Immunpharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

Time for development of primary immune response…

Activation of T cells and AB production takes…

A

8-14d

1-3d

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2
Q

Basophils release…

A
  1. histamine
  2. bradykinin
  3. serotonin
  4. heparin
  5. SRSA
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3
Q

Immunosuppressants generally work better for______

A

primary immune response

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4
Q

Acute rejection is mainly mediated by ____ and ___

A

T cells and cytokines

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5
Q

Three routes of immunosuppression

A
  1. Decrease amount of lymphocyte
  2. Divert lymphocyte traffic
  3. Block pathways involved in lymphocytic response
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6
Q

6 catergories of immunosuppressants

A
  1. regulators of gene expression
  2. alkylating agents
  3. inhibitors of de novo pyrimidine synth
  4. inhibitors of de novo purine synth
  5. Kinase + phosphatase inhibitors
  6. Protein immunosuppressive drugs
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7
Q

Adrenocortical steroid MOA (3)

A
  • reduce levels of lymphocytes
  • Block antigen presentation pathway
  • Inhibit IL-2 gene transcription whih is needed for B and T cell clonal expansion
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8
Q

Example of alkylating agent

A

cyclophosphamide (cytotoxic)

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9
Q

Examples of first and second generation inhibitors of de novo purine synthesis

A

1st gen = AZT + 6-Mercaptopurine

2nd Gen = mizoribine + mycophenolate mofetil

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10
Q

What is MMF

A

inosine 5-MP dehydrogenase inhibitor

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11
Q

Methotrexate and polygentamate derivatives also belong to which class of drugs?

A

Purine synthesis inhibitors

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12
Q

Alkylating agents and Purine synthesis inhibitors – how to they induce/maintain immunosuppression

A

Block DNA/RNA synth

Prevent clonal expansion of B/T cells

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13
Q

Examples of Pyrimidine inhibitors

What is the MOA?

A
  • Brequinar
  • Leflunomide
  • malononitrilomides

inhibit dihydroorotate dehydrogenase

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14
Q

Kinase and phosphatase inhibitor drugs

A

Cyclosporine and tacrolimus

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15
Q

Cyclosporine concentrates in _____

It is given ___ prior to ____

**MOA?**

A

Red/white cells

give 4-24h before transplant

Inhibits the phosphatase activity of calcineurin

= prevents NFAT translocation

**also blocks JNK and p38 signaling

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16
Q

Tacrolimus category and MOA

A

macrolide

binds to FK506-BP 12

= inhibits the phosphatase activity of calcineurin

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17
Q

Sirolimus MOA

What is unique?

A

Binds FKBP12

(same as tacrolimus)

Complex formation with FKBP12 does not inhibit IL-2 production

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18
Q

Antilymphocyte globulins (protein immunosuppressives)

A

muromonab-CD3

Daclizumab

Basiliximab

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19
Q

AntiCD25 mAb’s

A

Daclizumab and Basiliximab

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20
Q

Anti CD3 mAb that binds to TCR-associated CD3 complex and alters T cells

A

Muromonab

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21
Q

RA and Hemolyitc Anemia are diseases that involves overexpression of _____

They would benefit from _____

A

CD20

Anti CD20 mAb’s (which are difficult to make beacuse of CD20’s short extramembrane domain)

22
Q

Belatacept is a _________

Its MOA?

A

“co-stimulatory blocker”

Inhibits CD28-mediated costimulation by binding to CD80 and CD86 –> blocking engagement of CD28 on T cells

23
Q

Use of beletacept is associated with

A

serious side effects in children

24
Q

Selective targeting of ___ rather than ___ may be more effetive to control post-transplant immune responses

A

CD28 rather than CD80/86

25
Rapamycin is a _____ that targets \_\_\_\_\_
macrocyclic lactone mTOR (regulator of proliferation)
26
Rapamycin is generally replaced by \_\_\_\_
everolimus
27
Everolimus is being tried in patients with \_\_\_\_\_\_
renal insufficiency or neoplasia
28
Fingolimod is structurally related to \_\_\_\_ Function?
Myricin (sphingosine analog) Drives lymphocytes into lymphoid tissue (reducing the number of circulating T cells)
29
TNFa inhibitor Used for?
certolizumab pegol RA
30
Three antibody mediated diseases
AI-mediated Hemolytic Anemia M.Gravis Hypoadrenocorticism
31
Two immune complex diseases
SLE RA
32
Antibody/T cell mediated diseases
Thyroiditis AI hypothyroidism
33
AI diseases also arise from deficiencies of
Complement enzymes
34
AZT is metabolized to give \_\_\_
mercaptopurine
35
mercaptopurine is mainly focused on...
humoral immunity
36
Leflunomide is a ____ that is used to treat \_\_\_\_
prodrug of pyrimidine inhibitor RA
37
Cyclosporine -- important fact in treatment
diet must remain consistent without any deviations, blood levels must be closely monitored
38
Systemic allergy treatment now includes
Fatty acids (linoleic and gamma linolenic)
39
H1 blockers (common) Newer gen blockes
Common = diphenhydramine, promethazine, chlorpheniramine New = Rupatadine, cetirizine, fexofenadine
40
In patients with extensive immunnosuppressive therapy, it is important to treat with
prophylactic antivirals
41
Possible approach fo GvsHD
Adenosine agonists (targeting A2A receptors)
42
Most immunostimulants have \_\_\_\_\_\_\_
nonspecific activity toward immune system
43
Echinacea MOA
stimulation of phagocytosis production of interferon and TNF
44
Acemannan MOA
induces MQ activity and IL-1 production
45
Beta1,3 Glucan MOA (3 effects)
binds B1,3Glucan receptor on MQ * Causes nonspecific phagocytosis * Causes release of IL1 and IL2 (trigers other cell lines like T cells) * Stimulates bone marrow production
46
Beta1,3 glucan for what diseases
retroviral, tumors, chemo/radiation
47
QS21 MOA
amplifies B and T cell mediated responses
48
Detoxified Freunds Adjuvant is composed of ______ and causes \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
_monophosphoyl lipid A_ induces T cells to secrete **IFNg**
49
Immunoglobulin therapy results in
prevention of virus penetration into cells for THREE months
50
IVIG used for (6)
1. Hep A 2. Parvo 3. Enterovirus 4. Zoster 5. Hep B 6. RSV
51
Cytokines
IL-2 and IFNa