False? An initial probationary employee may be suspended, demoted or dismissed at any time with or without cause with the right of appeal. False.

Answer 56

False. An initial probationary employee does NOT have the right of appeal. Employee Merit System Rules 9.04

Question 57

A regular employee who desires to resign or retire from county service is expected to submit a written notice at least _____ calendar days prior to the effective date of the resignation or retirement.

Answer 57

14 calendar days Employee Merit System Rules 9.05

Question 58

What may a regular employee appeal to the Commission?

Answer 58

1. Suspension 2. Involuntary demotion 3. Dismissal Employee Merit System Rules 10.01

Question 59

An employee appeal shall be in writing and include what information?

Answer 59

1. Facts about the Appeal 2. The Requested Action 3. The Identities of all Persons/Departments Involved Employee Merit System Rules 10.02

Question 60

An employee appeal may be assigned by the Commission or its chairperson to whom?

Answer 60

A hearing officer Employee Merit System Rules 10.04

Question 61

The Commission shall set a date for an employee appeal hearing when?

Answer 61

Within 20 calendar days from the filing of the appeal. Employee Merit System Rules 10.05

Question 62

In reference to an employee appeal, written notice of the time, date, place of the initial hearing and the name of the hearing officer; if any, shall be served by the Director on the appellant when?

Answer 62

At least 7 days before the date of the hearing. Employee Merit System Rules 10.06

Question 63

A copy of the proposed findings and conclusions of the employee appeal shall be filed by the hearing Officer within _____ calendar days of the case being submitted for decision.

Answer 63

35 calendar days. Employee Merit System Rules 10.12

Question 64

What standards of character are essential? (HIIC)

Answer 64

1. Honesty 2. Integrity 3. Impartiality 4. Conduct Employee Merit System Rules 11.01

Question 65

According to the Employee Merit System Resolution, there shall be a Commission of _____ members appointed by the Board with the powers and duties listed in the Resolution.

Answer 65

5 members Employee Merit System Resolution Section 8.B

Question 66

A member of the Commission may be removed for what reasons?

Answer 66

1. Absence from 3 consecutive regular meetings without being excused 2. Becoming a candidate for any elective public office 3. Accepting any appointive office or employment in the service of the state, county, city, or town Employee Merit System Resolution Section 9.C

Question 67

According to the Employee Merit System Resolution, how many meetings will the Commission hold each year?

Answer 67

At least 4 Employee Merit System Resolution Section 9.D

Question 68

According to the Employee Merit System Resolution, what are the duties of the Director? (7)

Answer 68

1. Attend meetings, act as secretary, and keep minutes 2. Establish/maintain a roster of all employees 3. Appoint employees to carry out the provisions of the Resolution 4. Develop programs for the improvement of employee effectiveness 5. Review the operation/effect of the Resolution and Rules and report findings 6. Perform other lawful acts considered necessary 7. Make annual reports to the Board and Commission Employee Merit System Resolution Section 11.B

Question 69

According to the Employee Merit System Resolution, what are the reasons that the appointing authority can discipline, suspend, demote, or dismiss a regular employee?

Answer 69

1. Fraud in securing/maintaining employment 2. Incompetency 3. Inefficiency 4. Abuse of leave 5. Neglect of duty 6. Insubordination 7. Dishonesty 8. Possessing, dispensing, or being under the influence of alcohol/drugs 9. Violation of authorized policy 10. Absence without authorized leave 11. Charged with a criminal act 12. Conviction of a criminal act 13. Discourteous treatment of the public or fellow employees 14. Improper political activity 15. Unlawful discrimination 16. Misuse of government property 17. Violation of policies/procedures 18. Violation of the Code of Ethics Employee Merit System Resolution Section 15.A

Question 70

What is CP-1?

Answer 70

Use of Force Critical Policy CP-1

Question 71

What is the purpose of CP-1 Use of Force?

Answer 71

To provide employees with guidelines on the authorized use of force or control that objectively reasonable employees would apply in the performance of their lawful duties. CP-1

Question 72

Blue Team:

Answer 72

The Early Identification System (EIS) application that allows employees and supervisors to record information in a database regarding incidents, performance, and conduct. CP-1, GH-5

Question 73

Detention Planned Use of Force:

Answer 73

An incident involving an inmate who is not posing an immediate threat to officers, staff, or other inmates, where force must be used to protect the inmate involved or allow Correctional Health Services (CHS) staff to administer involuntary psychotropic medications. CP-1

Question 74

Early Identification System (EIS):

Answer 74

A system of electronic databases that capture and store threshold events to help support and improve employee performance through early intervention and/or to identify Office operating procedures that need evaluation. (EX: Blue Team) CP-1

Question 75

What factors should detention staff take into consideration when deciding to use force (4)?

Answer 75

1. The threat as reasonably perceived by the employee 2. The extent of the threat to safety of staff and inmates 3. The relationship between the need and the amount of force used 4. The amount of injury that the use of force may cause the inmate and other involved parties CP-1 Section 2.B

Question 76

Who shall Detention staff consult with before executing a planned use of force?

Answer 76

Correctional Health Services (CHS) mental health staff CP-1 Section 2.C

Question 77

May mental health or CHS staff speak to the inmate prior to a planned use of force?

Answer 77

to a planned use of force? Yes, if it is safe to do so. CP-1 Section 2.C

Question 78

What are the elements of force?

Answer 78

1. Ability 2. Opportunity 3. Jeopardy 4. Preclusion CP-1 Section 3.A

Question 79

In reference to the elements of force, what does 'ablility' mean?

Answer 79

The subject's physical or mental power to carry out an act. CP-1 Section 3.A1

Question 80

In reference to the elements of force, what does 'opportunity' mean?

Answer 80

The subject's chance to carry out an act. CP-1 Section 3.A2

Question 81

In reference to the elements of force, what does 'jeopardy' mean?

Answer 81

The danger to the employee, others, or property, if the subject acts. CP-1 Section 3.A3

Question 82

In reference to the elements of force, what does 'preclusion' mean?

Answer 82

The consideration of reasonable means of force or tactical redeployment. - The type of resistance used by the subject - The response options reasonably and readily available to the employee CP-1 Section 3.A4

Question 83

What are the 6 types of resistance?

Answer 83

1. Psychological intimidation 2. Verbal non-compliance 3. Passive resistance 4. Active resistance 5. Active aggression 6. Aggravated active aggression CP-1 Section 4

Question 84

What is psychological intimidation?

Answer 84

Non-verbal cues indicating a subject's attitude, appearance, and physical readiness. CP-1 Section 4.A

Question 85

What is passive resistance?

Answer 85

Physical actions that do not prevent an employee's attempt of control. EX: a protester going limp and having to be carried away CP-1 Section 4.C

Question 86

What is active resistance?

Answer 86

Physical actions which attempt to prevent an employee's control, but never attempt to harm the employee. EX: a subject tightening up or attempting to pull away CP-1 Section 4.D

Question 87

What is active aggression?

Answer 87

Physical actions of assault. EX: a subject displaying threatening behavior CP-1 Section 4.E

Question 88

What is aggravated active aggression?

Answer 88

Physical actions which result in a deadly-force encounter. CP-1 Section 4.F

Question 89

What are 5 Response and Control Options an employee | may use in an attempt to control a subject?

Answer 89

1. Employee's presence 2. Verbal direction 3. Empty-hand control and restraint devices 4. Intermediate weapons and control 5. Deadly force CP-1 Section 5

Question 90

Define Soft, Empty-Hand Control:

Answer 90

Techniques that have minimal chance of causing injury. CP-1 Section 5.C1

Question 91

Define Hard, Empty-Hand Control:

Answer 91

Techniques that have a probability of causing injury. CP-1 Section 5.C2

Question 92

When may an employee use deadly force?

Answer 92

1. To protect him/herself or others from immediate threat of death/serious bodily harm 2. To prevent the escape of a subject, who may be likely to endanger human life or cause serious injury (probable cause required) CP-1 Section 5.E

Question 93

List 9 authorized weapons, equipment, and techniques used within the Sheriff's Office:

Answer 93

1. Baton 2. Canine 3. Carotid Control Technique 4. Conducted Electrical Weapon (CEW) 5. Firearms 6. Oleoresin Capsicum (OC) 7. PepperBall Launcher 8. Restraints 9. Vehicle CP-1 Section 6

Question 94

Who is allowed to use batons?

Answer 94

1. Sworn personnel 2. Qualified Armed Posse (QAP) 3. Firearms qualified detention personnel CP-1 Section 6.A

Question 95

Who is allowed to use the Carotid Control Technique?

Answer 95

Sworn officers trained in its use. CP-1 Section 6.C

Question 96

True or False? In regards to use of force, employees should determine whether an individual has sustained any injury and appropriate medical treatment should be obtained when necessary.

Answer 96

True. CP-1 Section 8

Question 97

When a Use of Force Report is filled out, what else needs to be completed with it?

Answer 97

Incident Report CP-1 Section 9.B

Question 98

Which Use of Force incidents need to be documented?

Answer 98

All incidents above and beyond Soft, Empty-Hand Control. CP-1 Section 9.A

Question 99

Where does the Use of Force Report need to be completed?

Answer 99

EIS Blue Team application CP-1 Section 9.D2

Question 100

What will the Use of Force Report include?

Answer 100

1. IR 2. Taser download 3. Evidence impound forms 4. Pictures 5. Video of the incident CP-1 Section 9.D2

Question 101

What does CISM stand for?

Answer 101

Critical Incident Stress Management CP-1 Section 10

Question 102

The ________ __________ will be responsible for developing, implementing, and monitoring programs designed to provide training in the use of force and control, defensive tactics, and weapons.

Answer 102

Training Division CP-1 Section 12

Question 103

What is CP-2?

Answer 103

Code of Conduct Critical Policy CP-2

Question 104

What is the purpose of CP-2 Code of Conduct?

Answer 104

To establish guidelines by which all employees of the Office shall conduct themselves, both on and off duty. CP-2

Question 105

Family Member:

Answer 105

An employee's spouse/domestic partner; mother, father, sister, brother, son or daughter, sons and daughters-in-law, parents-in-law, grandparents-in-law, sisters and brothers-in-law, aunts an uncles, grandparents, grandchildren, custodial persons, half-siblings, nieces and nephews, first cousins, and the full spectrum of step relation. CP-2

Question 106

Misconduct:

Answer 106

Any violation of Office Policy, Procedure, federal, state, or local criminal or civil law, constitutional violations, or administrative rules. CP-2

Question 107

Criminal Misconduct:

Answer 107

Conduct by an employee that a reasonable and trained supervisor or internal affairs investigator would conclude could result in criminal charges due to the apparent circumstances of the misconduct. CP-2

Question 108

Minor Misconduct:

Answer 108

Conduct that; if sustained, would result in discipline or corrective action less severe than a suspension. CP-2

Question 109

Serious Misconduct:

Answer 109

Conduct that; if sustained, would result in discipline of a suspension, demotion, or dismissal. CP-2

Question 110

Negligence:

Answer 110

Failure to exercise the care a reasonable or prudent person would exercise in similar circumstances. CP-2

Question 111

Undue Familiarity:

Answer 111

Conduct that includes any act of a sexual nature with an offender who is in the custody of the state department of corrections, the department of juvenile corrections, a private prison facility, a juvenile detention facility, a city/county jail, or with an offender who is under the supervision of either department, a city or county. CP-2

Question 112

The Office requires absolute __________ from every applicant in securing employment and from every employee.

Answer 112

Truthfulness CP-2 Section 1; CP-5 Truthfulness

Question 113

Any employee who observes or becomes aware of any act of misconduct by another employee shall do what?

Answer 113

Report the incident to a supervisor, PSB, or any outside entity authorized to take corrective action. CP-2 Section 7.A

Question 114

True or False? | Failure to report an act of misconduct shall not be considered misconduct and will not result in disciplinary action.

Answer 114

False. Failure to report an act of misconduct shall be considered misconduct and may result in disciplinary action, up to and including dismissal. CP-2 Section 7.A

Question 115

Employees shall not demean persons or act disparagingly against any individual regardless of what? (11)

Answer 115

1. Age 2. Nationality 3. Religious beliefs 4. Race 5. Gender 6. Culture 7. Sexual orientation 8. Gender identity 9. Veteran status 10. Ancestry 11. Disability CP-2 Section 9.D

Question 116

Employees shall not operate any Maricopa County vehicle within _____ hours after consuming any alcoholic beverages.

Answer 116

8 hours CP-2 Section 11.E

Question 117

On and off-duty employees shall not display or wear any recognizable item of Office apparel where?

Answer 117

A public place/establishment where the primary purpose is to sell or serve alcoholic beverages. CP-2 Section 11.F

Question 118

Employees are prohibited from using their official position, identification cards, or badges for any of the following (4):

Answer 118

1. Personal/financial gain directly related to Office duties 2. Obtaining privileges not otherwise available to them or others 3. Avoiding consequences of illegal acts, or helping family member avoid the consequences of illegal acts 4. Misrepresenting their position or authority in the Office CP-2 Section 15.A

Question 119

True or False? | Employees may convey written or oral messages between inmates.

Answer 119

False. Employees shall NOT convey written or oral messages between inmates, except those which are necessary in the operation of the facility. CP-2 Section 25.C

Question 120

Employees who feel they are unable to stay awake on duty have the responsibility to notify who?

Answer 120

Their immediate supervisor CP-2 Section 32.B

Question 121

What is CP-3?

Answer 121

Workplace Professionalism: Discrimination and Harassment Critical Policy CP-3

Question 122

What is the purpose of CP-3 Workplace Professionalism?

Answer 122

To establish procedures for preventing, reporting, investigating, and resolving allegations of unlawful discrimination, harassment, and retaliation. CP-3

Question 123

Allegation:

Answer 123

A claim that an employee has been subjected to unlawful or wrongful conduct. CP-3

Question 124

Discrimination:

Answer 124

*Different Treatment* in the terms, conditions, and privileges of employment because of an individual's protected characteristic. CP-3

Question 125

What is: Unwelcome sexual advances, request for sexual favors, and other conduct of a sexual nature, or treatment of an individual based on a protected characteristic that is not welcome, that is offensive, that interferes with work effectiveness or that creates an intimidating, hostile, or offensive work environment.

Answer 125

Harassment CP-3

Question 126

Notice of Investigation (NOI):

Answer 126

A written notice given to an employee during an administrative investigation which identifies the employee's status in the investigation. CP-3

Question 127

What is included in a Notice of Investigation (NOI)? (4)

Answer 127

1. Employee's status in the investigation 2. Employee's responsibility not to discuss the investigation 3. The name and rank of the assigned investigators 4. Notice of the employee's right to have an observer present at the interview CP-3

Question 128

Protected Activity:

Answer 128

An employee's good faith expressed opposition to an employer's practice that he reasonably believes to be discrimination. CP-3

Question 129

Protected Characteristic (10-RGRCNADPVG):

Answer 129

All characteristics covered by applicable federal or state laws including, but not limited to: - Race - Gender - Religion - Color - National Origin - Age - Disability - Pregnancy - Veteran Status - Genetic Information CP-3

Question 130

Any employee who requires an accommodation in order to perform the essential functions of the job shall request the accommodation from who?

Answer 130

Leave Management Section (LMS) CP-3 Section 2.A

Question 131

Entering into a romantic relationship, or having any form of sexual interaction is expressly prohibited between an employee and who?

Answer 131

Their supervisor. CP-3 Section 3.A

Question 132

True or False? An employee is required to directly confront the offender who is alleged to have engaged in unlawful or wrongful conduct.

Answer 132

False. An employee is NOT required to directly confront the offender who is alleged to have engaged in unlawful or wrongful conduct. CP-3 Section 5.C

Question 133

In reference to unlawful or wrongful conduct; if the alleged offender is the supervisor, the employee shall report the matter to whom?

Answer 133

1. The next higher level of the chain of command 2. Support Services Bureau Chief, or 3. PSB CP-3 Section 5.C2

Question 134

In reference to an allegation of unlawful or wrongful conduct, once PSB has been notified of the allegation what do they do? (4)

Answer 134

1. Issue and log an IA case number 2. Enter the complaint information into IA Pro 3. Notify the respective bureau chief 4. Prepare Attachment B, if not already prepared CP-3 Section 5.C2

Question 135

In reference to an allegation of unlawful or wrongful conduct, employees are encouraged to use Attachment A. What should Attachment A include? (6)

Answer 135

1. Description of the incident 2. Details of the incident-dates and times 3. Names of individuals involved 4. Names of any witnesses 5. Direct quotes when relevant 6. Documentary evidence - EX: notes, e-mails, text messages, photos, voice mail recordings CP-3 Section 5.C3

Question 136

Who decides if an investigation into the complaint of unlawful or wrongful conduct of an employee should be initiated?

Answer 136

The PSB Commander CP-3 Section 5.D

Question 137

Who determines if an employee; who is alleged to have engaged in unlawful or wrongful conduct, should be placed on administrative leave with pay?

Answer 137

The PSB Commander or his designee. CP-3 Section 5.D

Question 138

What is CP-4?

Answer 138

Emergency and Pursuit Driving Critical Policy CP-4

Question 139

What is: Part of the Bureau of Internal Oversight; responsible for the implementation, maintenance, and operation of the Early Identification System (EIS) and for providing training and assistance to the EIS users.

Answer 139

Early Intervention Unit (EIU) CP-4

Question 140

What is CP-5?

Answer 140

Truthfulness Critical Policy CP-5

Question 141

What is the purpose of CP-5 Truthfulness?

Answer 141

To establish the mandatory regulations to which all Maricopa County Sheriff's Office employees must strictly adhere with regard to truthfulness and personal integrity. CP-5

Question 142

True or False? | The requirement for absolute truthfulness is limited to on-duty conduct and communications.

Answer 142

False. The requirement for absolute truthfulness is NOT LIMITED TO ON-DUTY conduct and communications. CP-5

Question 143

Exculpatory:

Answer 143

That which is likely to prove the innocence of a person. CP-5

Question 144

Impeach:

Answer 144

To call into question a person's good character. CP-5

Question 145

Integrity:

Answer 145

Uncompromising adherence to moral and ethical principles; honesty. CP-5

Question 146

Who are the exceptions when it comes to CP-5 Truthfulness?

Answer 146

1. An internal affairs investigator 2. A criminal investigator 3. A polygraph examiner While gathering information or evidence during an ongoing investigation CP-5 Section 2

Question 147

In cases where the alleged misconduct involves a violation of the Truthfulness Policy, who may initiate an administrative investigation?

Answer 147

1. PSB Deputy Chief or his designee 2. Chief Deputy CP-5 Section 3

Question 148

What is CP-6?

Answer 148

Bloodborne Pathogens Critical Policy CP-6

Question 149

What is the purpose of CP-6 Bloodborne Pathogens?

Answer 149

To establish guidelines and procedures that conform to applicable Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) guidelines and Arizona Division of Occupational Safety and Health (ADOSH) regulations. CP-6

Question 150

What are Bloodborne Pathogens:

Answer 150

Microorganisms that are present in human blood and can cause disease in humans. CP-6

Question 151

Engineering Controls:

Answer 151

Apparatuses that isolate, limit, or remove bloodborne pathogens from the workplace. CP-6

Question 152

Exposure Incident:

Answer 152

A specific skin, eye, other mucous membrane, or parenteral contact with blood or other potentially infectious materials that results from the performance of an employee's duties. CP-6

Question 153

Gross Contamination:

Answer 153

Items that would release blood or other potentially infectious materials in a liquid or semi-liquid state if compressed or items that are caked with dried blood or other potentially infectious materials that are capable of releasing these materials during handling. CP-6

Question 154

Non-Intact Skin:

Answer 154

Any broken skin such as cuts and abrasions. CP-6

Question 155

Occupational Exposure:

Answer 155

Reasonably anticipated skin, eye, mucous membrane, or parenteral contact with blood or other potentially infectious materials, which may result from the performance of an employee's duties. CP-6

Question 156

List other potentially infectious materials:

Answer 156

1. Saliva in dental procedures or anything that is visibly contaminated with blood, semen, vaginal secretions, or other bodily fluids 2. Any physically unattached tissue/organ from a living or dead human being 3. Materials or equipment contaminated with any of the above CP-6

Question 157

Parenteral:

Answer 157

Piercing of mucous membranes or the skin barrier through such events as needle sticks, human bites, cuts, and abrasions. CP-6

Question 158

Personal Protective Equipment (PPE):

Answer 158

Specialized clothing or equipment used by an employee to protect himself from exposure to blood or other potentially infectious materials. CP-6

Question 159

Source Individual:

Answer 159

Any person, living or dead, whose blood or other potentially infectious materials may be the origin of occupational exposure to an employee. CP-6

Question 160

Universal Precautions:

Answer 160

Methods of infection control in which all human blood and certain human bodily fluids are treated as if they are infected with HBV, HCV, HIV, or other bloodborne pathogens. CP-6

Question 161

Work Practice Controls:

Answer 161

Procedures which reduce the likelihood of exposure by altering the manner in which a task is performed. CP-6

Question 162

Transmission of bloodborne pathogens includes, but is not limited to, what?

Answer 162

1. Blood to blood 2. Blood or other potentially infectious materials to eyes or mucous membranes 3. Contact with a person's non-intact skin with the blood or other potentially infectious materials from another person 4. Piercing the skin with contaminated sharps CP-6 Section 1

Question 163

Maricopa County shall provide vaccinations for ______ to all employees identified as working in an area where there is a potential risk for an occupational exposure to blood or other potentially infectious materials.

Answer 163

HBV CP-6 Section 2

Question 164

PPE may include, but is not limited to, what?

Answer 164

1. Disposable gloves 2. Masks and eye protection 3. Gowns, aprons, or other protective clothing 4. Liquid-resistant clothing 5. Disposable, liquid-proof shoe covers 6. One-way airway PPE CP-6 Section 6.B

Question 165

Only authorized disinfectants supplied by the Office shall be used. A ten percent bleach solution is an authorized surface disinfectant and shall be replaced when?

Answer 165

Every 7 to 10 days. CP-6 Section 8

Question 166

Contaminated inmate personal property and clothing shall be placed in what?

Answer 166

A liquid-proof, red biohazard plastic bag. CP-6 Section 8.C

Question 167

An employee who has experienced an exposure incident should obtain medical treatment through whom?

Answer 167

A contracted occupational health clinic. CP-6 Section 14

Question 168

True or False? Chlorine bleach or other surface disinfectants should be used to disinfect or decontaminate the skin or other parts of the body.

Answer 168

False. Chlorine bleach or other surface disinfectants should NEVER be used on the skin or other parts of the body. CP-6 Section 14.A

Question 169

In reference to an exposure incident, the eyes should be flushed with a large volume of water for at least how long?

Answer 169

15 minutes CP-6 Section 14.A

Question 170

After an exposure incident, when shall the employee complete a memorandum documenting the incident?

Answer 170

Prior to the end of shift. CP-6 Section 14.B

Question 171

In the event of an exposure incident, the immediate supervisor shall forward the employee's memorandum to who?

Answer 171

1. The respective division commander 2. The Occupational Health Nurse CP-6 Section 14.B

Question 172

What needs to be included in the memorandum of an exposure incident?

Answer 172

1. Date, time, and location of the incident 2. Type of incident/crime under investigation 3. Specific nature of the exposure incident 4. Name and serial number of the exposed employee 5. Name, date of birth, and address/location of the source individual 6. Names, serial numbers, and assignments of Office employees present during the incident 7. Other relevant details CP-6 Section 14.B

Question 173

What other form does an employee need to complete in the event of an exposure incident?

Answer 173

Report of Significant Exposure to Bodily Fluids form CP-6 Section 14.B2

Question 174

How long after an exposure incident does the supervisor have to forward a memorandum to the OSD?

Answer 174

Within 24 hours of the incident CP-6

Question 175

The supervisor's memorandum detailing the exposure incident shall include what information?

Answer 175

1. Circumstances surrounding the incident - names, serial numbers, and assignments of employees present 2. PPE the employee was wearing or the reason PPE was not worn 3. Engineering controls in place at the time of incident 4. Work practices in place at the time of incident 5. Whether or not the incident could have been avoided 6. Recommended changes to avoid similar incidents CP-6 Section 14.B4

Question 176

Source testing can only be performed with what?

Answer 176

1. Consent of the person to be tested 2. Issuance of a court order CP-6 Section 15

Question 177

Who can make a request for source testing in the event of an exposure incident?

Answer 177

Only the employee CP-6 Section 15

Question 178

Who may authorize the use of safe bed intervention?

Answer 178

1. Detention commander 2. CHS staff DS-2 Section 3

Question 179

The OSD has what responsibilities? (4)

Answer 179

1. Tracking all verified exposures incidents 2. Processing source-testing requests 3. Ensuring that all employees who enter job classifications or work assignments are offered HBV vaccinations 4. Maintaining a sharps injury log  CP-6 Section 16

Question 180

What does OSD stand for?

Answer 180

Occupational Safety Division CP-6 Section 15.A

Question 181

What is CP-7?

Answer 181

Airborne Pathogens Critical Policy CP-7

Question 182

What is the purpose of CP-7 Airborne Pathogens?

Answer 182

To establish guidelines and procedures which; when properly implemented, may safeguard Office employees from airborne pathogens. CP-7

Question 183

Airborne Disease:

Answer 183

An illness that is spread when droplets of pathogens are expelled into the air. CP-7

Question 184

Airborne Pathogens:

Answer 184

Microorganisms that may be present in the air and can cause diseases in exposed humans. CP-7

Question 185

Casually Transmitted:

Answer 185

Any illness capable of being spread from one person to another by merely being in close proximity to the infected individual, without requiring intimate contact. CP-7

Question 186

Engineering Control Systems:

Answer 186

Apparatuses and procedures that isolate, limit exposure, or remove airborne pathogens from the work place.  CP-7

Question 187

Mycobacterium Tuberculosis:

Answer 187

An airborne pathogen that can cause TB infection, which may lead to active TB disease. CP-7

Question 188

What causes TB Infection?

Answer 188

Mycobacterium Tuberculosis Bacterium CP-7

Question 189

What is the difference between TB Infection and Active TB?

Answer 189

Active TB: shows symptoms and is infectious to others TB Infection: no symptoms and not infectious to others CP-7

Question 190

What are some of the symptoms of Active TB?

Answer 190

1. Cough that lasts more than 3 weeks and produces sputum and blood 2. Chest pain 3. Fever, chills, and night sweats 4. Easily tired, loss of appetite, and weight loss CP-7

Question 191

What are 2 PPE that can be used in the event of airborne pathogens?

Answer 191

1. Respirators 2. One-way Airway CP-7 Section 1

Question 192

What is one of the most commonly used tests for determining TB infection?

Answer 192

Mantoux Tuberculin Skin Test (TST) CP-7 Section 3

Question 193

Who is responsible for providing baseline TB screening for all newly hired detention personnel and deputies?

Answer 193

Occupational Safety Division (OSD) CP-7 Section 3.A

Question 194

How often does OSD provide TB testing for Office personnel?

Answer 194

Annually CP-7 Section 3.B

Question 195

What is the alternative to taking the TB skin test?

Answer 195

Chest x-ray CP-7 Section 3.C

Question 196

What are some of the most common highly contagious diseases caused by airborne pathogens? (3)

Answer 196

1. Measles 2. Mumps 3. Chickenpox CP-7 Section 6

Question 197

What does a Blood Titer Test measure?

Answer 197

The amount of antibodies in blood which can determine a person's immunity to a given disease. CP-7 Section 7

Question 198

If an employee is sent to the contracted occupational health clinic for Blood Titer Testing, what form does the supervisor need to complete to process the exposure as an industrial illness?

Answer 198

Maricopa County Risk Management Online Claim Form CP-7 Section 7.B

Question 199

What are the employee's responsibilities when an occupational exposure to airborne pathogens occurs?

Answer 199

1. Notify the immediate supervisor, ASAP 2. Seek medical testing to determine exposure 3. Complete memo regarding the exposure CP-7 Section 8.B

Question 200

What are the supervisor's responsibilities when an occupational exposure to airborne pathogens occurs?

Answer 200

1. Complete memo 2. Complete the Maricopa County Risk Management Online Claim Form CP-7 Section 8.C

Question 201

In the event of an occupational exposure to airborne pathogens, when does a supervisor need to have their memo completed?

Answer 201

Within 24 hours of the exposure. CP-7 Section 8.C

Question 202

An occupational exposure shall not be reported as a work-related injury or illness, unless certain criteria exists or develops. What are those 4 criteria?

Answer 202

1. Loss of consciousness 2. Modification of an employee's job/restriction of work motion 3. Recommendation of medical treatment beyond first aid 4. Positive test for airborne disease infection CP-7 Section 8.E

Question 203

What is CP-8?

Answer 203

Preventing Racial and Other Bias-Based Profiling CP-8

Question 204

What is the purpose for CP-8?

Answer 204

To establish procedures to ensure deputies are fair and equitable in deciding whether or not to make contact with member of the public and take law enforcement actions. CP-8

Question 205

What shall not be motivating factors in any law enforcement action?

Answer 205

1. Race 2. Ethnic background 3. Gender 4. Sexual orientation 5. Religion 6. Economic status 7. Age 8. Cultural group 9. National origin CP-8

Question 206

What is: The selection of an individual for law enforcement contact or action based to any degree on an actual or perceived trait common to a group, except as part of a reliable and specific suspect description.

Answer 206

Bias-Based Profiling: CP-8

Question 207

Racial Profiling:

Answer 207

The reliance on race or ethnicity to any degree in making law enforcement decisions, except in connection with a reliable and specific suspect description. CP-8

Question 208

In reference to CP-8, inmate housing shall be based on what? (3-ASS)

Answer 208

Age, Sex, and Security Level. CP-8 Section 2

Question 209

According to CP-8, inmates in Office custody shall have equal access to all programs and services based on what criteria (4-SSNP)?

Answer 209

1. Space availability 2. Security level 3. Need 4. Program criteria CP-8 Section 2

Question 210

True or False? Supervisors shall unequivocally and consistently reinforce to subordinates that racial and bias-based profiling and/or discriminatory policing are unacceptable.

Answer 210

True. CP-8 Section 5.B

Question 211

What is CP-9?

Answer 211

Occupational Safety Program CP-9

Question 212

What is the purpose of CP-9?

Answer 212

To establish a comprehensive Occupational Safety Program which sets forth standards for occupational practices and defines the accountability of all personnel for its effectiveness. CP-9

Question 213

What is: A state entity which operates under the Federal Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) Act of 1970, and has jurisdiction over occupational safety and health issues within Arizona.

Answer 213

Arizona Division of Occupational Safety and Health (ADOSH): CP-9

Question 214

What is: Investigation of a potential safety problem, condition, accident, injury, or near miss in order to identify the *root cause* and to eliminate or minimize its effect in the future.

Answer 214

Incident Analysis CP-9

Question 215

What is: A federal agency which is responsible for establishing occupational safety and health standards, and ensuring that employees are in compliance with these standards.

Answer 215

Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA): CP-9

Question 216

What is: An environment where individuals have a shared set of beliefs, practices, and attitudes toward the importance of the welfare of all employees.

Answer 216

Safety Culture: CP-9

Question 217

Commander:

Answer 217

An employee with the rank of lieutenant or above, or its civilian equivalent. CP-9

Question 218

First-Line Supervisor:

Answer 218

An employee with the rank of sergeant, or its civilian equivalent. CP-9

Question 219

The Occupational Safety Program shall consist of what 5 elements?

Answer 219

1. Safety Planning and Goals 2. Safety Practices 3. Training 4. Safety Meetings 5. Resolution of Safety Concerns CP-9

Question 220

What does the Safety Committee assist with?

Answer 220

The development and implementation of the Occupational Safety Program. CP-9 Section 1.A

Question 221

How often may the OSD meet with division commanders to review safety goals?

Answer 221

Annually CP-9 Section 1.A

Question 222

Who shall maintain a written record of work area and equipment inspections?

Answer 222

Supervisors CP-9 Section 1.B

Question 223

According to the Occupational Safety Program, how often shall Supervisors conduct work area and equipment inspections?

Answer 223

Monthly CP-9 Section 1.B

Question 224

In accordance with the Occupational Safety Program, when shall employees conduct an inspection of their respective work areas and equipment?

Answer 224

At the beginning of each shift. CP-9 Section 1.B

Question 225

According to the Occupational Safety Program, how often shall Shift Commanders inspect work environment within their area of command?

Answer 225

At least on a quarterly basis. CP-9 Section 1.B

Question 226

How often shall Division Commanders inspect their areas of command, according to the Occupational Safety Program?

Answer 226

Semi-annually CP-9 Section 1.B

Question 227

What is CP-10?

Answer 227

Respirator Program CP-10

Question 228

What is the purpose of CP-10?

Answer 228

To establish guidelines for employees to prevent the inhalation of airborne pathogens or chemical, biological, radiological, nuclear, or explosive agents and to protect themselves from other inhaled hazards or contaminants in the workplace. CP-10

Question 229

What does NIOSH stand for?

Answer 229

National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health CP-10

Question 230

Chemical Agents:

Answer 230

Solid, liquid, or gaseous substances that produce an effect on a living organism by acting on the body tissue, or in an environment by interacting with air, water, and/or soil. CP-10

Question 231

What is: The use of a protocol to qualitatively or quantitatively evaluate the fit of a respirator on an individual.

Answer 231

Fit Test: CP-10

Question 232

Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus (SCBA):

Answer 232

An atmosphere-supplying respirator for which the breathing air source is designed to be carried by the user. CP-10

Question 233

What does SCBA stand for?

Answer 233

Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus CP-10

Question 234

What does CBRNE stand for?

Answer 234

Chemical, Biological, Radiological, Nuclear, or Explosive Agents CP-10

Question 235

Division commanders shall ensure that Fit Testing is completed at least ___________.

Answer 235

Annually CP-10 Section 3

Question 236

Employees below the rank of lieutenant are required to demonstrate proper use of the SCBA equipment every ______ days.

Answer 236

180 days CP-10 Section 8.A

Question 237

If an employee is unable or fails to demonstrate proficiency during Fit Testing, he shall be referred to the Fit Testing Coordinator for remedial testing within ______ days of the initial test.

Answer 237

14 days CP-10 Section 8.B

Question 238

What does WMD stand for?

Answer 238

Weapons of Mass Destruction CP-10

Question 239

How often shall SCBAs be inspected?

Answer 239

Monthly CP-10 Section 11.A

Question 240

Compressed breathing air shall meet at least the requirements for what grade of breathing air?

Answer 240

Grade D CP-10 Section 12

Question 241

Who shall conduct evaluations of the workplace to ensure that the provisions of the Respirator Program are being implemented and continue to be effective?

Answer 241

1. Program Administrator, or his designee 2. Fit Testing Coordinator CP-10 Section 13

Question 242

What is CP-11?

Answer 242

Anti-Retaliation CP-11

Question 243

What is the purpose of CP-11?

Answer 243

To ensure that members of the public and Office personnel do not experience retaliation for exercising their right to freedom of speech. CP-11

Question 244

What is the purpose of DA-1 Emergency Procedures for Jail Facilities?

Answer 244

To establish uniform procedures for the development, implementation, distribution, and review of emergency procedures for each jail facility. DA-1

Question 245

Who develops the emergency procedures to be included in the operations manual?

Answer 245

Jail Commander DA-1 Section 1

Question 246

List 8 emergencies that would be included in the emergency procedures.

Answer 246

1. Escapes 2. Fire  3. Facility power failure 4. Hostage situations 5. Medical disasters 6. Medical emergencies 7. Riots or inmate disturbances 8. Facility evacuation DA-1 Section 1

Question 247

Where will the emergency procedures be located in the jail facility?

Answer 247

In each control room. DA-1 Section 3

Question 248

What is the purpose of DA-2 Inspection and Testing of Emergency Equipment?

Answer 248

To establish procedures for the regular inspection and testing of emergency equipment. DA-2

Question 249

Who will inspect and test all emergency equipment?

Answer 249

Facility Maintenance Officer (FMO) DA-1 Section 1

Question 250

What does FMO stand for?

Answer 250

Facility Maintenance Officer DA-1

Question 251

Other than SCBAs, if repairs are required for emergency equipment who will the FMO contact?

Answer 251

County Facilities Management Department DA-1 Section 3

Question 252

When will employees visually check the pressure level of fire extinguishers, AEDs, and SCBAs located in their area of responsibility?

Answer 252

At the beginning of each shift. DA-1 Section 4

Question 253

The FMO shall perform a visual and physical inspection of all jail facility SCBAs how often?

Answer 253

Twice a year DA-1 Section 4.C

Question 254

How often will SCBAs be mechanically tested for air leaks, internal damages, or other substandard conditions?

Answer 254

Annually DA-2 Section 4.C

Question 255

How often will hydrostatic testing be conducted for SCBAs?

Answer 255

Every 5 years DA-1 Section 4.C

Question 256

What is the purpose of DA-4 Jail Maintenance?

Answer 256

To establish guidelines for the maintenance, inspection, and emergency repair or replacement of jail equipment or property. DA-4

Question 257

What does a supervisor need to do if an officer informs them of equipment in need of repair or replacement?

Answer 257

Forward a memo, e-mail, or telephonic message to the FMO. DA-4 Section 1

Question 258

Who do the FMOs report to?

Answer 258

Jail Commander DA-4 Section 3

Question 259

What is the purpose of DA-5 Inmate Suicide Prevention?

Answer 259

To provide a comprehensive set of suicide prevention measures and to assist employees in identifying and managing potentially suicidal inmates. DA-5

Question 260

Most suicides occur within the first _______ hours of incarceration.

Answer 260

48 hours DA-5 Section 3

Question 261

List 7 situational factors which may affect inmate suicides.

Answer 261

1. Minor or insignificant arrest history 2. Juvenile 3. Persons with high status in the community 4. Prior suicide by close family member or loved one 5. Previously imprisoned and facing new serious charges or a long prison term 6. Prior suicide attempt in a jail setting  7. Harsh, condemning, or rejecting attitudes of others DA-5 Section 3

Question 262

True or False? Isolation greatly increases the likelihood of suicide; therefore, a potentially suicidal inmate shall never be placed into isolation unless the inmate is constantly supervised.

Answer 262

True DA-5 Section 6

Question 263

An inmate on suicide watch shall be observed how often?

Answer 263

No less than every 15 minutes. DA-5 Section 7.C

Question 264

CHS staff may specify what conditions for a suicide watch inmate?

Answer 264

1. How often the inmate is observed 2. The amount and type of clothing or linens the inmate may have 3. The amount and type of personal property the inmate may have 4. Type of meals served 5. The inmate shall be provided an opportunity to drink water 6. The expected duration of the suicide watch DA-5 Section 7.C

Question 265

How often will a suicide watch inmate be given the opportunity to drink water?

Answer 265

At least every 2 hours. DA-5 Section 7.C

Question 266

When a suicide attempt has been identified, what shall take precedence over the preservation of a crime scene?

Answer 266

The preservation of the life of an inmate. DA-5 Section 10

Question 267

What is the purpose of DB-1 Inmate Custody Records and Files?

Answer 267

To establish a standardized system for the secure maintenance, transfer, and storage of inmate documents, records, and files. DB-1

Question 268

Commitment File:

Answer 268

The file containing the inmate's judicial records pertaining only to charges, holds, or sentencing info. DB-1

Question 269

Custody File:

Answer 269

The file containing the inmate's judicial and custodial records. The Custody File consists of two files, the Commitment and Jail Files. DB-1

Question 270

What 2 files does the Custody File consist of ?

Answer 270

1. Commitment File 2. Jail File DB-1

Question 271

Full Custody:

Answer 271

Continuous custody until the inmate is judicially released on all charges, holds, or sentences.  DB-1

Question 272

True or False? Inmates who have been temporarily released into the community and return; such as in the Work Furlough Program, or are serving a work release/weekender sentence are considered full-custody.

Answer 272

False. DB-1

Question 273

Jail File:

Answer 273

The file containing the inmate's custodial records pertaining only to jail-related information. DB-1

Question 274

When will the inmate's Custody File be separated into 2 files?

Answer 274

1. A newly booked inmate has completed the intake process 2. When an inmate's status changes to full custody DB-1 Section 2

Question 275

Where will the Commitment File be transferred to?

Answer 275

Sheriff's Information Management Services (SIMS) DB-1 Section 2

Question 276

Where will the Jail File be sent?

Answer 276

To the receiving jail facility. DB-1 Section 2

Question 277

Jail Files shall only be transferred to where?

Answer 277

1. Another jail facility when the inmate is reassigned for housing 2. SIMS, upon the inmate's release 3. Legal Liaison Section (LLS) upon an inmate's in-custody or imminent death DB-1 Section 4

Question 278

When will SIMS combine the Commitment File with the Jail File to reestablish the Custody File?

Answer 278

After release of the inmate. DB-1 Section 5

Question 279

Who will be responsible for ensuring that the Custody Files are maintained and secured after release?

Answer 279

Record warehouse personnel. DB-1 Section 6

Question 280

How long will Custody Files be held at the records warehouse after an inmate's release?

Answer 280

3 years DB-1 Section 6

Question 281

What is the purpose of DB-2 Operations Journal and Logbooks?

Answer 281

To establish guidelines for the use of the electronic Operations Journal (OJ) and Hardbound Logbooks. DB-2

Question 282

What does OJ stand for?

Answer 282

Operations Journal DB-2

Question 283

If OJ is down for less than ____ hours, all handwritten entries from the Hardbound Logbook shall be transferred into the OJ.

Answer 283

24 hours DB-2 Section 2.A

Question 284

What needs to be done if OJ is down for more than 24 hours?

Answer 284

An entry shall be made in OJ indicating the date and time it went down, and that all entries made during the outage can be found in the Hardbound Logbook. DB-2 Section 2.B

Question 285

In reference to the Hardbound Logbook, what entries are permitted in the left margin?

Answer 285

The date and time. DB-2 Section 3

Question 286

What is the purpose of DB-3 Security and Surveillance Systems?

Answer 286

To establish guidelines for the storage and dissemination of electronic storage media using detention security surveillance systems. DB-3

Question 287

What does CCTV stand for?

Answer 287

Closed circuit television DB-3

Question 288

In reference to Security Surveillance Systems, all media shall be maintained for a time frame that does not exceed the system storage capabilities. What does that generally equate to?

Answer 288

Approximately 60 days. DB-3 Section 1

Question 289

Requests from other law enforcement agencies, or the Maricopa County Attorney's Office to view security electronic storage media need to be referred to whom?

Answer 289

electronic storage media need to be referred to whom? Legal Liaison Section (LLS) DB-3 Section 2

Question 290

What is the purpose of DC-1 Inmate Canteen?

Answer 290

To establish guidelines for the efficient operation and management of the Inmate Canteen Section. DC-1

Question 291

What goes into the Special Services Fund?

Answer 291

All of Canteen's net profits. DC-1

Question 292

What is the Special Services Fund for?

Answer 292

To hold all of Canteen's net profits in trust for the education and welfare of inmates. DC-1

Question 293

What is the purpose for DC-2 Accountability of Monies & Negotiable Instruments?

Answer 293

Establishes guidelines for accepting, handling, safeguarding, and disbursing bond and fine monies and inmate funds. DC-2

Question 294

True or False? The Maricopa County Sheriff's Office accepts inmate account deposits of Cashier's Checks, US Postal Money Orders, and Western Union Money Orders.

Answer 294

False. The Office has TouchPay, a cashless money system.  DC-2

Question 295

What is the purpose of DC-3 Facility Safes?

Answer 295

To establish a system for controlling and recording access to facility safes. DC-3

Question 296

When accessing a facility safe, how many people need to be there?

Answer 296

Two, one of whom must be a supervisor. DC-3

Question 297

Inmate Funds/Canteen System (IF/CS):

Answer 297

A computer information system which links to the Jail Management System (JMS) and is used to record the transactions and maintain the balances of inmate fund accounts. DC-4

Question 298

What does IF/CS stand for?

Answer 298

Inmate Funds/Canteen System DC-4

Question 299

When may an inmate release money to someone not in custody?

Answer 299

Within the first 72 hours of incarceration. (does not include fine payments, posting bonds, canteen purchases etc.) DC-4

Question 300

A request to pay an inmate's own bond or fine shall be processed by who?

Answer 300

SIMS DC-4

Question 301

Indigent Inmate:

Answer 301

An inmate who has one dollar or less in his inmate funds account for at least seven consecutive days. DD-1

Question 302

Property Container:

Answer 302

An Office issued plastic bag or cardboard box for inmates to store their personal items. DD-1

Question 303

According to DD-1 Authorized Inmate Possessions, what will a property container include?

Answer 303

1. Bar of soap 2. Toothbrush 3. Tube of toothpaste 4. Comb 5. Pencil 6. Copy of the Rules and Regulations for Inmates DD-1

Question 304

What items are inmates allowed to posses?

Answer 304

1. One mattress 2. One sheet 3. One blanket 4. One pair of shoes 5. One pair of socks 6. One pair of underware 7. One pair of pants 8. One shirt 9. One towel 10. Thermal underware 11. Purchased canteen items 12. Religious materials and literature 13. Contact lenses 14. Prescription eyeglasses 15. Prostheses 16. Hearing aid 17. 3 books, 5 magazines, & not more than 2 daily newspapers 18. 5 photographs 19. Legal documents 20. 5 pencils 21. Medical care items 22. Medical alert bracelets/necklaces 23. One inmate identification card 24. One property container 25. Other hygiene items DD-1

Question 305

What items may be issued for medical reasons?

Answer 305

1. Extra clothing/bedding 2. Keep on person medication (KOP) DD-1

Question 306

What items are issued to Indigent inmates?

Answer 306

1. Up to 5 postcards/week 2. One pencil/week 3. One tube of toothpaste/week 4. One toothbrush DD-1

Question 307

Working inmates may possess what items while at their working assignments?

Answer 307

1. Comb 2. Eyeglasses DD-1

Question 308

What is DD-2?

Answer 308

Inmate Property Control DD-2

Question 309

What is the purpose of DD-2 Inmate Property Control?

Answer 309

To establish procedures for securing, storing, and releasing inmate personal property and clothing. DD-2

Question 310

How big is a personal property storage bag?

Answer 310

Approximately 12" x 12" DD-2

Question 311

How often will locker runs be conducted?

Answer 311

At least weekly. DD-2

Question 312

True or False? Inmate clothing may be released. False.

Answer 312

False. Inmate clothing shall not be released; it may only be exchanged. DD-2 Section 6

Question 313

True or False? | A search warrant or court order is required to release an inmate's property or clothing to a law enforcement agency.

Answer 313

False. An inmate's property or clothing may be seized by a law enforcement agency as evidence pertaining to a suspected crime without a search warrant or court order. DD-2

Question 314

Bond Surrender:

Answer 314

The delivery of a defendant who had been released on bail by a bond agent to the custody of the Office. DE-2

Question 315

Bond surrenders shall be accepted only on cases or charges within whose jurisdiction?

Answer 315

The Maricopa County judicial jurisdiction DE-2

Question 316

A sum of money paid by a bond agent to secure the release on an inmate who is awaiting trial, with the condition that he will appear in court on the date of trial.

Answer 316

Surety Appearance Bond DE-3

Question 317

Who is responsible for determining an inmate's custody level?

Answer 317

Classification Division DF-1

Question 318

What are the 3 security level designations?

Answer 318

1. Minimum 2. Medium 3. Maximum DF-1

Question 319

When will a pretrial inmate in closed custody or administrative segregation have his status reviewed by classification?

Answer 319

Every 7 days for the first two months; after that, every 30 days. DF-1

Question 320

Who may initiate the review of an inmate's classification?

Answer 320

1. Detention personnel 2. CHS personnel 3. The inmate 4. A third party DF-1

Question 321

How often will the Classification Division Commander review the classification process?

Answer 321

Annually. DF-1

Question 322

Who is allowed access to an inmate's Classification File?

Answer 322

1. The Sheriff 2. Detention personnel 3. Office personnel authorized by the Classification Section Commander DF-2

Question 323

How long does the Classification Section maintain and store Classification Files of released inmates?

Answer 323

2 months DF-2

Question 324

How long do the Classification Files of released inmates stay at the records warehouse?

Answer 324

3 years DF-2

Question 325

Sedentary:

Answer 325

A lifestyle that includes sitting or remaining inactive for most of the day with little or no exercise. DG-1

Question 326

The Food Services Section shall prepare two or more meals for each inmate during a ______ hour period.

Answer 326

24 hour DG-2

Question 327

The interval between evening and morning meals shall be no more than ____ hours.

Answer 327

14 hours DG-2 Section 1.A

Question 328

True or False? | Inmates refusing a modified diet meal will receive a regular meal as a replacement.

Answer 328

False. DG-2 Section 8

Question 329

How often will the food service areas be inspected?

Answer 329

Weekly DG-3 Section 1.A

Question 330

How often shall a physical count and inspection of all knives and utensils be conducted?

Answer 330

1. Every 3 hours 2. After any change in staff DG-4 Section 2.C

Question 331

List 8 main Medical Diets:

Answer 331

1. Clear Liquid 2. Diabetic 3. Jaw Fracture 4. Mechanical Soft 5. Post-Gastrectomy 6. Pregnancy 7. Renal 8. Low Body Mass Index (BMI) DG-7

Question 332

Request for medically necessary diet meals that are not listed in policy (EX: allergy diets, other special medical diets), shall be referred to who for authorization?

Answer 332

1. Dietitian 2. Medical provider DG-7 Section 4

Question 333

True or False? | Inmate refusing a modified diet will receive a regular diet as a replacement.

Answer 333

False. | Inmates refusing a modified diet will NOT receive a regular diet as a replacement.

Question 334

What does the the Correctional Health Services (CHS) Contractor Coordinator do?

Answer 334

A CHS employee responsible for working with the volunteer coordinator to ensure the contract employees working with CHS complete the badging process. DH-1

Question 335

Gate-Pass Personnel:

Answer 335

Non-employees who provide services in a jail on an irregular basis, for which the Office or any other agency does not compensate them. (must use Visitor Card Pass) DH-1

Question 336

Jail Access Identification (ID) Card:

Answer 336

Identification cards that are issued to contractors and volunteers. DH-1

Question 337

Who will be issued a blue Jail Access ID?

Answer 337

1. Religious personnel 2. Maricopa County Adult Probation DH-1

Question 338

Who will be issued a yellow Jail Access ID?

Answer 338

1. Volunteers 2. Contracted programs personnel DH-1

Question 339

Who will be issued a red Jail Access ID?

Answer 339

Contractors and volunteer personnel for CHS. DH-1

Question 340

Who will be issued a Visitor Pass Card (8)?

Answer 340

1. News media personnel 2. Officers of the court 3. Contractor vending company employees 4. Jail tour participants 6. Private physicians 7. Employees of other law enforcement/correctional agencies in civilian attire 8. Temporary medical personnel DH-1

Question 341

Who will be issued a Courtesy ID Card?

Answer 341

Contractors and vendors that work with the Information and Technology Bureau. DH-1

Question 342

True or False? | Former employees of the Office will be allowed to enter the jail facility.

Answer 342

False. DH-1

Question 343

List 4 reasons to revoke a Jail Access ID Card:

Answer 343

1. Failure to observe Office or jail facility rules/regulations 2. Failure to conduct job functions in a reasonable and professional manner 3. Actions or behaviors which threaten the safety or security of a jail facility 4. Serious violations of a local, state, or federal law DH-1

Question 344

Administrative Contraband:

Answer 344

Any item not specifically included in the definition of contraband in ARS 13-2501, which has nonetheless been prohibited by the Sheriff for possession by inmate. Includes money, jewelery, tobacco products, and fire-producing items. DH-3

Question 345

Criminal Contraband:

Answer 345

Any item specifically defined in ARS 13-2501, such as dangerous weapons or drugs. DH-3

Question 346

Gender Non-Conforming:

Answer 346

A person whose appearance or manner does not conform to traditional societal gender expectations. DH-3

Question 347

Intersex:

Answer 347

A person whose sexual or reproductive anatomy or chromosomal patter does not seem to fit typical definitions of male or female. DH-3

Question 348

Transgender:

Answer 348

A person whose gender identity, internal sense of feeling male or female, is different from the person's assigned sex at birth. DH-3

Question 349

True or False? | An inmate's legal and regular mail may be inspected in his absence, but not read.

Answer 349

True DH-3 Section 2

Question 350

Pat-down searches on male inmates may be conducted by who?

Answer 350

Male or female officers DH-3 Section 2

Question 351

Who will conduct invasive body cavity searches?

Answer 351

Qualified licensed medical professional not associated with the Office. DH-3 Section 6

Question 352

When an invasive body cavity search or x-ray examination is necessary, the jail commander will provide medical personnel with what?

Answer 352

1. Written request to perform the search 2. Search warrant, court order, or written consent from the inmate DH-3 Section 6

Question 353

A working inmate found with contraband may lose what?

Answer 353

His two for one. DH-3 Section 8

Question 354

What 4 duties does the Key Control Officer have?

Answer 354

1. Conduct a monthly jail key inventory 2. Report lost or damaged keys 3. Ensure that each locking device has a key that is readily available 4. Numbering and recording all keys DH-5 Section 1

Question 355

In the instance of a lost key, the shift supervisor is responsible for what?

Answer 355

1. Questioning personnel who were recently in possession of the lost key 2. Initiating a search of the areas in which the lost key was recently used 3. Forwarding recommendation that may help to prevent similar future occurrences. DH-5 Section 3

Question 356

All inmates in intake, transportation areas; and all unsentenced maximum and medium security or partially sentenced inmates, will be observed by an officer assigned to a housing unit or holding area at least once every ____ minutes.

Answer 356

30 minutes DH-6 Section 2

Question 357

All unsentenced minimum security inmates and all fully-sentenced inmates will be observed by an officer how often?

Answer 357

Once every hour. DH-6 Section 2

Question 358

When shall the first ID head count be conducted?

Answer 358

The first 30 minutes of shift. DH-6 Section 4

Question 359

What is the Emergency Response Cart ?

Answer 359

A device designed to store emergency response equipment for the ERT that is to be stored in a designated area as determind by the division commander. DH-8

Question 360

Who may activate ERT?

Answer 360

The Division Commanders or his designee DH-8 Section 1

Question 361

List 9 situations in which ERT may be activated:

Answer 361

1. Jail safety and security 2. Cell extractions 3. Special Response Team (SRT) assistance 4. Medical emergencies 5. Major and minor fires 6. Major power failures 7. Riots or multiple inmate disturbances 8. Escapes or attempted escapes 9. Hostage situations DH-8 Section 1

Question 362

ERT officers shall attend at least ___ hours of proficiency training annually.

Answer 362

8 hours DH-8 Section 3

Question 363

When activated, the ERT shall consist of no fewer than ____ trained detention officers and an ERT trained sergeant.

Answer 363

7 DH-8 Section 3

Question 364

List 9 pieces of equipment that the emergency response cart shall include:

Answer 364

List 9 pieces of equipment that the emergency response cart shall include: 1. Riot helmets w/face shields 2. Protective vests 3. Elbow/knee pads 4. Protective gloves 5. Slash resistant forearm sleeves 6. Spit masks 7. PPE 8. Paper/Jump suits 9. Video camera DH-8 Section 4

Question 365

What is a Custody Watch Commander ?

Answer 365

Normally, a detention lieutenant, assigned to the SRT with overall command of the Unit and its operations. DH-9

Question 366

SRT training in squad tactics shall be conducted at a minimum of ___ hours every month at the direction of the squad Team Leader (TL).

Answer 366

8 hours DH-9 Section 5

Question 367

All request to activate the SRT shall be made through who?

Answer 367

The Communications Division DH-9 Section 7

Question 368

List 7 situations in which the SRT may be activated:

Answer 368

1. Planned use of force 2. Cell extractions 3. Combative inmates 4. Group disturbances 5. Forced medication 6. Safe Cell/Safe Bed placements 7. High-Risk inmate transports DH-9 Section 7

Question 369

When a welfare check is requested and the officer requires no assistance, he shall respond with what?

Answer 369

His serial number ONLY. DH-10

Question 370

Recreation for unsentenced general population inmates shall be allowed at all jail facilities one hour per day, ____

Answer 370

4 days DI-1

Question 371

What does NOC stand for?

Answer 371

Nature of Charges DI-1 Section 2

Question 372

What does JCNF stand for?

Answer 372

Jail Commander Notification Form DI-3

Question 373

Placement into security restrictive housing may be made for up to ____ hours.

Answer 373

72 hours DI-3 Section 2.F

Question 374

Who will be responsible for reviewing an inmate's actions every 7 days when in security restrictive housing?

Answer 374

Jail commander or designee DI-3 Section 2.F

Question 375

When it is determined that an inmate is to serve 15 or more days in disciplinary housing, the Inmate Classification Division shall do what?

Answer 375

1. Review the inmate's file 2. Determine if the inmate shall be reclassified to a higher security level DI-3 Section 3.B

Question 376

How often does SMRC review the classification of inmates in administrative restrictive housing?

Answer 376

Every 30 days DI-3 Section 4

Question 377

What does SMRC stand for?

Answer 377

Special Management Review Committee DI-3

Question 378

How often do closed custody inmates have their classification reviewed by SMRC?

Answer 378

Every 30 days. DI-3 Section 5

Question 379

Habeas Corpus Petition:

Answer 379

An action filed by an inmate, which alleges that their detention is in violation of the Constitution of the United States of America. DI-5

Question 380

In Propria Persona (Pro Per):

Answer 380

A criminal pro per is an inmate, who has elected to represent himself in his criminal case, has been issued a valid court order or minute entry stating that he may proceed pro per, and has been assigned advisory counsel. DI-5

Question 381

Officers of the Court:

Answer 381

Professionals who are authorized to have privileged visits with inmates. DI-5

Question 382

Pro per inmates are authorized to possess up to ___ file boxes in their assigned cell.

Answer 382

3 file boxes DI-5

Question 383

Pro per inmates requesting non-privileged visits with other Office inmates, or with persons not in custody, will be required to submit the name, gender, race, and date of birth of each person on a request form, no fewer than ___ working days prior to the requested date of the interview.

Answer 383

3 working days DI-5 Section 4

Question 384

Pro per inmates requesting visits with an inmate incarcerated by another agency must do what?

Answer 384

Obtain a court order to have that inmate transported to an Office jail. DI-5 Section 4

Question 385

Pro per inmates are limited to how many visits in a seven day period for interviewing witnesses?

Answer 385

5 visits DI-5 Section 4

Question 386

When can an inmate's pro per status be suspended or dismissed, at the direction of the judge of record?

Answer 386

If that inmate is transferred to MHU for placement on a medically ordered suicide watch. DI-5 Section 6

Question 387

It is the policy of the Office to provide for effective communication with inmates and the public with limited English language proficiency, regarding detention-related Office business, and to be in compliance with what?

Answer 387

Title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 DI-6

Question 388

Who is responsible for assigning an LEP Manager to each facility?

Answer 388

The Limited English Proficiency Compliance Unit (LEPCU) DI-6 Section 9

Question 389

The LEP Manager shall be an active what?

Answer 389

FTO DI-6 Section 9

Question 390

How often shall the Custody Bureau Hearing Unit Commander or his designee review and/or update the Rules and Regulations?

Answer 390

Annually. DJ-1

Question 391

Full Restriction:

Answer 391

A sanction imposed by a hearing sergeant against an inmate for a violation of the Rules and Regulations for Inmates as part of the formal disciplinary procedure. DJ-2

Question 392

Who will review and/or update the inmate disciplinary procedure annually?

Answer 392

Custody Bureau Hearing Unit Commander or his designee DJ-2 Section 1

Question 393

A DAR shall be completed and issued to an inmate charged with a jail rule violation within ____ hours of the violation or knowledge that such a violation occurred.

Answer 393

72 hours DJ-2 Section 4

Question 394

In reference to a DAR, if a criminal act has occurred what is the shift supervisor responsible for doing?

Answer 394

1. Initiating the IR 2. Notifying Jail Crimes, as necessary 3. Attaching a copy of the IR to the DAR, and forwarding to BHU DJ-2 Section 4

Question 395

A shift supervisor shall review a DAR within ___ hours of receiving it from the reporting officer.

Answer 395

24 hours DJ-2 Section 4

Question 396

DARs shall require a disciplinary hearing to be conducted within ___ working days of the inmate's receipt of the DAR, unless the inmate waives his right to a hearing.

Answer 396

7 working days. DJ-2 Section 4

Question 397

An inmate may submit a Disciplinary Appeal Form within what time frame?

Answer 397

24 hours from the time he received his yellow copy of the DAR. DJ-2 Section 4

Question 398

In reference to an inmate's Disciplinary Appeal Form, how long does the jail commander or his designee have to make a decision?

Answer 398

5 working days DJ-2 Section 5

Question 399

Suspended Sanctions:

Answer 399

An administrative action used to record the disciplinary violation of a seriously mentally ill or mental health chronic care inmate who has been found guilty of committing a jail rule violation, for classification purposes, with in JMS. (Inmates placed on this status shall have no disciplinary restrictions imposed.) DJ-2

Question 400

External Grievance Appeal:

Answer 400

A process by which an inmate may submit a grievance for review to the External Referee, following a response to an Institutional Grievance Appeal that the inmate considers unsatisfactory. (The External Referee shall not be an Office employee.) DJ-3

Question 401

Institutional Grievance Appeal:

Answer 401

A process by which an inmate may submit a grievance for review to the jail facility commander, or in the case of a medical grievance, the appropriate clinic supervisor, following a response to a concern that the inmate considers unsatisfactory. DJ-3

Question 402

Inmates must submit an Inmate Grievance form to detention personnel within ____ hours of the event being grieved and must include a proposed resolution.

Answer 402

48 hours DJ-3 Section 2

Question 403

True or False? | The 48 hour time limit requirement is for all grievances.

Answer 403

False. All grievances other than those which allege excessive use of force or restraint, employee misconduct, or a violation of the PREA. DJ-3 Section 2

Question 404

Detention personnel (First Line Officers) shall attempt to resolve a grievance within how many hours?

Answer 404

72 hours DJ-3 Section 5

Question 405

The shift supervisor shall respond to the detention grievance within ____ working days.

Answer 405

7 working days DJ-3 Section 6

Question 406

Pod Restriction sanctions may be imposed for an initial period of how long?

Answer 406

7 days DJ-4 Section 3

Question 407

True or False? One inmate representing a pod may challenge the validity of the Pod Restriction by submitting an Inmate Institutional Disciplinary Appeal.

Answer 407

True. DJ-4 Section 5

Question 408

Who can approve a requests to Photograph an MCSO Inmate?

Answer 408

Jail commander or senior command officer present DJ-5

Question 409

Only those inmates who have been in Office custody over ___ days will be subject to random drug testing.

Answer 409

30 days DJ-6 Section 1

Question 410

If an inmate's initial urinalysis test is positive, the inmate may do what?

Answer 410

Request a 2nd test to confirm the positive result. DJ-6 Section 3

Question 411

An inmate's refusal to submit to drug testing or a positive drug test result will require what two things?

Answer 411

1. Inmate immediately placed into security segregation  2. DAR initiated recommending the max disciplinary sanction DJ-6 Section 3

Question 412

File Stop:

Answer 412

A step taken to flag an inmate's file that indicates additional action must be taken prior to the release of the inmate. (must be initiated prior to the completion of the release process) DJ-7

Question 413

Injunction Against Harassment:

Answer 413

A court order prohibiting a person from harassing another person.  DJ-7

Question 414

The Injunction Against Harassment consists of how many pages?

Answer 414

5 pages DJ-7

Question 415

What are the 5 pages of the Injunction Against Harassment?

Answer 415

1. Petition for Injunction Against Harassment (2 pgs) 2. Injunction Against Harassment (2pgs) 3. Certificate or Affidavit of Service (1 pg) DJ-7

Question 416

Order of Protection:

Answer 416

A court order issued to restrain a person from committing an act included, but not limited to, domestic violence. DJ-7

Question 417

The Order of Protection consists of how many pages?

Answer 417

5 pages DJ-7

Question 418

What are the 5 pages of the Order of Protection?

Answer 418

1. Petition for Order of Protection (2 pgs) 2. Order of Protection (2 pgs) 3. Certificate or Affidavit of Service (1 pg) DJ-7

Question 419

What other paperwork may be included with the Order of Protection papers (2)?

Answer 419

1. Defendant's Guide Sheet and a Brady Warning Document 2. Confidential Service Document/Form DJ-7

Question 420

Order of Protection or Injunction Against Harassment service that has been accepted for an inmate who is not immediately available to be served shall require what?

Answer 420

A file stop be entered into JMS. DJ-7 Section 1.B

Question 421

The detention staff who accepts an Order of Protection or Injunction Against Harassment, which is being served by one inmate on another inmate, shall ensure what 3 things?

Answer 421

1. Put keepaways on the 2 inmates 2. Make necessary housing changes 3. Notify classification for possible changes DJ-7 Section 1.C

Question 422

An Order of Protection or Injunction Against Harassment stays in effect for how long?

Answer 422

1 year DJ-7 Section 2

Question 423

The detention supervisor or his designee shall be responsible for ensuring that the inmate has been served the Order of Protection/Injunction Against Harassment within ____ hours of the time of acceptance.

Answer 423

2 hours DJ-7 Section 2.B

Question 424

What does OIC stand for?

Answer 424

Operations Information Center DJ-7

Question 425

The shift supervisor, or his designee, shall ensure that a copy of the Order, Petition, and Certificate/Affidavit of Service is faxed to whom?

Answer 425

1. Sheriff's Office Records 2. AFIS Division, OIC Section DJ-7 Section 4

Question 426

True or False? | The nutra-loaf is served twice daily with a beverage, food tray, and utensils.

Answer 426

False. The nutra-loaf is served twice daily WITHOUT a beverage, food tray, or utensils. DJ-8

Question 427

If an inmate is placed on nutra-loaf sanction, all property; excluding hygiene items and legal paperwork, shall be removed from the inmate for the first ____ hours.

Answer 427

48 hours DJ-8 Section 6.A

Question 428

If an inmate is placed on nutra-loaf sanction, all property; excluding hygiene items and legal paperwork, shall be removed from the inmate for the first ____ hours.

Answer 428

48 hours DJ-8 Section 6.A

Question 429

Inmates who use or attempt to use their property to harm others or as a barrier while on nutra-loaf sanction, may have their property removed for how long?

Answer 429

An additional 24 hours. DJ-8 Section 6.C

Question 430

After the initial 48 hours of a nutra-loaf sanction, the inmate will be given how much time for dayroom and shower access?

Answer 430

15 minute block DJ-8 Section 6.D

Question 431

True or False? After the initial 48 hours of a nutra-loaf sanction, the inmate shall receive one 15 minute block of time for dayroom and shower access on the seventh day and every seventh day after that for the duration of the sanction.

Answer 431

True. DJ-8 Section 6.D

Question 432

In reference to nutra-loaf sanctions, how often will the inmate get regular meals while on the sanction?

Answer 432

Every seventh day for a 24 hour period. DJ-8 Section 6.D

Question 433

An inmate who commits an offense may be sanctioned to the nutra-loaf for up to ___ days for each separate occurrence.

Answer 433

30 days DJ-8 Section 8.C

Question 434

What will be removed from inmate postcards by detention personnel?

Answer 434

All adhesive postage. DK-1

Question 435

What is the maximum allowable size of a postcard?

Answer 435

4.25" x 6" DK-1 Section 1.A

Question 436

How many photographs may an inmate receive by mail?

Answer 436

5 DK-1 Section 1.D

Question 437

What is the maximum size of a photograph an inmate is allowed to have?

Answer 437

4" x 6" DK-1 Section 1.D

Question 438

Branding:

Answer 438

An announcement at the beginning of a phone call indicating that the call will be monitored and recorded. DK-2

Question 439

Court of Record:

Answer 439

A court in which all proceedings are permanently recorded according to law. DK-2

Question 440

What does IPIN stand for?

Answer 440

Inmate Personal Identification Number DK-2

Question 441

What does ITS stand for?

Answer 441

Inmate Telephone System DK-2

Question 442

Jail Security Matter:

Answer 442

A subject or concern that may pose a serious threat to the safety or security of any person, place, or thing. DK-2

Question 443

What does TTY stand for?

Answer 443

Text Telephone Device DK-2 Section 4

Question 444

All video visits must be scheduled a minimum of ___ hours in advance by the person requesting the visit.

Answer 444

24 hours DK-3

Question 445

How often will working inmates receive a clean jail uniform shirt, pants, under garments, and socks?

Answer 445

Daily, upon completion of their shift. DL-1 Section 4.A

Question 446

How often will towels be exchanged?

Answer 446

At least 3 times/week. DL-1 Section 6.A

Question 447

How often will undershorts, bras, and panties be exchanged?

Answer 447

At least 2 times/week. DL-1 Section 6.B

Question 448

How often will socks be exchanged?

Answer 448

At least once per week. DL-1 Section 6.C

Question 449

How often will sheets, jail uniforms shirts, pants, and nightgowns be exchanged?

Answer 449

At least once a week. DL-1 Section 6.D

Question 450

How often will blankets be exchanged?

Answer 450

Monthly DL-1 Section 6.E

Question 451

Who can authorized extra laundry-issued items?

Answer 451

CHS DL-1 Section 7

Question 452

Control rooms shall be inspected by a supervisor how often?

Answer 452

Daily DL-2 Section 2

Question 453

Each jail commander, or his designee, should inspect the entire jail how often?

Answer 453

Monthly DL-2 Section 3

Question 454

When security override is extended past 72 hours, the inmate may receive one 15 minute shower every ____ hours thereafter.

Answer 454

72 hours DL-3 Section 2.F

Question 455

After each meal, inmates shall be allowed how long to clean their cells, bunks, and dayroom areas?

Answer 455

1 hour DL-3 Section 5.C

Question 456

Double-Time Credit (Two-For-One):

Answer 456

A method of release computation which results in an inmate receiving two days credit for each one day that he has participated in an approved work program. (ARS 31-144) DM-1

Question 457

Mosaic Program:

Answer 457

A six-week intensive treatment program for inmates with severe substance dependence disorders, moderate to severe mental health conditions, and inmates who have a moderate to high risk of recidivism. DM-1

Question 458

The Inmate Work Program is only available to who?

Answer 458

Fully-sentenced inmates DM-1 Section 2

Question 459

Reduction in privileges for non-working inmates include, but are not limited to what? (7)

Answer 459

1. Reduced/ Restricted Dayroom 2. One On-Site Regular Video Visit and one Remote Regular Video Visit withing a 7 day period 3. Shall not receive charge a-call access 4. One religious service during a 7 day period 5. Not allowed to order canteen 6. No access to TV 7. Not permitted to take part in any program DM-1 Section 2.A

Question 460

Any removal or prohibition of an inmate from the Inmate Work Program shall be documented with what forms?

Answer 460

1. DAR 2. JCN 3. Administrative No Work Report DM-1 Section 2.I

Question 461

Concurrent Sentence:

Answer 461

Refers to jail sentences that may be served at the same time with the longest period controlling DM-2

Question 462

Consecutive Sentence:

Answer 462

Refers to jail sentences that must be served one after the other rather than at the same time. DM-2

Question 463

Inmates who are identified by CHS as SMI, and inmate being released unescorted from a psychiatric unit, shall only be released between what times?

Answer 463

Between 0800-1700 hours DM-2 Section 6.B

Question 464

All un-escorted leaves by inmates into the community require what?

Answer 464

Court order DN-1

Question 465

True or False? Escorted leaves by inmates into the community may be granted by a jail commander with a court order. False.

Answer 465

False. Escorted leaves by inmates into the community may be granted by a jail commander with or without a court order. DN-1

Question 466

List 7 situations in which an inmate may be granted leave into the community:

Answer 466

1. Drug program interview 2. Viewing at a mortuary 3. Hospital visits w/a relative 4. Medical, dental, psych appointments w/a private health care provider 5. Reading of wills 6. Polygraph examination 7. Official law enforcement business DN-1 Section 2

Question 467

If an un-escorted inmate does not return within ___ hours of the time specified by the court, the incident will be considered an unauthorized absence.

Answer 467

6 hours DN-1 Section 6

Question 468

Adjudication:

Answer 468

The process of judicially deciding a case DN-2

Question 469

What are the 3 ways an inmate may be selected for the Work Furlough Program?

Answer 469

1. A judge orders the inmate to participate in Work Furlough 2. A judge orders MCAPD to screen the inmate for eligibility in the Work Furlough Program 3. MCAPD chooses to screen an inmate for eligibility in the Work Furlough Program DN-2 Section 2

Question 470

What criteria must an inmate meet to enter or remain in the Work Furlough Program?

Answer 470

1. Must be classified Minimum or Medium security 2. Must not require special housing accommodations (NOC or AD Rest) DN-2 Section 3

Question 471

In reference to work release, an inmate who has not arrived within ___ hours after his scheduled arrival time will be listed as a "no-show".

Answer 471

6 hours DN-3 Section 2.B

Question 472

What is: The transfer an inmate into the custody of an out-of-county agency, awaiting return to MCSO custody.

Answer 472

Inactive Release: DN-6

Question 473

What is: A court's written order, in the name of a state or other competent legal authority, commanding the addressee to do or refrain from some specified act.

Answer 473

Writ DN-6

Question 474

Hobbling (Hogtying/Suitcasing):

Answer 474

Restraint of a combative person by binding hands to ankles behind the back. (Prohibited for all Office personnel) DO-1

Question 475

When do inmates need to be released once notification has been given that the release process has been initiated?

Answer 475

Immediately. DO-2 Section 5 Brf. 1738

Question 476

How many photos will be taken of an inmate upon entry into the booking area?

Answer 476

2 DO-3 Section 2

Question 477

To ensure a positive identification, every effort shall be made to make certain that fingerprints are obtained from each inmate within ___ hours of acceptance into Office custody.

Answer 477

24 hour DO-3 Section 3

Question 478

ID personnel shall make every effort to ensure that all persons in custody have legible fingerprints taken and forwarded to the Department of Public Safety (DPS) within how long?

Answer 478

10 days DO-3 Section 3.A

Question 479

(Intake) If an inmate refuses to complete the identification process, what does the shift supervisor need to do?

Answer 479

Submit an Order for Obtaining Evidence to the Initial Appearance (IA) Judge. DO-3 Section 4

Question 480

What shall not be used to obtain identification data?

Answer 480

Physical force DO-3 Section 4.A

Question 481

If the court order or contempt charge for an inmate refusing to complete the identification process is denied by the IA Judge, what will be done?

Answer 481

1. Notation will be made in JMS 2. Inmate will be released DO-3 Section 4.C

Question 482

What is: A booking which results when a person appears for fingerprinting and photographing at the Criminal Records Section by order of either a justice court or superior court.

Answer 482

Summons Booking DO-5

Question 483

What is a Buccal DNA Collector:

Answer 483

A plastic device used to gather cheek cells from the inside of the mouth. DO-6

Question 484

Inmates who are serving an order of confinement within an Office jail on any felony offense (ARS 13-610) shall be required to submit to DNA testing for law enforcement identification purposes. When will the testing be done?

Answer 484

Within 30 days of an inmate being sentenced. DO-6

Question 485

What 5 things need to appear on a self-surrender's Confinement Order?

Answer 485

1. Self-surrender's first and last name 2. At least one numerical identifier (ex: social security # or DOB) 3. Date and time the person is to surrender and the sentence imposed by the court 4. ARS or the charge being booked 5. Case # or complaint # from the court DO-7 Section 1

Question 486

When will a self surrender be considered a "no-show"?

Answer 486

If they present themselves more than 6 hours after the date and time specified in the Confinement Order. DO-7 Section 1.F

Question 487

What is the ALPHA Program:

Answer 487

A residential substance abuse counseling treatment program provided by, or through, the Office for the benefit of eligible inmate. DP-1

Question 488

What does CSD stand for?

Answer 488

Custody Support Division DP-1

Question 489

What does MASH stand for?

Answer 489

Maricopa County Sheriff's Office Animal Safe Haven DP-1 Section 2

Question 490

What does TJC stand for?

Answer 490

Transition from Jail to Community DP-1 Section 2

Question 491

List 7 types of Inmate Programs that are offered:

Answer 491

1. Educational programs 2. Social service programs 3. Vocational counseling and training 4. Recovery support programs 5. ALPHA Program (substance abuse programs) 6. Maricopa County Sheriff's Office Animal Safe Haven (MASH) 7. Transition from Jail to Community (TJC) DP-1 Section 2

Question 492

Religious activities shall not be permitted to exceed how long?

Answer 492

60 minutes DP-1 Section 5.C

Question 493

How often will the Inmate Library deliver books, magazines, and requested materials?

Answer 493

Monthly DP-3 Section 5

Question 494

When will the materials received from the Inmate Library be delivered to the inmates?

Answer 494

Within 24 hours. DP-3 Section 5

Question 495

What is a Officiant:

Answer 495

A person who officiates at a religious ceremony. DP-4

Question 496

What is the criteria for an inmate requesting to be married?

Answer 496

1. No major disciplinary charges pending 2. Must not be confined in disciplinary/security segregation unit 3. Is eligible to receive visitors 4. Is not being held under the jurisdiction of a Federal or State correctional agency 5. Is not a Fugitive from Justice 6. Is 18 or older DP-4

Question 497

An inmate requesting permission to get married, needs to submit the request how long before the marriage?

Answer 497

At least 60 days in advance. DP-4

Question 498

True or False? | With approval of the Sheriff; or his designee, ex-offenders may be used as volunteers.

Answer 498

True DP-5 Section 3

Question 499

In reference to volunteers, if an ex-offender served an order of confinement as the result of a misdemeanor conviction how long must he wait to volunteer with the Office?

Answer 499

12 months DP-5 Section 3

Question 500

In reference to volunteers, if an ex-offender served an order of confinement as the result of a felony conviction how long must he wait to volunteer with the Office?

Answer 500

36 months DP-5 Section 3

Question 501

Inmates eligible to receive assistance from ILS who have less than 5 dollars in their Inmate Fund Account may request free writing materials how often?

Answer 501

Bi-weekly (Every Two Weeks) DP-6 Section 7

Question 502

What materials may an indigent pro per inmate receive from ILS? (5)

Answer 502

1. One large manila envelope 2. Two unstamped, business-sized envelopes 3. Five sheets of paper 4. Two small pencils 5. One eraser DP-6 Section 7

Question 503

Inmates that are prescribed psychotropic medications should not be housed in areas that reach temperatures of what?

Answer 503

85 degrees DQ-3 Section 7

Question 504

What is: A condition or factor that serves as a reason to withhold a certain medical treatment.

Answer 504

Contraindication: DS-1

Question 505

CHS safe cell placement orders are written for ___ hour intervals.

Answer 505

6-hour DS-1 Section 2

Question 506

How many detention personnel need to be present when placing an inmate into a safe cell?

Answer 506

No fewer than 6 and a supervisor DS-1 Section 2.C

Question 507

Who may authorize the use of safe bed intervention?

Answer 507

Detention commander DS-2 Section 3

Question 508

How many detention personnel need to be present when placing an inmate into a safe bed?

Answer 508

No fewer than 5 and a supervisor DS-1 Section 3

Question 509

According to the National Commission on Correctional Health Care (NCCHC), safe bed intervention is to be implemented for how long?

Answer 509

implemented for how long? The shortest time possible. DS-1 Section 4

Question 510

An inmate that has been placed on a safe bed shall be offered a restroom break how often?

Answer 510

Every 2 hours DS-1 Section 8

Question 511

How often will an inmate on safe bed placement be offered a range-of-motion?

Answer 511

Every 2 hours DS-1 Section 9

Question 512

How often will the Critical Policies be reviewed?

Answer 512

Annually GA-1 Section 6

Question 513

How often will all policies; excluding the Critical Policies, be reviewed?

Answer 513

Within 10 years of publication GA-1 Section 6.B

Question 514

How long do employees have to receive, read, and understand their responsibilities in accordance with policy?

Answer 514

Within 50 days of the policy being distributed on TheHUB. GA-1 Section 8

Question 515

What is: Having equal or overlapping jurisdiction or authority.

Answer 515

Concurrent Jurisdiction GB-1

Question 516

Legal Definition of American Indian?

Answer 516

A person who is registered member of a federally recognized tribe. GB-1

Question 517

Who enforces federal firearms regulations?

Answer 517

The Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms, and Explosives (ATF) GB-1 Section 5.B

Question 518

Bureau of Internal Oversight (BIO) Action Form:

Answer 518

A form that captures command's response when the Audits and Inspections Unit (AIU) has identified perceived deficiencies during the performance of non-audit services, regardless of whether the deficiency is within the scope of the inspection, or outside the scope. GB-2

Question 519

Boilerplate:

Answer 519

Language that is stock, unoriginal, appears repeatedly in different reports, and fails to attest to the unique facts of an incident. GB-2

Question 520

Threshold:

Answer 520

The point at which a sufficient number of incidents have occurred to alert the EIU of conduct or performance that could become problematic for an employee or require a review of an Office operating procedure. GB-2

Question 521

What are the 5 categories of alerts that supervisors receive in the case of an employee meeting or exceeding an established threshold in the EIS?

Answer 521

1. Allegation Alert 2. Incident Type Alert 3. Monitored Status Alert 4. Overall Alert 5. Supervisory Alert GB-2 Section 12

Question 522

The range and scope of the Sheriff's authority, mandated duties, and responsibilities are set forth in what ARS code?

Answer 522

ARS 11-441 GB-2 Section 1.A

Question 523

Who is responsible for the day-to-day functions of budgeting, control of expenditures, and accounting for financial resources?

Answer 523

Business Operations Command GB-4

Question 524

Americans With Disabilities Act (ADA) and Americans With Disabilities Act Amendments Act (ADAAA):

Answer 524

Federal law that protects individuals with disabilities recognized under the ADA and ADAAA who are able to perform the essential functions of their position with or without reasonable accommodation. GC-1

Question 525

What does ADP stand for?

Answer 525

Automatic Data Processing GC-1

Question 526

Certification of Health Car Provider (CHCP):

Answer 526

A U.S. Department of Labor form used when an employee seeks a leave of absence under the Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA). GC-1

Question 527

Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA):

Answer 527

The federal law conferring job-protected unpaid leave for eligible employees for a qualifying purpose. GC-1

Question 528

What is a Fitness for Duty Examination:

Answer 528

Sworn and detention personnel may be ordered to submit to a Fitness for Duty Examination in accordance with ARS Title 38, Chapter 8, Article 1, if warranted by the employee's conduct. GC-1

Question 529

FMLA-Qualifying Event:

Answer 529

An event that qualifies under the FMLA, permitting an employee to take a job-protected leave of absence. GC-1

Question 530

Leave Management Section (LMS):

Answer 530

Human Resources Services Division staff assigned to oversee issues relating to industrial injuries, ADA and FMLA compliance, modified duty, and military leave. GC-1

Question 531

Rolling 12 Month Period:

Answer 531

A period of time used to determine FMLA leave entitlement. GC-1

Question 532

What does TOR stand for?

Answer 532

Time Off Request GC-1

Question 533

What is: An action requiring significant difficulty or expense on the part of the Office.

Answer 533

Undue Hardship GC-1

Question 534

A federal statute that protects service What Protects a members' and veterans' civilian employment rights, and protects service members from discrimination in the workplace based on their military service or affiliation.

Answer 534

Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Rights Act of 1994 (USERRA): GC-1

Question 535

What does USERRA stand for?

Answer 535

Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Rights Act of 1994 GC-1

Question 536

List 11 paid leaves and/or absences:

Answer 536

1. Bereavement Leave 2. Civic Duty Leave 3. Jury Duty Leave 4. Witness Leave 5. Crime Victim Leave 6. Military Leave 7. Administrative Leave With Pay 8. Floating Personal Day 9. Vacation Leave 10. Sick Leave 11. Holiday Leave GC-1

Question 537

How many paid leaves and/or absences are there?

Answer 537

11 GC-1

Question 538

Bereavement Leave:

Answer 538

Classified, unclassified, or contract employees may use paid Bereavement Leave for each occurrence of the death of a family member. GC-1 Section 1.A

Question 539

Who is not eligible for Bereavement Leave?

Answer 539

Temporary employees GC-1 Section 1.A

Question 540

For each occurrence of death of a family member, eligible employees may receive paid Bereavement Leave of up to ____ working hours.

Answer 540

24 hours GC-1 Section 1.A

Question 541

Who is not eligible for Civic Duty Leave?

Answer 541

Contract and temporary employees GC-1 Section 1.B

Question 542

What code will a supervisor enter into ADP for the amount of hours actually on jury duty?

Answer 542

JDP GC-1 Section 1.C

Question 543

Classified employees may carry over a maximum of _____ hours of Vacation time from one calendar year to the next.

Answer 543

240 hours GC-1 Section 1.I

Question 544

List 10 legal holidays that are observed with pay:

Answer 544

1. New Year's Day 2. Martin Luther King Jr./Civil Rights Day 3. Presidents' Day 4. Memorial Day 5. Independence Day 6. Labor Day 7. Veterans Day 8. Thanksgiving Day 9. the Friday after the fourth Thursday in November 10. Christmas Day GC-1 Section 1.K

Question 545

FMLA job-protected leave due to an FMLA-qualified event is limite to what?

Answer 545

12 weeks in a consecutive 12 month period. GC-1 Section 2

Question 546

When a husband and wife are both employed by Maricopa County, how much FMLA are they allowed to take for the birth or placement of a child?

Answer 546

Each eligible employee may take up to 12 weeks GC-1 Section 2.B

Question 547

Depending on the circumstances and duration of FMLA leave, the Leave Management Section (LMS) may require employees to provide re-certification of medical conditions no more than every ___ days.

Answer 547

30 days GC-1 Section 2.F

Question 548

The Leave Management Section (LMS) shall notify the employee if re-certification of FMLA is required and shall give employees how long to provide medical re-certification?

Answer 548

15 days GC-1 Section 2.F

Question 549

List 3 unpaid leaves of absence:

Answer 549

1. Leave without Pay (LWO) 2. Sick Without Pay (SWO) 3. Furlough Day Off (FDO) GC-1 Section 3

Question 550

What does UA stand for?

Answer 550

Unscheduled absence GC-1

Question 551

How long is the waiting period before Workers' Compensation Benefits Lost Wage Payment begin?

Answer 551

7 calendar days GC-1 Section 3.B

Question 552

What is SVP?

Answer 552

Sick Using Vacation Pay GC-1

Question 553

In reference to ADP pay codes, what is SWO?

Answer 553

Sick Without Pay GC-1

Question 554

The SVP and SWO pay codes cannot be used to give an employee more than ____ hours per week.

Answer 554

40 hours GC-1

Question 555

Who is responsible for the management and control of Office issued badges?

Answer 555

1. Human Resource Services Division 2. Posse Operations Section of Enforcement Support Division 3. Command Staff GC-2 Brf. 1820

Question 556

Reemployment:

Answer 556

The return, within one year from the date of separation, of a former employee of the Office who is separated due to reduction in force (RIF). GC-3

Question 557

Assignments shall be made to do what?

Answer 557

Balance experienced personnel on all shifts. GC-3

Question 558

Seniority among supervisors is based on what?

Answer 558

Date of rank. GC-3

Question 559

Rating Period:

Answer 559

The timeframe that may be considered as the scope of the employee's EPA, whether probationary, annual, or special. GC-4

Question 560

When will EPA forms be distributed electronically to bureaus?

Answer 560

60 days prior to the date due. GC-4 Section 4

Question 561

What are the 8 performance dimensions of an EPA? (P/P/J/Q/T/L/T/S)

Answer 561

1. Adherence to Policy and Procedures 2. Workplace Professionalism 3. Performance of Essential Job Duties 4. Quality of work 5. Mandatory Training Completed 6. Leadership 7. Transfer Evaluation 8. Quality of Supervisory Review/Supervisory Accountability GC-4 Section 7

Question 562

For detention officers holding the rank of sergeant or below, what is the required training?

Answer 562

A minimum of 40 hours of approved training GC-4 Section 7.E

Question 563

For detention officers holding the rank of lieutenant, what is the amount of training hours required?

Answer 563

A minimum of 24 hours of approved training. GC-4 Section 7.E

Question 564

When must a written request for an Administrative Review of an EPA be submitted by the employee?

Answer 564

Within 7 calendar days of the presentation of the EPA. GC-4 Section 10.A

Question 565

In reference to an Administrative Review of an EPA, when will a conference between the employee and the rating supervisor occur?

Answer 565

Within 10 calendar days of receipt of the request for review. GC-4 Section 10.B

Question 566

True or false? | EPA Reviews by the Sheriff, or his designee, shall be limited to the 10 calendar day limit for response.

Answer 566

False. EPA Reviews by the Sheriff, or his designee, shall NOT be limited to the 10 calendar day limit for response. GC-4 Section 10.D

Question 567

True or False? | An EPA shall not be held for an employee who is the principal of an open misconduct investigation.

Answer 567

True. GC-4 Section 13

Question 568

The completed sheets, rosters, or logbooks used to record detention assignments shall be maintained within the division for how long?

Answer 568

36 months GC-5 Section 4

Question 569

What is: The budgetary result when employees are paid from a fund that they are not assigned to work in.

Answer 569

Cross-funding GC-7

Question 570

What is contained in the Personnel File? (4-E/C/D/P)

Answer 570

1. EPAs 2. Commendations/Awards 3. Disciplinary Actions 4. Promotion/Demotion GC-9 Section 2

Question 571

Who may be granted access to a Personnel File? (4-C/S/P/A)

Answer 571

1. Employee's Division Commander 2. Employee's Immediate Supervisor 3. Personnel of PSB 4. Personnel of Maricopa County Attorney's Civil Division GC-9 Section 3

Question 572

Outside of Pre-Employment personnel, who may remove Background Files from the Pre-Employment Services Division? (4-S/B/C/P)

Answer 572

1. The Sheriff or Designee 2. A Bureau Commander 3. The Compliance Division 4. The PSB GC-9 Section 9

Question 573

List 4 minor awards: (4)

Answer 573

1. Memorandum of Commendation 2. Letter of Commendation 3. Sheriff's Commendation 4. Employee of the Quarter GC-14 Section 3.A

Question 574

List 9 higher awards:

Answer 574

1. Military Service 2. Awards for Bravery 3. Purple Heart 4. Life Saving Medal 5. Exceptional Performance Awards 6. Employee of the Year 7. Supervisor of the Year 8. Meritorious Unit Citation 9. Service Awards GC-14 Section 3.B

Question 575

Employees should discuss grievable matters with their immediate supervisor within ___ calendar days of the event, or the employee's first knowledge of the event.

Answer 575

20 calendar days GC-16 Section 3

Question 576

In reference to employee grievances, the employee shall allow the supervisor how long to attempt to resolve the concern?

Answer 576

10 business days GC-16 Section 3

Question 577

What is: Any fact or circumstance that increases the severity or culpability of an act.

Answer 577

Aggravating Factor GC-17

Question 578

What is: Any information or evidence presented regarding the employee or the circumstances of the incident that might result in reduced discipline.

Answer 578

Mitigating Factor GC-17

Question 579

What is: A forum that allows an employee, regardless of employment status, who is being considered for serious discipline, to address the appointing authority regarding the intended discipline.

Answer 579

Pre-Determination Hearing (PDH): GC-17

Question 580

What is: Facts alleged are more likely true than not true.

Answer 580

Preponderance of the Evidence GC-17

Question 581

What are the dimensions of the nameplate?

Answer 581

3/8-inch wide and 2 1/4-inches long  GC-20 Section 4.A

Question 582

What is the nameplate made of?

Answer 582

Gold plated or solid brass metal. GC-20 Section 4.A

Question 583

What are the dimensions of sergeant chevrons?

Answer 583

3-inches wide by 2 1/2-inches high GC-20 Section 6.B

Question 584

All pins shall be worn ____-inch above the nameplate and centered above the pocket.

Answer 584

1/2 inch GC-20 Section 7.C

Question 585

List 5 positions within CISM:

Answer 585

1. CISM Administrator 2. CISM Team Coordinators 3. CISM Team Leaders 4. CISM Team Members 5. CISM Mental Health Professional GC-22 Section 2

Question 586

Supervisors shall request that the CISM Team be activated in what situations?

Answer 586

1. Officer-involved shooting 2. Line-of-duty death 3. Serious line-of-duty injury 4. Prolonged or violent tactical operation 5. Critical incident scene GC-22 Section 3

Question 587

The use of tobacco products in any form shall only be used in exempt outdoor areas that are at least ____ feet from any door, windows capable of being opened, and ventilation systems.

Answer 587

20 feet GD-4

Question 588

All inquiries from national or international media agencies shall be referred initially to who?

Answer 588

Public Information Officer (PIO) GD-7

Question 589

What is: A written directive prepared by the Maricopa County Attorney's Office or any other party that requests preservation of relevant records, documents, and ESI in anticipation of future litigation against the Office.

Answer 589

Litigation Hold Notice GD-9

Question 590

What is: A formal document used to put the Office on notice of possible litigation or other written demand issued by a court.

Answer 590

Litigation Initiation Notice GD-9

Question 591

List 5 Office Fund Accounts:

Answer 591

1. Sheriff's Contingent Fund 2. Sheriff's Inmate Trust Fund 3. Petty Cash Fund 4. 3511 Impound Unit (Towing Fund) 5. Change Fund GD-12 Section 2

Question 592

What is the Sheriff's Contingent Fund used for?

Answer 592

For use in making advances for investigative trips and undercover operations. GD-12 Section 2

Question 593

What is the Sheriff's Inmate Trust Fund used for?

Answer 593

Holds all the monies belonging to inmates held in the jail system. GD-12 Section 2

Question 594

What is the Petty Cash Fund used for?

Answer 594

For incidental purchases made by Office personnel when modest cost makes it impractical to obtain a purchase order. (limited to $100 for any single transaction) GD-12 Section 2

Question 595

What is the 3511 Impound Unit (Towing Fund) used for?

Answer 595

Holds all administrative fees collected by the Office as a result of impoundment of vehicles. (ARS 28-3511) GD-12 Section 2

Question 596

What is the Change Fund used for?

Answer 596

Holds monies that are used to issue change back to customers when they pay cash for a service. (Judicial Enforcement Division and the Records and Identification Division) GD-12 Section 2

Question 597

Who will develop and implement a written emergency evacuation plan?

Answer 597

The commander of each Office facility and substation GD-15

Question 598

What 6 things will each emergency evacuation plan include?

Answer 598

1. Rank and position of the person by whose authority an evacuation shall be conducted 2. Chain of command to be followed during an evacuation 3. Rank and position of the person responsible for making appropriate notifications 4. Evacuation routes and locations 5. Priority list of material items to be evacuated (door cards, files, money) 6. Floor plans with evacuation routes GD-15 Section 2

Question 599

Emergency evacuation plans shall be reviewed how often?

Answer 599

Annually GD-15 Section 3

Question 600

Upon an employee's written request, the immediate supervisor may place the employee in modified duty status for how long?

Answer 600

7 cumulative calendar days. GD-16 Section 3.A

Question 601

An employee who requires an excess of 7 calendar days of modified duty must submit a request to whom?

Answer 601

Division commander GD-16 Section 3.A

Question 602

How long may the division commander place or retain an employee in modified duty status?

Answer 602

30 cumulative calendar days. GD-16 Section 3.B

Question 603

An employee who requires an excess of 30 calendar days of modified duty must submit a request to whom?

Answer 603

Bureau commander GD-16 Section 3

Question 604

What does TDD stand for?

Answer 604

Telephone Device for the Deaf GD-18 Section 2

Question 605

What does and employee/volunteer with an Industrial Injury need to complete?

Answer 605

Industrial Injury/Significant Exposure Memorandum GD-19

Question 606

When an Industrial Injury occurs, the supervisor will email what documents to the Occupational Safety Division? (3)

Answer 606

1. Industrial Injury/Significant Exposure Memorandum 2. Report of Significant Exposure to Bodily Fluids (if applicable) 3. Paperwork from medical provider regarding employee's/volunteer's work status GD-19 Section 1.B

Question 607

How long will safekeeping property be maintained in the Property Management Division?

Answer 607

30 days GE-3 Section 22

Question 608

What is: Language that is an inference, which has no proof.

Answer 608

Conclusory: GF-5

Question 609

What does CAD stand for?

Answer 609

Computer Aided Dispatch GF-5

Question 610

What are the 3 components of an IR?

Answer 610

1. Face sheet 2. Narrative 3. Supplement GF-5

Question 611

How many systems are in the Criminal Information Network?

Answer 611

13  GF-1

Question 612

What are the 13 systems in the Criminal Information Network?

Answer 612

1. Criminal Justice Information Services (CJIS) 2. The National Crime Information Center (NCIC) 3. National Law Enforcement Telecommunications System (NLETS) 4. Arizona Law Enforcement Telecommunications System (ALETS) 5. Arizona Crime Information Center (ACIC) 6. Arizona Computerized Criminal History File (ACCH) 7. Offender Based State Correctional Information System (OBSCIS) 8. Sex Offender Registration and Notification File (SORN) 9. Offender Based Tracking System (OBTS) 10. Motor Vehicle Division of the AZ Department of Transportation 11. Juvenile Online Tracking System (JOLTS) 12. The Justice Web Interface (JWI) 13. IBM What does ACIC stand for? Arizona Crime Information Center GF-1 Section 1.E i2 COPLINK GF-1 Section 1

Question 613

What does ACIC stand for?

Answer 613

Arizona Crime Information Center GF-1 Section 1.E

Question 614

What does NCIC stand for?

Answer 614

National Crime Information Center GF-1 Section 1.B

Question 615

What does CJIS stand for?

Answer 615

Criminal Justice Information System GF-1 Section 1.A

Question 616

What does ACJIS stand for?

Answer 616

Arizona Criminal Justice Information System GF-1

Question 617

What does TOC stand for?

Answer 617

Terminal Operator Certification GF-1 Section 6

Question 618

Terminal operators and other personnel using information received from the ACJIS and NCIC systems need to be certified when?

Answer 618

Within 6 months of hire or assignment. GF-1 Section 6

Question 619

How often must a terminal operator renew his/her Terminal Operator Certification (TOC)?

Answer 619

Every 2 years GF-1 Section 6

Question 620

What does AZPOST stand for?

Answer 620

Arizona Peace Officer Standards and Training Board GG-2

Question 621

What is: A complete list in clear, chronological order of an individual's whole career.

Answer 621

Curriculum Vitae (CV): GG-2

Question 622

What is: A notice of an employee's obligations and rights regarding compelled statements during an administrative investigation.

Answer 622

Garrity Warning: GH-2

Question 623

What are the 4 findings that could be the conclusion of an administrative investigation?

Answer 623

1. Exonerated 2. Unfounded 3. Not Sustained 4. Sustained GH-2 Section 6

Question 624

What may a supervisor do to improve a situation or prevent a potential negative work performance situation before it develops into a misconduct investigation?

Answer 624

Initiate an intervention GH-2

Question 625

Prior to determining intervention regarding the work performance situation, a supervisor will do what 3 things?

Answer 625

1. Confirm the employee's conduct does not exceed a Category 1, First or Second Offense or a Category 2, First Offense 2. Review disciplinary history by accessing the employee's EIPro Dashboard 3. Ensure that when considering a coaching, that the employee will not exceed the number of coachings allowed GH-2

Question 626

External complaints received by phone or in person shall be referred to whom?

Answer 626

The on-duty supervisor GH-2 Section 2.B

Question 627

External complaints involving allegations of excessive force or physical abuse require the supervisor to do what?

Answer 627

Make every reasonable attempt to make immediate personal contact with the complainant. GH-2 Section 2.B

Question 628

What are the steps a supervisor needs to take if they received an external complaint directly?

Answer 628

1. Meet the complainant and audio and video record the interaction 2. Obtain pertinent information 3. Complete a External Complaint Blue Team entry 4. Attach audio and video recordings to the Blue Team entry GH-2 Section 2.B

Question 629

What does PIR stand for?

Answer 629

Preliminary Inquiry Report GH-2

Question 630

In the event of an inmate complaint alleging employee misconduct, if it is determined that a Preliminary Inquiry Report (PIR) is needed the supervisor will contact who?

Answer 630

Custody Bureau Hearing Unit (CBHU) Sergeant GH-2 Section 2.B

Question 631

How long does a supervisor have to complete a preliminary inquiry regarding an inmate allegation of employee misconduct?

Answer 631

As soon as possible, and not to exceed 7 calendar days. GH-2 Section 2.B

Question 632

In reference to an inmate alleging employee misconduct, what documentation will the supervisor provide to the shift commander for review?

Answer 632

1. Preliminary Inquiry Report (PIR) 2. Grievance Tracking Coversheet 3. the original Inmate Grievance form 4. any other associated information GH-2 Section 2.B

Question 633

What is the difference between an internal complaint and an employee grievance?

Answer 633

Grievance-directed at such matters as employee status, work conditions, or operational procedures Internal Complaint-directed at alleged misconduct on the part of the employee which may warrant a preliminary inquiry or investigation GH-2 Section 2.B

Question 634

What is an Administrative Closure used for?

Answer 634

To indicate a service complaint was resolved without an administrative investigation. GH-2 Section 2.B

Question 635

The Office is statutorily obligated to make a good faith effort to complete an administrative investigation within how many days?

Answer 635

180 calendar days GH-2 Section 8

Question 636

What does AIU stand for?

Answer 636

Audits and Inspection Unit GH-4

Question 637

What does BIO stand for?

Answer 637

Bureau of Internal Oversight GH-4

Question 638

What is: A case management system used by the Early Intervention Unit, the Professional Standards Bureau (PSB), and the Compliance Division that tracks and analyzes information. (Complaints, commendations, use of force...etc)

Answer 638

IAPro: GH-4

Question 639

How often will the Audits and Inspection Unit (AIU) auditors conduct a risk assessment for all Office Divisions at a minimum?

Answer 639

Once every 3 years GH-4 Section 4

Question 640

What is: A Blue Team database tool that provides a visual overview of an employee's status in the EIS and is used to monitor alerts within the system.

Answer 640

EI Dashboard GH-5

Question 641

What is: The Office's web-based software application that allows employees and supervisors to view incident information in the IAPro case management system.

Answer 641

EIPro GH-5

Question 642

What is: A function within the Blue Team Application that allows command staff to view, access, monitor, and reassign incidents assigned within Blue Team to anyone in their respective division.

Answer 642

Incident Management Dashboard GH-5

Question 643

What are the 5 categories of alerts generated by the Early Identification System? (A/I/M/O/S)

Answer 643

1. Allegation Alert 2. Incident Type Alert 3. Monitored Status Alert 4. Overall Alert 5. Supervisory Alert GH-5 Section 4

Question 644

How many types of approved supervisory interventions are there?

Answer 644

12 GH-5 Section 5

Question 645

Supervisors shall conduct a review of EIS records within ___ days of all employees upon transfer to their supervision or command.

Answer 645

14 days GH-5 Section 8.C

Question 646

How many reviews will a supervisor make in the EIS records for each non-sworn subordinate?

Answer 646

One per month GH-5 Section 8.C

Question 647

What is: A prisoner or inmate's unauthorized departure from Office custody, as the result of administrative error.

Answer 647

Erroneous Release GJ-13

Question 648

In the event that a supervisor is notified of an inmate escape, the supervisor will request what from the OIC?

Answer 648

1. Attempt to Locate (ATL) notice 2. Wanted Flyer GJ-13 Section 1.E

Question 649

All escapes and attempted escapes of inmates or prisoners from within the confines of a jail shall be reported to whom?

Answer 649

Jail Crimes GJ-13 Section 2

Question 650

An erroneous release shall be processed as what?

Answer 650

An escape from custody GJ-13 Section 5

Question 651

In the case of self surrenders, what does an acceptable ID need to have?

Answer 651

1. Subject's name 2. Date of birth 3. Sex 4. Clear photo GJ-15

Question 652

In the event a suspect makes a bomb threat directly to Office personnel through a phone call, what information does the employee need to attempt to obtain?

Answer 652

1. Time threat was received 2. Time caller indicated the device would detonate 3. Location of device 4. What the device looks like 5. Type of device 6. How the device will be detonated 7. Whether the caller personally placed the device 8. Why the device was placed 9. Voice characteristics, indicating sex, age, or accent 10. Exact wording of the threat 11. Description of any background noise GJ-22 Section 1

Question 653

What does SART stand for?

Answer 653

Sexual Assault Response Team GJ-28

Question 654

What is: Responders consisting of the PREA Coordinator, PREA Managers, Jail Crimes Investigators, the shift commander, and Correctional Health Services (CHS) staff, who may be utilized to assess a PREA incident.

Answer 654

Sexual Assault Response Team (SART) GJ-28

Question 655

What is: An invasion of privacy of an inmate or prisoner by an employee or contractor for reasons unrelated to official duties. (EX:peering at inmate who is using the toilet, requiring an inmate to expose his or her buttocks, genitals, or breasts...etc)

Answer 655

Voyeurism: GJ-28

Question 656

PREA Compliance Managers are required to do what?

Answer 656

Conduct at least one random inmate PREA interview per month. GJ-28 Section 8.F

Question 657

When a supervisor is made aware of an allegation of sexual abuse, who will he notify? (4)

Answer 657

1. Shift commander 2. PREA Compliance Manager 3. Jail Crimes Investigators 4. Division commander GJ-28 Section 9

Question 658

In the event of a PREA incident, the supervisor shall ensure that what documentation is completed? (6)

Answer 658

1. PREA Initial Report 2. IR 3. JCN 4. DAR 5. OJ 6. JMS GJ-28 Section 9.A

Question 659

The PREA Initial Report shall be completed within how long?

Answer 659

24 hours GJ-28 Section 9.A

Question 660

True or False? | Consensual incidents of a sexual nature are not PREA incidents.

Answer 660

True. GJ-28 Section 9.C

Question 661

Who shall complete the PREA After Action Report at the conclusion of every sexual abuse investigation?

Answer 661

PREA Compliance Manager GJ-28 Section 13

Question 662

What does NMI stand for?

Answer 662

Neuromuscular Incapacitation GJ-30

Question 663

What is: An inability of the brain's electric signals to reach and control body muscles, with the overall effect of being involuntarily immobilized and incapacitated.

Answer 663

Neuromuscular Incapacitation (NMI) GJ-30

Question 664

What does CEW stand for?

Answer 664

Conducted Electrical Weapon GJ-30

Question 665

Where should the TASER CEW be targeted on a subject?

Answer 665

1. Back, below the neck 2. Front, lower center mass GJ-30 Section 4.A

Question 666

How often will every Office and personally owned TASER CEW be downloaded?

Answer 666

Once every 6 months GJ-30 Section 7

Question 667

When will spark testing be conducted on the issued TASER CEW devices?

Answer 667

1. Every 24 hours 2. Prior to the beginning of shift (individually issued) GJ-30 Section 9

Question 668

What does CID stand for?

Answer 668

Central Information Display GJ-30 Section 9.A

Question 669

All Honor Guard unit members shall serve a probationary period of how long?

Answer 669

6 months GJ-32 Section 3

Question 670

What does AED stand for?

Answer 670

Automated External Defibrillator GJ-34

Question 671

What does CPR stand for?

Answer 671

Cardio-Pulmonary Resuscitation GJ-34

Question 672

All AEDs shall be inspected how often?

Answer 672

Once per shift. GJ-34 Section 3

Question 673

Who will a supervisor contact if an AED's rescue ready light is red or if it is producing an audible warning tone?

Answer 673

CPR Coordinator GJ-34 Section 3

Question 674

What is: An opioid receptor antagonist and antidote for opioid overdose produced in intramuscular, intranasal, and intravenous forms.

Answer 674

Naloxone (Narcan) GJ-38

Question 675

The organizational structure of the Office is divided into 3 primary commands, which consist of what?

Answer 675

1. Office of the Sheriff 2. Chief Deputy 3. Director GK-1

Question 676

According to the organizational structure of the Office, the Office of the Sheriff consists of what 4 entities? (S/P/P/C)

Answer 676

1. Sheriff 2. Professional Standards Division 3. Public Information Office 4. Communications Coordinator GK-1

Question 677

What does ESI stand for?

Answer 677

Electronically Stored Information GM-1

Question 678

What is: A person with whom a detention officer may come in contact, who will voluntarily provide information to the Office that may begin or further an investigation.

Answer 678

Source of Information (SOI) GN-8

Question 679

What does SOI stand for?

Answer 679

Source of Information GN-8