Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Psychiatry > Imp step 3 anki > Flashcards

Imp step 3 anki Flashcards

1
Q

while administering Nalaxone, what determines improvement in the patient?

A

Ventilation RR>12/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what class of drugs are methamphetamines?

A

Sympathomemitic amines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what 3 neurotransmitters does MDMA act on?

A

Noreepinephrine, serotonin and dopamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

SGAs act on which additional receptor as compared to FGA, thus reducing EPS symptoms?

A

antagonsits at the 5HT-2A receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Cardiac complication of coccaine intoxication?

A

thrombus formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

2 complications ingestion of coccain can cause?

A

angioedema and pharyngeal burns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

eye coplications of coccaine

A

acute angle closure glaucoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

prgnancy complication of coccaine?

A

abruptio placenta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

GI complication of cocaine?

A

perforated gastric ulcers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Cocaine blocks ar 2 sites?(mechanism of action)

A

Monoamine reuptake and Na channels are blocked

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

ECG changes with cocaine?

A

QRS prolongation, due to Na channel blockage

Rx:IV sodium bicarbonate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

while intubating or giving a cocain intoxicated patient a musle relaxant- which drug shod NOT be used, which drug should?

A

Do NOT: succinyl choline- prolonged effect

use: Rocuronium which is a non- depolarizing neuromuscular blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Managment of cocaine intoxication?

A

1- benzo
2- phentolamine, nitroglycerine, nitroprusside (for CVS complications)
3- correct hypotension with IV isotonic saline, vasopressors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

which 2 drugs are avoided in cocaine intoxicated patient?

A

beta blockers and succinylcholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

HIV associated dementia patients have 3 specific clinical features?

A
  1. slow movements
  2. difficulty with smooth limb movements
  3. memory decline
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

which psychiatric illness do most Wilson disease patients exhibit?

A

depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

which 2 benzodiazepines are used to treat alcohol withdrawal?

A

lorazepam (intermediate acting-safe in liver damage pts) and Chlordiazepoxide (long acting benzo- not safe in liver damage patients)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

2 drugs that can increase or decrease Lithium levels?

A

loop diuretics and CCB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

4 drugs that increase Lithium levels?

A
  1. ABX: tetracycline, metronidazole
  2. Thiazide
  3. ACE-I and ARBs
  4. NSAIDs except aspirin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

2 drugs that reduce Lithium levels?

A
  1. Theophylline

2. Spirinalactone- loop sparing potassium diuretics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Lorazepam challenge test in the diagnosis of catatonia?

A

1-2 mg IV benzodiazapine , shows symptom improvement in 5-10 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Panic disorder needs symptoms for how long to be diagnosed?

A

> 1 month

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

hallucinations that require hospital admission?

A

command auditory hallucinations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

A patient given FGA or SGA is at risk of developing neuroleptic malignant syndrome for how long?

A

2 weeks after starting the drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

organophosphate poisoning- mechanism?

A

inhibit acetylcholinesterase–> reduced Ach breakdown–> Ach buildup–> “Leaky symptoms” with bradycardia, pin point pupils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

3 OP Poisoning symptoms related to nicotine receptors?

A
  1. Paralysis
  2. muscle weakness
  3. fasciculations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

3 CNS complications related to OP poisoning?

A

seizure (treat with benzos), coma and confusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

4 steps management of acute OP poisoning?

A
  1. 100% o2 and endotracheal intubation
  2. decontaminate clothes and environment
  3. Atropine
  4. Pralidoxime (treats both nicotinic and muscarinic symptoms )
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what does Pralidoxime do?

A

reactivates acetylcholinesterase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what is Organophosphate induced delayed polyneuropathy?

A

1-5 weeks after OP poisoning, patient may develop painful glove and stocking pins and needles pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what type of CBT is used as first line for specific phobia?

A

exposure therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which dopaminergic pathway accounts for movement disorders such as chorea and tics, EPS symptoms?

A

Nigrostriatal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

chronic methaphitamine users develop psychosis. what is the managment?

A

1- CBT to prevent relapse into using again

2- anti psychotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Brain changes seen in panic disorder?

A

decreased amygdala volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

brain changes seen in PTSD?

A

decreased hipocampal volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

conduct disorder symptoms need to be there for how long to make a diagnosis?

A

1 years, with a symptom at least in the last month

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

medication of ADHD?

A

methyphenidate(not given for <6), amphetamines

clonidine, guanfacine(alpha adrenergic antagonists), atomoxetine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Medication in tourettes syndrome?

A

Anti psychotics: Haoperidol, risperidone, PIMOZIDE(QT prologation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

how long odes it take for OCD to develop post Touretts syndrome?

A

3-6 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What kind of (2) kidney injury does chronic lithium therapy cause?

A
  1. Tubulo interstitial Nephritis

2. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

5 tests to do before stating then patient on Lithium?

A

BUN, creat, TFT, urine analysis, ECG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

mechanism of Tardative dyskinesia?

A

Anti psychotics given chronically–> chronic blockage of dopamine receptors–> causes D2 receptor upregulation and supersensitivity.

43
Q

medical managment of PCP?

A
  1. benzodiazepine

2. Anti-psychotics- haloperidol

44
Q

why does MDMA cause hyponatremia?

A
  1. excessive water consumption

2. MDMA - induced ADH secretion

45
Q

best medication for acute mania managment?

A

risperidone (quick onset of action)

FGA or SGA can be used

46
Q

4 side effects immediate to starting an SSRI?

A

Headache, nausea, anxiety and insomnia

47
Q

Management for conversion disorder?

A
  1. education and self help techniques

2. CBT

48
Q

Age group at high risk for opioid use?

A

less than age 45 years

49
Q

disgnostic criteria for lewy body dementia?

A

Dementia + 2/4

  1. visual hallucinations
  2. fluctuating cognition
  3. parkinsons symptoms
  4. REM sleep behaviour disorder
50
Q

Management of Parkinson dementia disorder?

A

1- Donepezil

2- anti psychotics: Pimavanserin, quetiapine

51
Q

Mechanism of Acamprosate?

A

Glutamate modulator

52
Q

first sign of aspirin intoxication/overdose?

A

Hyperventilation leading to respiratory alkalosis

53
Q

5 A.E of aspirin?

A
  1. Tinnitus (even at low doses)
  2. Acid base balance changes- initially respiratory alkalosis(because of hyperventilation) later metabolic acidosis(lactic acid build up)
  3. N/V
  4. Altered mental status
  5. Chronic use-Pulmonary edema
54
Q

Medications of narcolepsy?

A

1- Modafinil

2-Amphetamines and methyphenidate

55
Q

Medications for cataplexy?

A

antidepressants and sodium oxybate

56
Q

Which symptom of TCA overdose is associated with poor prognosis?

A

QRS >100ms

57
Q

least prolactin producing SGAs?

A

Aripiprazole, quetiapine

58
Q

2 drugs that cause multi directional nystagmus?

A

PCP and Ketamine

59
Q

3 tests for salicylate (ASA) intoxication

A
  1. serum salicylate level
  2. lactate levels
  3. metabolic panel
60
Q

Management of ASA overdose?

A
  1. ABC
  2. GI decontamination - Activated charcoal
  3. Sodium bicarbonate to alkalinze urine and serum, if it fails- hemodialysis
61
Q

what drug is used to treat aggression symptoms in ASD?

A

Risperidone

62
Q

6 CNS injury/ conditions to rule out for a patient demonstrating psychosis

A
  1. head Trauma
  2. tumours
  3. Infection
  4. stroke
  5. epilepsy
  6. cerebral hypoxia
63
Q

6 Metabolic conditions to rule out for a patient demonstrating psychosis?

A
  1. urea cycle disorders
  2. acute intermittent porphyria
  3. Wilsons disease
  4. renal/liver failure- hepatic encephalopathy or urea build up
  5. hypoglycemia
  6. electrolyte disturbance
64
Q

2 systemic disorders to rule out for a patient demonstrating psychosis?

A
  1. SLE

2. Thyroiditis

65
Q

5 stimulant illicit drugs to rule out for a patient demonstrating psychosis?

A
  1. Cocaine, amphetamine
  2. LSD, PCP, ketamine
  3. weed
  4. bath salts
  5. Alcohol withdrawal
66
Q

2 drugs that were suddenly discontinued- to rule out for a patient demonstrating psychosis?

A
  1. Benzo

2. Baclofen

67
Q

6 drugs if chronically used can cause psychosis?

A
  1. steroids
  2. isoniazid
  3. anti-convulsants
  4. anti- cholinergic: diphenhydramine
  5. antibiotics: amox, clarithro, erythro
  6. SSRIs- serotonin syndrome
68
Q

5 medications that can induce hyper prolactinemia(25-100nm/ml)

A
  1. risperidone
  2. paliperidone
  3. methyldopa
  4. reserpine
  5. verapamil
69
Q

3 drug groups that can cause neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

A
  1. Anti- psychotics: FGA, SGA
  2. Anti- emetics: metaclopromide, promethazine
  3. discontinuing parkinson medication

all these drug groups focus on messing with the dopamine levels

70
Q

Theophylline mechanism of action?

A

blocks adenosine

71
Q

5 tests to order for theophylline overdose?

A
  1. ECG (r/o arrythmias)
  2. Glucose (hyperglycemia)
  3. electrolytes- K+ (hypokalemia)
  4. Serum Ca
  5. Serum theophylline
72
Q

Adverse effects of theophylline overdose?

A
  1. CNS: seizures
  2. CVS: supraventricular arrythmias (children), ventricular arrythmias (adults)
  3. GI: vomiting, abd pain
  4. MSK: coarse tremors, rhabdomyolysis
  5. electrolytes: hypokalemia, hyperglycemia
73
Q

Management of theophylline overdose?

A
  1. ABC and gastric decontamination (activated charcoal),hemolysis
  2. symptomatic: K+, ondansetron,isotonic saline or propanolol for hypotension, lorazepam (for seizures)
74
Q

Myoclonic jerks are seen in what drug intoxication?

A

Anti-cholinergic

75
Q

2 drugs that worsen Manic episodes?

A

SSRIs and bupropion

76
Q

3 late stage pregnancy complications due to Lithium?

A
  1. Polyhydramnios
  2. Diabetes insipidus
  3. Floppy infant syndrome
77
Q

Which over the counter cold and cough preparations can cause dissociation and hallucinations?

A

Dextromethorphan (NMDA antagonist, a cough suppressant)

78
Q

age group that should be given SSRI black box warning?

A

18-24

79
Q

Mechanism of action of Trazodone and nefazodone

A

Block 5HT receptors and alpha 1 receptors, reduce 5HT re uptake

80
Q

what labs will be elevated in chronic inhalent abusers

A

LFTs

81
Q

for Olanzapine, the sedation s due to — receptor action, and the weight gain is due to – receptor action?

A

sedation: Histamine

Weight gain: histamine and 5HT2c

82
Q

when starting a patient on SGA that cause weight gain, how frequently does the BMI need to be monitored

A

Monthly–> every 3 months–> annual

83
Q

which SGA does not cause tardative dyskinesia?

A

Clozapine

84
Q

how often does the WBC counts of a patient on clozapine need to be monitored

A

every week for the first 6 months

85
Q

ECG changes of ziprasidone?

A

QT prolongation at high doses

86
Q

GAD second line medication after SSRIs?

A

2- Benzos, buspirone

87
Q

when can buspirone be given in a GAD patient?

A

when the patient has no panic, no depression

88
Q

how soon does paradoxical agitation begin after administering benzos?

A

1 hour

89
Q

treatment of OCD?

A

1- CBT/ high dose SSRIs
2- clomipramine
3-Deep brain stimulation

90
Q

conditions to be cautious before doing an ECT?

A

1- recent MI
2- tumor
3-recent stroke
4-unstable aneurysm

91
Q

Valproate A.E?

A

liver disease, thrombocytopenia

92
Q

Lithium is contraindicated in 3 types of patients?

A

1-CKD
2- heart disease
3- hyponatremia/ diuretic use

93
Q

how long does a patient need to fulfill bulimia criteria to receive a diagnosis?

A

3 months

94
Q

which 2 drugs of abuse can result in Myoclonus?

A

bath salts and MDMA(via serotonin syndrome)

95
Q

refractory alcohol withdrawal, after failure of benzos- next Rx?

A

phenobarbitol

96
Q

management of neonatal abstinence syndrome?

A

methadone- to addict mom

morphine- to neonate to help with withdrawal symptoms

97
Q

What is the mechanism of action of naltrexone?

A

Mu opioid blocker

98
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Disulfuram?

A

inhibits aldehyde dehydrogenase

99
Q

Mechanism of prazosin?

A

alpha-adrenergic receptor blocker

100
Q

3 main features of Shy-Drager syndrome/multiple system atrophy?

A

Parkinsonism experiences orthostatic hypotension, impotence, incontinence, or other autonomic symptoms

101
Q

managment of Shy- Drager syndrome?

A

intravascular fluid expansion

102
Q

Mild anti-cholinergic toxicity Mx?

Severe anti- cholinergic toxicity Mx?

A

mild- benzo

sever- physostigmine (contraindicated in TCA receiving patients)

103
Q

what medication causes cataracts and thus requires frequent slit lamp exams?

A

Quetiapine

Psychiatry (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions