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DCUFI > Implementing Cisco Data Center - DCUFI - online > Flashcards

Implementing Cisco Data Center - DCUFI - online Flashcards

1
Q
  1. How long do you have to replace a faulty fan tray before the system performs an automatic system shutdown?

a) 3 minutes
b) 4 minutes
c) 5 minutes
d) 6 minutes

A
  1. How long do you have to replace a faulty fan tray before the system performs an automatic system shutdown? (5-22)
    a) 3 minutes
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2
Q
  1. Which Nexus 7000 component is upgraded last during a Cisco IOS ISSU process?

a) active supervisor
b) CMP
c) data module
d) standby supervisor

A
  1. Which Nexus 7000 component is upgraded last during a Cisco IOS ISSU process? (5-27)
    c) data module
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3
Q
  1. When the system is performing an EPLD upgrade, what effect does it have on traffic?

a) Traffic is not disrupted.
b) Traffic is disrupted across all modules at the same time.
c) Traffic is disrupted one module at a time.
d) The switch will reload to complete the EPLD upgrade.

A
  1. When the system is performing an EPLD upgrade, what effect does it have on traffic? (5-35)
    c) Traffic is disrupted one module at a time.
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4
Q
  1. How many Equal-Cost Multipaths does the Cisco FabricPath feature support?

a) 4
b) 8
c) 12
d) 16

A
  1. How many Equal-Cost Multipaths does the Cisco FabricPath feature support? (5-48)
    d) 16
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5
Q
  1. Which Cisco NX-OS software release is required to support Cisco FabricPath?

a) 5.1(1)
b) 5.0
c) 5.0(2)
d) 5.0(1)

A
  1. Which Cisco NX-OS software release is required to support Cisco FabricPath? (5-49)
    a) 5.1(1)
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6
Q
  1. What is the correct part number for the Cisco Nexus 7000 32-port 1/10-Gigabit Ethernet module that supports FabricPath?

a) N7K-F132XP-12
b) N7K-F132XP-15
c) N7K-F132XP-32
d) N7K-F132XP-10

A
  1. What is the correct part number for the Cisco Nexus 7000 32-port 1/10-Gigabit Ethernet module that supports FabricPath? (5-61/5-69)
    b) N7K-F132XP-15 - show interface capabilities to verify FabricPath capable
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7
Q
  1. What is the default MAC address learning for Cisco FabricPath VLANs?

a) Source
b) Conversational
c) Destination
d) Source/Destination

A
  1. What is the default MAC address learning for Cisco FabricPath VLANs? (5-73)
    b) Conversational
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8
Q
  1. Which protocol is used by Cisco FabricPath to provide the routing function at a Layer 2 level?

a) BGP
b) RIP
c) IS-IS
d) EIGRP

A
  1. Which protocol is used by Cisco FabricPath to provide the routing function at a Layer 2 level? (5-50)
    c) IS-IS
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9
Q
  1. Which of the following is true about Cisco FabricPath forwarding in the Cisco FabricPath core?

a) MAC addresses are learned using conversational MAC learning.
b) MAC addresses are learned using the regular Ethernet flooding process, but Cisco FabricPath trees are used to optimize the flooding process.
c) No MAC address lookups or MAC address learning is required.
d) MAC address reachability is advertised using FabricPath IS-IS.

A
  1. Which of the following is true about Cisco FabricPath forwarding in the Cisco FabricPath core?
    c) No MAC address lookups or MAC address learning is required.
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10
Q
  1. The Cisco Nexus 7000 F1 I/O modules and Cisco Nexus 5500 hardware are capable of running both Cisco FabricPath and TRILL modes.

a) True
b) False

A
  1. The Cisco Nexus 7000 F1 I/O modules and Cisco Nexus 5500 hardware are capable of running both Cisco FabricPath and TRILL modes.
    a) True
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11
Q
  1. Which of the following is a potential cause when you cannot enable the Cisco FabricPath feature-set in a VDC?

a) There is no F-series I/O module installed in the Cisco Nexus 7000 switch.
b) There are no ports on an F-series I/O module allocated to the VDC.
c) The Scalable Feature License has not been installed in the default VDC.
d) The Cisco FabricPath feature set has not been installed in the default VDC.

A
  1. Which of the following is a potential cause when you cannot enable the Cisco FabricPath feature-set in a VDC? (5-61)
    d) The Cisco FabricPath feature set has not been installed in the default VDC.
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12
Q
  1. Which of the following licenses needs to be installed in order to configure FabricPath?

a) Enterprise Services Package
b) Transport Services Package
c) Enhanced Layer 2 Package
d) Advanced Services Package

A
  1. Which of the following licenses needs to be installed in order to configure FabricPath? (5-61)
    c) Enhanced Layer 2 Package
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13
Q
  1. Which Cisco NX-OS command is used to view the Cisco FabricPath routes between the switches in the fabric?

a) show mac address-table fabricpath
b) show fabricpath forwarding
c) show isis route
d) show fabricpath switch-id
e) show fabricpath route

A
  1. Which Cisco NX-OS command is used to view the Cisco FabricPath routes between the switches in the fabric? (5-60/5-75)
    e) show fabricpath route
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14
Q
  1. Layer 2 high availability features include which of these?

a) Nonstop Forwarding graceful restart and First Hop Redundancy Protocols
b) Unidirectional Link Detection and IEEE 802.3ad link aggregation
c) BPDU Guard and BPDU Filters
d) Root Guard and Bridge Assurance

A
  1. Layer 2 high availability features include which of these? (5-4)

b) Unidirectional Link Detection and IEEE 802.3ad link aggregation
c) BPDU Guard and BPDU Filters
d) Root Guard and Bridge Assurance

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15
Q
  1. Which FHRP supports object tracking?

a) HSRP
b) VRRP
c) GLBP
d) vPC

A
  1. Which FHRP supports object tracking? (5-6)
    a) HSRP
    c) GLBP
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16
Q
  1. Which FHRP supports native load balancing?

a) HSRP
b) VRRP
c) GLBP
d) vPC

A
  1. Which FHRP supports native load balancing? (5-11)
    c) GLBP provides redundant, load-balanced first-hop service to a LAN segment
    * HSRP - with multiple HSRP group configuration on one LAN segment, HSRP supports some traffic load balancing (5-6)
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17
Q
  1. GLBP does not affect the return path of any traffic destined for LAN clients.

a) True
b) False

A
  1. GLBP does not affect the return path of any traffic destined for LAN clients. (5-12)
    a) True
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18
Q
  1. When a supervisor-level failure occurs in a system with dual supervisors, the System Manager will perform a switchover rather than a restart to maintain stateful operation.

a) True
b) False

A
  1. When a supervisor-level failure occurs in a system with dual supervisors, the System Manager will perform a switchover rather than a restart to maintain stateful operation.
    a) True, unless the standby supervisor is not in a stable state, which would result in a restart rather than switchover.
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19
Q
  1. In a Cisco Nexus 7000 switch with two supervisors, which ISSU step is first?

a) Forces a supervisor switchover
b) Loads the new software image to the standby supervisor
c) Performs a non-disruptive upgrade of each switching module, one at a time
d) Upgrades the CMP

A
  1. In a Cisco Nexus 7000 switch with two supervisors, which ISSU step is first? (5-29)
    b) Loads the new software image to the standby supervisor
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20
Q
  1. Following verfication that kickstart and sytem images are in bootflash, what next step is recommended?

a) install all kickstart bootflash:n7000-s1-kickstart.5.2.9.bin system bootflash:n7000-s1-dk9.5.2.9.bin
b) show install all impact kickstart bootflash:n7000-s1-kickstart.5.2.9.bin system bootflash:n7000-s1-dk9.5.2.9.bin
c) show install module 5 impact epld bootflash:n7000-s1-epld.5.2.9.img
d) show install xbar-module 5 impact epld bootflash:n7000-s1-epld.5.2.9.img

A
  1. Following verfication that kickstart and sytem images are in bootflash, what next step is recommended? (5-30)
    b) show install all impact kickstart bootflash:n7000-s1-kickstart.5.2.9.bin system bootflash:n7000-s1-dk9.5.2.9.bin
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21
Q
  1. What are some implications of a Layer 2 Tree topology leveraged with Spanning Tree Protocol?

a) Wasted bandwidth - increased oversubscription
b) Suboptimal paths
c) Conservative, timer-based convergence
d) Fast convergence

A
  1. What are some implications of a Layer 2 Tree topology leveraged with Spanning Tree Protocol? (5-43)

a) Wasted bandwidth - increased oversubscription
b) Suboptimal paths
c) Conservative, timer-based convergence

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22
Q
  1. Which describes Cisco FabricPath MAC learning at the edge?

a) MAC addresses are learned selectively at the edge. A single address lookup at the ingress edge identifies the exit port across the fabric.
b) MAC tables are built at the edge and propagated across the fabric.
c) MAC flooding at the edge is used to build a table maintained locally. This function is hop-by-hop across the fabric.
d) MAC flooding in the core updates edge devices.

A
  1. Which describes Cisco FabricPath MAC learning at the edge? (5-47)
    a) MAC addresses are learned selectively at the edge. A single address lookup at the ingress edge identifies the exit port across the fabric.
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23
Q
  1. Cisco Nexus 7000 series switches with M-series modules can carry Cisco FabricPath VLAN traffic.

a) True
b) False

A
  1. Cisco Nexus 7000 series switches with M-series modules can carry Cisco FabricPath VLAN traffic. (5-52)
    b) False - show fabricpath topology vlan active to verify active FabricPath VLANs
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24
Q
  1. You must configure the Cisco FabricPath Layer 2 gateway device to have the lowest STP priority of all STP domain devices.

a) True
b) False

A
  1. You must configure the Cisco FabricPath Layer 2 gateway device to have the lowest STP priority of all STP domain devices. (5-52)
    a) True - and configure all Cisco FabricPath Layer 2 gateway devices connected to one FabricPath network with the same priority.
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25
Q
  1. What feature allows a Classical Ethernet vPC domain and a Cisco FabricPath cloud to interoperate?

a) peer-gateway
b) peer-switch
c) role priority
d) vPC+

A
  1. What feature allows a Classical Ethernet vPC domain and a Cisco FabricPath cloud to interoperate? (5-54)
    d) vPC+ - also provides a FHRP active-active capability at the Cisco FabricPath to Layer 3 boundary.
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26
Q
  1. Match Cisco FabricPath feature and function.
Switch ID
Sub-Switch ID
Port ID
Ftag
TTL

a) Decremented at each switch hop to prevent infinite frame loops
b) Unique number identifying topology and/or multi-destination distribution tree
c) Identifies the source or destination interface
d) Identifies devices/hosts connected via VPC+
e) Unique number identifying each FabricPath switch

A
  1. Match Cisco FabricPath feature and function. (5-56)

Switch ID - Unique number identifying each FabricPath switch
Sub-Switch ID - Identifies devices/hosts connected via VPC+
Port ID - Identifies the source or destination interface
Ftag (Forwarding tag) - Unique number identifying topology and/or multi-destination distribution tree - specifies path packet uses.
TTL - Decremented at each switch hop to prevent infinite frame loops - set to 16 during FabricPath encapsulation

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27
Q
  1. TRILL provides Layer 2 multipathing by using Routing Bridges to compute routes and forward traffic on a hop-by-hop basis.

a) True
b) False

A
  1. TRILL provides Layer 2 multipathing by using Routing Bridges to compute routes and forward traffic on a hop-by-hop basis.
    a) True - uses IS-IS and is not dependent on IP.
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28
Q
  1. What does the SCSI architecture define the relationship between?

a) hosts and targets
b) hosts and disks
c) initiators and disks
d) initiators and targets

A
  1. What does the SCSI architecture define the relationship between? (6-4)
    d) initiators and targets
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29
Q
  1. What defines a fiber channel exchange?

a) number of words
b) number of sequences
c) TCP session
d) number of frames

A
  1. What defines a fiber channel exchange? (6-8)

b) number of sequences

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30
Q
  1. Which process occurs between an initiator’s N_Port and a target’s N_Port to exchange data about upper layer protocol support?

a) PLOGI
b) fabric login
c) PRLI
d) FLOGI

A
  1. Which process occurs between an initiator’s N_Port and a target’s N_Port to exchange data about upper layer protocol support? (6-11)
    c) PRLI - process login
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31
Q
  1. Which Fiber Channel address is used by FSPF to route Fiber Channel frames through a fabric?

a) FC-ID
b) nWWN
c) pWWN
d) MAC

A
  1. Which Fiber Channel address is used by FSPF to route Fiber Channel frames through a fabric? (6-18)
    a) FC-ID
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32
Q
  1. How many domains are available to the fabric?

a) 256
b) 255
c) 244
d) 239

A
  1. How many domains are available to the fabric? (6-20)

d) 239

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33
Q
  1. Which feature should be enabled to support multiple fabric logins through an N_Port?

a) NPV
b) NP_Port
c) NPIV
d) Zoning

A
  1. Which feature should be enabled to support multiple fabric logins through an N_Port? (6-28)
    c) NPIV - assign multiple fiber channel identifiers (FC-ID) to one N_Port
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34
Q
  1. What is the dedicated EtherType in the Ethernet header for FCoE encapsulation?

a) 0x8706
b) 0x8806
c) 0x8906
d) 0x8096

A
  1. What is the dedicated EtherType in the Ethernet header for FCoE encapsulation? (6-42)
    c) 0x8906
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35
Q
  1. Which component is responsible for the encapsulation and de-encapsulation necessary to transport FCoE?

a) FCoE logical end point
b) FCoE node
c) Fiber Channel Forwarder
d) FCoE forwarder

A
  1. Which component is responsible for the encapsulation and de-encapsulation necessary to transport FCoE? (6-43/6-45)
    a) FCoE logical end point
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36
Q
  1. How does an FCoE node acquire the MAC address it will use for FCoE traffic?

a) server provided MAC address
b) local MAC address
c) locally defined MAC address
d) fabric provided MAC address

A
  1. How does an FCoE node acquire the MAC address it will use for FCoE traffic? (6-48)
    d) fabric provided MAC address
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37
Q
  1. FCoE Initiallization Protocol (FIP) establishes virtual Fiber Channel links between which port types?

a) N_Ports and F_Ports
b) VN_Ports and VF_Ports
c) VE_Ports and VF_Ports
d) E_Ports and E_Ports
e) VE_Ports and VE_Ports
f) VN_Ports and VE_Ports

A
  1. FCoE Initiallization Protocol (FIP) establishes virtual Fiber Channel links between which port types? (6-49)
    b) VN_Ports and VF_Ports
    e) VE_Ports and VE_Ports
38
Q
  1. Priority groups are associated with which Data Center Bridging Ethernet enhancement feature?

a) Priority Flow Control
b) Enhanced Transmission Selection
c) End-to-End Congestion Management
d) Layer 2 Multipathing

A
  1. Priority groups are associated with which Data Center Bridging Ethernet enhancement feature? (6-66)
    b) Enhanced Transmission Selection
39
Q
  1. Which Data Center Bridging Ethernet enhancement feature supports pause on a virtual channel?

a) Priority Flow Control
b) Enhanced Transmission Selection
c) End-to-End Congestion Management
d) Layer 2 Multipathing

A
  1. Which Data Center Bridging Ethernet enhancement feature supports pause on a virtual channel? (6-64)
    a) Priority Flow Control
40
Q
  1. Which protocol performs discovery of Data Center Bridging capabilities in a peer?

a) Data Center Bridging Exchange Protocol
b) Data Center Bridging Exchange Control Protocol
c) Cisco Discovery Protocol
d) Link-Layer Discovery Protocol

A
  1. Which protocol performs discovery of Data Center Bridging capabilities in a peer? (6-69)
    a) Data Center Bridging Exchange Protocol
41
Q
  1. Which of the following defines the encapsulation of FLOGI, FDISC, LOGO, and ELP frames?

a) FIP discovery
b) FCoE virtual link maintenance
c) FCoE virtual link instantiation
d) FCoE discovery

A
  1. Which of the following defines the encapsulation of FLOGI, FDISC, LOGO, and ELP frames? (7-5)
    c) FCoE virtual link instantiation
    * Fabric Login (FLOGI), Fabric Discovery (FDISC), Logout (LOGO), and Exchange Link Parameters (ELP)
42
Q
  1. Which mode should be enabled on the Ethernet interface to support the transport of both Ethernet and FCoE frames?

a) switchport mode trunk
b) switchport mode access
c) switchport mode fcoe
d) fcoe mode on

A
  1. Which mode should be enabled on the Ethernet interface to support the transport of both Ethernet and FCoE frames? (7-14)
    a) switchport mode trunk
43
Q
  1. Which message would be sent to an individual virtual link to reset the virtual interface?

a) FCoE clear virtual link
b) FCoE virtual link clear
c) FIP virtual link clear
d) FIP clear virtual link

A
  1. Which message would be sent to an individual virtual link to reset the virtual interface? (7-6)
    d) FIP clear virtual link - part of DCBX feature negotiation - Logical Link Up/Down - for Converged Enhanced Ethernet Data Center Bridging Exchange (CEE-DCBX) T11-compliant 2nd-generation CNAs.
44
Q
  1. Which license is required on the Cisco Nexus 5000 or 5500 switch to support FCoE?

a) Enterprise license
b) Storage Protocol Services license
c) Advanced Services license
d) Storage Protocol Advanced Services license

A
  1. Which license is required on the Cisco Nexus 5000 or 5500 switch to support FCoE? (7-13)
    b) Storage Protocol Services license
45
Q
  1. Which command would be used to associate an interface with a VSAN?

a) switch(config)# interface ethernet 1/3
switch(config-if)# vsan 2
b) switch(config)# vsan database
switch(config-vsan-db)# vsan 2 interface ethernet 1/3
c) switch(config)# vsan database
switch(config-vsan-db)# vsan 2 interface vfc 1/3
d) switch(config)# vsan database
switch(config-vsan-db)# vsan 2 interface vfc 10

A
  1. Which command would be used to associate an interface with a VSAN? (7-15)

d) switch(config)# vsan database
switch(config-vsan-db)# vsan 2 interface vfc 10

show vsan membership validates VSAN to virtual Fiber Channel (vFC) binding
show vlan fcoe validates VSAN to VLAN mapping
show interface vfc # displays bound physiical interface and port world wide name (pWWN)

46
Q
  1. Which type of port supports trunking on an NPV-enabled switch?

a) TNP
b) TF
c) NP
d) TE

A
  1. Which type of port supports trunking on an NPV-enabled switch? (7-29)
    a) TNP - trunking node virtualization port - connected to a trunked fabric port (TF_Port) to create a link from an NPV mode switch to a core NPIV switch

TF_Port - trunking fabric port - connects to trunked N_Port (TN_Port) or trunked NP_Port (TNP_Port)
NP_Port - port on a device in N_Port Virtualization (NPV) mode connected to the core switch via a fabric port (F_Port)
TE_Port - trunking expansion port - connected to another TE_Port to create an Enhanced ISL (EISL) between 2 switches.

47
Q
  1. Which service ensures that domain IDs are unique throughout a single fabric (or VSAN)?

a) Route Bridge
b) FSPF
c) Principle Switch
d) STP

A
  1. Which service ensures that domain IDs are unique throughout a single fabric (or VSAN)? (7-32)
    c) Principle Switch
48
Q
  1. What is the default switch priority for fcdomains?

a) 64
b) 128
c) 192
d) 254

A
  1. What is the default switch priority for fcdomains? (7-34)
    b) 128 - valid range is 1-254, with priority 1 being the highest priority - modifying the fcdomain priority requires fcdomain restart
49
Q
  1. What is the default load-balancing method for traffic with a VSAN?

a) S_ID/D_ID
b) S_ID/D_ID/OX_ID
c) S_MAC/D_MAC
d) S_MAC/D_MAC/Port_ID

A
  1. What is the default load-balancing method for traffic with a VSAN? (7-39)
    b) S_ID/D_ID/OX_ID - Source ID, Destination ID, or Originator Exchange ID
50
Q
  1. How many physical links can be configured in a single SAN port channel?

a) 4
b) 8
c) 12
d) 16

A
  1. How many physical links can be configured in a single SAN port channel? (7-48)
    d) 16
51
Q
  1. Which of the following displays details relating to devices logged into a switch?

a) show flogi database
b) show fcns database
c) show mac-table
d) show fspf database

A
  1. Which of the following displays details relating to devices logged into a switch? (7-56)
    a) show flogi database - locally significant
    * show fcns database - devices registered in the fabric
52
Q
  1. Which mode relays the FLOGI and FDISC requests to an upstream Fibre Channel switch?

a) NPV
b) NPIV
c) Switch
d) NPV and NPIV

A
  1. Which mode relays the FLOGI and FDISC requests to an upstream Fibre Channel switch? (7-60)
    a) NPV - no switching functions
53
Q
  1. What must be enabled on the upstream switch if a Cisco Nexus 5000 switch is in NPV mode?

a) NPV
b) NPIV
c) NPV and NPIV
d) Trunking

A
  1. What must be enabled on the upstream switch if a Cisco Nexus 5000 switch is in NPV mode? (7-66)
    b) NPIV
54
Q
  1. What type of port connects a Cisco Nexus 5000 switch in NPV mode to an upstream Fiber Channel switch?

a) N_Port
b) F_Port
c) E_Port
d) NP_Port

A
  1. What type of port connects a Cisco Nexus 5000 switch in NPV mode to an upstream Fiber Channel switch? (7-61)
    d) NP_Port - Node Virtualization Port - proxies for multiple N_Ports

N_Port - Node Port for edge equipment
F_Port - Fabric Port on a switch
E_Port - Expansion Port - Inter-Switch Link (ISL)

55
Q
  1. Which command enables NPV on a Cisco Nexus 5000 switch?

a) feature npv
b) enable npv
c) npv enable
d) npv feature enable

A
  1. Which command enables NPV on a Cisco Nexus 5000 switch? (7-64)
    c) npv enable - requires the switch to erase the system configuration and reload - save config to bootflash
56
Q
  1. What might indicate that an upstream switch is not enabled for NPIV?

a) port down
b) port stuck initializing
c) NPV upstream port not available
d) waiting for FLOGI message

A
  1. What might indicate that an upstream switch is not enabled for NPIV? (7-68)
    b) port stuck initializing - Node_Port (NP_Port) - show interface fc 2/1 - show npv status
57
Q
  1. Which SAN management tool is used to configure and manage the SAN fabric?

a) Cisco Device Manager
b) Cisco Fabric Manager Web Server
c) Cisco Fabric Manager
d) Cisco Performance Manager

A
  1. Which SAN management tool is used to configure and manage the SAN fabric?
    c) Cisco Fabric Manager
58
Q
  1. Which SAN management tool is used to configure and manage a single switch in the SAN fabric?

a) Cisco Device Manager
b) Cisco Fabric Manager Web Server
c) Cisco Fabric Manager
d) Cisco Performance Manager

A
  1. Which SAN management tool is used to configure and manage a single switch in the SAN fabric? (7-78)
    a) Cisco Device Manager
59
Q
  1. What is the meaning of a red X on a switch in the Cisco Fabric Manager topology screen?

a) The switch has an alert warning
b) The switch is unmanageable and non-functional
c) The switch is unmanageable, but functional
d) The switch is unmanageable and has an alert warning

A
  1. What is the meaning of a red X on a switch in the Cisco Fabric Manager topology screen? (7-76)
    b) The switch is unmanageable and non-functional
60
Q
  1. Which tool would be used by operators to monitor and obtain reports for Cisco SAN switch events, performance, and inventory?

a) Cisco Device Manager
b) Cisco Fabric Manager Web Server
c) Cisco Fabric Manager
d) Cisco Performance Manager

A
  1. Which tool would be used by operators to monitor and obtain reports for Cisco SAN switch events, performance, and inventory? (7-75)
    b) Cisco Fabric Manager Web Server

Cisco Performance Manager presents detailed traffic analysis by capturing data with SNMP.

61
Q
  1. Which of the following are common components of a structured network troubleshooting process?

a) replicate
b) gather data
c) eliminate
d) test hypothesis
e) fallback
f) analyze

A
  1. Which of the following are common components of a structured network troubleshooting process? (8-6)

b) gather data
c) eliminate
d) test hypothesis

f) analyze
1. Define problem, 2. Gather Data, 3. Analyze data, 4. Eliminate possible causes, 5. Form Hypothesis, 6. Test Hypothesis, 7. Solve Problem

62
Q
  1. Which of the following are common elements of a system log message on the Cisco Nexus switches?

a) date and time stamp
b) user name
c) facility
d) severity
e) community
f) mnemonic
g) location

A
  1. Which of the following are common elements of a system log message on the Cisco Nexus switches? (8-10)
    a) date and time stamp

c) facility
d) severity

f) mnemonic
* switch hostname and description

63
Q
  1. Which of the following statements best describes the default logging locations on a Cisco Nexus 7000 switch?

a) By default, system log messages of severity 2 and lower are sent to the console and NVRAM of the switch supervisor, while messages of severity 5 or lower are sent to a log file in flash on the switch supervisor.
b) By default, system log messages of severity 5 and lower are sent to the console and NVRAM of the switch supervisor, while messages of severity 2 or lower are sent to a log file in flash on the switch supervisor.
c) By default, system log messages of severity 2 and lower are sent to the console and remote terminal sessions of the switch supervisor, while messages of severity 5 or lower are sent to a log file in flash on the switch supervisor.
d) By default, system log messages of severity 5 and lower are sent to the console and remote terminal sessions of the switch supervisor, while messages of severity 2 or lower are sent to a log file in flash on the switch supervisor.

A
  1. Which of the following statements best describes the default logging locations on a Cisco Nexus 7000 switch? (8-12)
    a) By default, system log messages of severity 2 and lower are sent to the console and NVRAM of the switch supervisor, while messages of severity 5 or lower are sent to a log file in flash on the switch supervisor.
    * NVRAM saves the most recent 100 messages. You cannot configure logging to NVRAM (or change the configuration).
64
Q
  1. Which Cisco NX-OS command is used to connect to an I/O module in slot 1 of a Cisco Nexus 7000 switch?

a) session slot 1
b) switchto module 1
c) attach module 1
d) connect slot 1

A
  1. Which Cisco NX-OS command is used to connect to an I/O module in slot 1 of a Cisco Nexus 7000 switch? (8-14)
    c) attach module 1 - show system resources OR from sup: slot 1 show system resources (attach can also be used to connect to FEX)
65
Q
  1. The severity and log file size for the NVRAM logging on the Cisco Nexus 7000 switches are configurable by the network administrator.

a) True
b) False

A
  1. The severity and log file size for the NVRAM logging on the Cisco Nexus 7000 switches are configurable by the network administrator. (8-12)
    b) False - NVRAM cannot be changed, but console and log file can
66
Q
  1. Which of the following technologies can be used to send alerts to a network management station based on events that happen on a Cisco Nexus 7000 switch?

a) EEM
b) NetFlow
c) SPAN
d) OBFL
e) RMON

A
  1. Which of the following technologies can be used to send alerts to a network management station based on events that happen on a Cisco Nexus 7000 switch? (8-18)
    a) EEM - Embedded Event Manager
    e) RMON - Remote Monitoring

OBFL (onboard failure logging) - log failure data to persistent storage
GOLD - Cisco (Generic Online Diagnositcs) - hardware tests - provides a fault-detection framework to increase availability

67
Q
  1. Which of the following diagnostics are included in Cisco GOLD on the Cisco Nexus 7000 switches?

a) bootup diagnostics, including disruptive and non-disruptive tests
b) bootup diagnostics, including only non-disruptive tests
c) health monitoring diagnostics, including disruptive and non-disruptive tests
d) health monitoring diagnostics, including only non-disruptive tests
e) remote diagnostics, including disruptive and non-disruptive tests
f) remote diagnostics, including only non-disruptive tests
g) on-demand diagnostics, including disruptive and non-disruptive tests
h) on-demand diagnostics, including only non-disruptive tests

A
  1. Which of the following diagnostics are included in Cisco GOLD on the Cisco Nexus 7000 switches? (8-22)
    a) bootup diagnostics, including disruptive and non-disruptive tests
    d) health monitoring diagnostics, including only non-disruptive tests
    g) on-demand diagnostics, including disruptive and non-disruptive tests
68
Q
  1. Which of the types is a valid technology that can be used to notify a network management station when an RMON alarm is triggered?

a) SMTP
b) Syslog
c) HTTPS
d) NETCONF

A
  1. Which of the types is a valid technology that can be used to notify a network management station when an RMON alarm is triggered? (8-20)
    b) Syslog - or SNMP
69
Q
  1. Which of the following are valid actions that EEM can perform in an EEM applet?

a) execute a CLI command
b) send an email
c) download software
d) send a syslog message
e) send an SNMP trap
f) eject an I/O module

A
  1. Which of the following are valid actions that EEM can perform in an EEM applet? (8-31)
    a) execute a CLI command

d) send a syslog message
e) send an SNMP trap

70
Q
  1. Which of the following is a valid SPAN source interface on a Cisco Nexus 7000 switch?

a) out-of-band management Ethernet port
b) Ethernet port on an I/O module
c) port-channel interface
d) connectivity management processor Ethernet port
e) tunnel interface
f) routed Ethernet sub-interface
g) supervisor in-band interface

A
  1. Which of the following is a valid SPAN source inteface on a Cisco Nexus 7000 switch? (8-41)

b) Ethernet port on an I/O module
c) port-channel interface

g) supervisor in-band interface, but not the out-of-band management interface

71
Q
  1. What is the function of a NetFlow record configuration?

a) A flow record defines the network layer and transport layer details for the NetFlow export packets forwarded to a NetFlow collector
b) A flow record defines the keys NetFlow uses to identify packets in the flow and other fields of interest NetFlow gathers for the flow.
c) A flow record creates a flow cache based on a specific flow monitor definition and exports the data to a specified collector.
d) A flow record contains all the user data recorded for a particular flow.

A
  1. What is the function of a NetFlow record configuration? (8-52)
    b) A flow record defines the keys NetFlow uses to identify packets in the flow and other fields of interest NetFlow gathers for the flow.
72
Q
  1. What protocol allows the switch to discover and initialize FCoE-capable entities connected to an Ethernet LAN?

a) VLAN Trunking
b) FCoE Initialization Protocol
c) EEM
d) NetFlow

A
  1. What protocol allows the switch to discover and initialize FCoE-capable entities connected to an Ethernet LAN? (7-4)
    b) FCoE Initialization Protocol (FIP)
    * VLAN Tagging for FCoE frames: The IEEE 802.1Q tag 802.1p Class of Service value is used by priority flow control (PFC).
73
Q
  1. Host Interfaces on fabric extender connections to servers in a port channel are supported in the regular non-virtual PortChannel (non-vPC) fabric extender topology.

a) True
b) False

A
  1. Host Interfaces on fabric extender connections to servers in a port channel are supported in the regular non-virtual PortChannel (non-vPC) fabric extender topology. (7-9)
    a) True - Host CNAs can be dual-homed in an active-active mode to fabric extender Host Interfaces (HIFs), as long as the fabric extender is in straight-through mode.
74
Q
  1. What are the recommended design differences when leveraging blade switches connected to Nexus 5000 switches using remotely connected CNAs?

a) A blade switch must connect to one Cisco Nexus 5000 converged-access switch only, preferably over EtherChannel.
b) A blade switch must not connect to Cisco Nexus 5000 converged-access switches.
c) A blade switch must have split connects between Nexus 5000 converged-access switches.
d) A blade switch must have 4 connections to a converged-access switch.

A
  1. What are the recommended design differences when leveraging blade switches connected to Nexus 5000 switches using remotely connected CNAs? (7-11)
    a) A blade switch must connect to one Cisco Nexus 5000 converged-access switch only, preferably over EtherChannel.
75
Q
  1. A remotely-connected topology is only supported with 2nd-generation CNAs. (7-12)

a) True
b) False

A
  1. A remotely-connected topology is only supported with 2nd-generation CNAs. (7-12)
    a) True - 2nd-generation FCoE Initialization Protocol (FIP) converged network adapters (CNAs) only
76
Q
  1. What command is configured on the physical interface before creating the virtual Fiber Channel interface on FCoE-enabled server-facing ports to ensure it does not participate in spanning-tree topology calculations?

a) spanning-tree port type edge
b) spanning-tree port type edge trunk
c) spanning-tree mode trunk
d) spanning-tree mode access

A
  1. What command is configured on the physical interface before creating the virtual Fiber Channel interface on FCoE-enabled server-facing ports to ensure it does not participate in spanning-tree topology calculations? (7-14)
    b) spanning-tree port type edge trunk
77
Q
  1. What command is analogous to the Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) ping command?

a) fcoeping
b) fcprobe
c) fcoeprobe
d) fcping

A
  1. What command is analogous to the Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) ping command? (7-18)
    d) fcping - specifying the Fiber Channel ID (FC-ID) followed by its assigned VSAN: fcping fcid 0x4a00e0 vsan 1
78
Q
  1. What command is used to verify the peer converged network adapter supports DCBX?

a) show running-config
b) show lldp interface ethernet x/y
c) show system internal dcbx info interface ethernet x/y
d) show platform software fcoe_mgr info interface vfcid

A
  1. What command is used to verify the peer converged network adapter supports DCBX? (7-19)
    c) show system internal dcbx info interface ethernet x/y

show running-config - used to verify the vFC interface is not shut down and the interface is bound to an “up” Ethernet interface.
show lldp interface ethernet x/y - verify the peer supports link layer discovery protocol (LLDP) by confirming the peer’s LLDP TLVs have values
show platform software fcoe_mgr info interface vfcid - used to confirm FIP keepalive (FKA) misses

The 3 TLVs are FCoE TLV, Priority Group (PriGrp) TLV, and PFC TLV. There should be local and peer values for these.

vFC goes down when FIP keepalives are missed for 22 seconds.

79
Q
  1. What command is used to troubleshoot when a switch interface connected to a converged network adapter receives constant pause frames?

a) show platform software fcoe_mgr event-history errors
b) show system internal dbx info interface ethernet x/y
c) show interface ethernet x/y priority-flow-control
d) show queuing interface ethernet x/y
e) show hardware internal gatos event-history errors |grep -I error

A
  1. What command is used to troubleshoot when a switch interface connected to a converged network adapter receives constant pause frames? 7-23)

c) show interface ethernet x/y priority-flow-control OR show interface ethernet x/y |grep -I pause
d) show queuing interface ethernet x/y

80
Q
  1. What is the recommend practice regarding Fiber Channel domain ID parameters?

a) fcdomain domain 5 preferred vsan 14
b) fcdomain domain 3 static vsan 8
c) fcdomain 5 preferred vsan 14
d) fcdomain 3 static vsan 8

A
  1. What is the recommend practice regarding Fiber Channel domain ID parameters? (7-35)

b) fcdomain domain 3 static vsan 8 - Static domain IDs should be used for most environments.
* You must issue “fcdomain restart disruptive vsan vsan-id to apply the domain changes to the runtime environment.

81
Q
  1. What are the 2 primary VSAN functions?

a) Hardware-based isolation of tagged traffic belonging to different VSANs.
b) Software-based isolation of tagged traffic belonging to different VSANs.
c) A combined Fiber Channel fabric service database for all VSANs.
d) Each Fiber Channel fabric service maintains a separate database for each VSAN.

A
  1. What are the 2 primary VSAN functions? (7-37)
    a) Hardware-based isolation of tagged traffic belonging to different VSANs.
    d) Each Fiber Channel fabric service maintains a separate database for each VSAN.
82
Q
  1. If a SAN port channel link goes down, the upper layer protocol is unaware and routing tables are not affected.

a) True
b) False

A
  1. If a SAN port channel link goes down, the upper layer protocol is unaware and routing tables are not affected. (7-48)
    a) True
83
Q
  1. NPV traffic map provides what features?

a) Facilitates traffic engineering by allowing configuration of a fixed set of NP uplinks for a specific server interface (or range of interfaces).
b) Facilitates traffic engineering by allowing configuration of a dynamic set of NP uplinks for a specific server interface (or range of interfaces).
c) Ensures correct operation of the persistent FC-ID feature, because a server will always connect ot the same NP uplink (or one of a specified range of interfaces) after the interface re-initializes or switch reloads.
d) Ensures correct operation of the dynamic FC-ID feature, because a server will always connect ot the same NP uplink (or one of a specified range of interfaces) after the interface re-initializes or switch reloads.

A
  1. NPV traffic map provides what features? (7-65)
    a) Facilitates traffic engineering by allowing configuration of a fixed set of NP uplinks for a specific server interface (or range of interfaces).
    c) Ensures correct operation of the persistent FC-ID feature, because a server will always connect ot the same NP uplink (or one of a specified range of interfaces) after the interface re-initializes or switch reloads.
84
Q
  1. What are some troubleshooting steps when an interface show “Waiting for FLOGI?”

a) Verify there are no VSAN mismatches
b) Collect an Ethanalyzer trace to verify the FLOGI frame is received and sent to the NPIV core as an FDISC command
c) Shut, no shut the NPV-attached server port to re-create the problem.
d) Verify the flow using Wireshark

A
  1. What are some troubleshooting steps when an interface show “Waiting for FLOGI?” (7-70)

a) Verify there are no VSAN mismatches
b) Collect an Ethanalyzer trace to verify the FLOGI frame is received and sent to the NPIV core as an FDISC command
c) Shut, no shut the NPV-attached server port to re-create the problem. *The trace will be written to bootflash and can be copied to an external server.
d) Verify the flow using Wireshark

85
Q
  1. What command displays the last 3 log messages in NVRAM?

a) show logging nvram last 3
b) show logging last 3
c) show logging logfile last 3
d) show logging log database last 3

A
  1. What command displays the last 3 log messages in NVRAM? (8-13)
    a) show logging nvram last 3

show logging logfile last 3 - the logfile is in flash, not NVRAM

86
Q
  1. What are the components of remote monitoring?

a) Server
b) SNMP MIB Object
c) RMON Alarm
d) RMON Event

A
  1. What are the components of remote monitoring? (8-20)

b) SNMP MIB Object
c) RMON Alarm - defines the MIB variable to monitor
d) RMON Event - defines the action

87
Q
  1. Cisco GOLD failures trigger predefined system EEM policies.

a) True
b) False

A
  1. Cisco GOLD failures trigger predefined system EEM policies. (8-23)
    a) True - examine system default EEM policies via: show event manager system-policy
88
Q
  1. Cisco GOLD health monitoring diagnostics cannot be disabled.

a) True
b) False

A
  1. Cisco GOLD health monitoring diagnostics cannot be disabled. (8-24)
    b) False - GOLD health monitoring diagnostics are non-disruptive and run in the background. They can be disabled, or the schedule can be changed. Specific GOLD tests can be run on demand.
show diagnostic content module 1 - "D" or "N" flag in the 4th column indicates whether the test is disruptive or non-disruptive.
show diagnostic result - examine test results
89
Q
  1. You cannot view Cisco NX-OS onboard failure logging.

a) True
b) False

A
  1. You cannot view Cisco NX-OS onboard failure logging. (8-32)
    b) False - show logging onboard - OBFL stores failure and environmental data in NVRAM on the module such as CPU hog, memory leak, hardware exceptions, kernel traces, etc.
90
Q
  1. Ethanalyzer was developed by Cisco via proprietary packet capture diagnostic code.

a) True
b) False

A
  1. Ethanalyzer was developed by Cisco via proprietary packet capture diagnostic code. (8-35)
    b) False - The Linus kernel supports packet capturing using the libpcap library via Wireshark open source code (Tshark - CLI version).

ethanalyzer local interface mgmt limit-capture-frames 5 - captures traffic on the supervisor OOB mng interface and displays the decoded packet as they are captured.
Use the “detail” option for full packet decode, not just packet headers (default)

91
Q
  1. Cisco Nexus 7000 allows you to examine NetFlow cache through CLI commands.

a) True
b) False

A
  1. Cisco Nexus 7000 allows you to examine NetFlow cache through CLI commands. (8-50)
    a) True - you can see flow entries being created as packets enter the device and use NetFlow as a real-time troubleshooting tool.
92
Q
  1. What steps are required to configure NX-OS NetFlow?

a) configure a flow record
b) configure a flow exporter
c) configure a flow monitor
d) associate a flow monitor with an interface

A
  1. What steps are required to configure NX-OS NetFlow? (8-51)

b) configure a flow exporter
c) configure a flow monitor
d) associate a flow monitor with an interface

configure a flow record (optional) - there are pre-configured flow records - sw(config-flow-monitor)# record netflow-original
NX-OS can gather NetFlow statistics in full or sampled mode

DCUFI (3 decks)

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