immunosuppressive therapy in renal disease Flashcards

1
Q

what are the 2 classes of immune mediated renal disease

A
  1. native kidney autoimmune e.g. glomerulonephritis, tubulointerstitial nephritis
  2. transplant kidney -> graft rejection
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2
Q

what are the 3 types of graft rejection

A
  1. hyperacute
  2. acute
  3. chronic
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3
Q

what is a systemic cause of tubulointerstitial nephritis

A

sarcoidosis ->affects tubules but spares glomeruli

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4
Q

3 common immunosuppressants used in renal disease

A
  1. steroids
  2. DMARDs
  3. biologics
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5
Q

types of biologics (2)

A
  1. monoclonal andibodies
  2. polyclonal antibodies -> less specific
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6
Q

what is the gold standard renal replacement therapy

A

transplant

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7
Q

how much does dialysis increase GFR by

A

10

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8
Q

what individuals are high risk for kidney transplant (4)

A
  1. untreated coronary artery disease
  2. active infection
  3. recent malignancy
  4. other co-morbidities
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9
Q

what is hyperacute transplant rejection

A

graft loss within minutes to hours due to pre-formed anti-donor antibodies i the recipient

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10
Q

how is hyperacute transplant rejection avoided

A

pre-operative cross match

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11
Q

what is acute transplant rejection

A

rejection that occurs a few days later -> due to cell or antibody mediated reaction

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12
Q

acute rejection mgx

A

additional immunosuppression

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13
Q

what is chronic transplant rejection

A

rejection that occurs years later -> organ slowly loses its function and symptoms start to appear

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14
Q

how does plasma exchange result in immunosuppression

A

plasma exchange removes antibodies and other plasma proteins

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15
Q

what is plasma replaced with in plasma exchange

A

human albumin or fresh frozen plamsa

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16
Q

what is the mechanism of T cell activation (7)

A
  1. peptide-MHC complex binds to corresponding T cell receptor complex
  2. costimulatory signals bind (must bind to activate response)
  3. signal transduction
  4. nucelic acid synthesis
  5. proetin synthesis
  6. secretion of cytokines
  7. T cell proliferation

-> help is provided to other cells

17
Q

where do azathioprine, MMF, cyclophosphamide etc. act to extert their action

A

in the nucleus to inhibit nucleic acid synthesis

18
Q

what does ciclosporin inhibit

A

calcinerurin (stops signal transduction from surface of T cell to nucleus and enzyme activation)

19
Q

where does belotacet exert its action

A

inhibits the binding of the costimulatory factors at the T cell

20
Q

side effects of corticosteroids

A
  1. impaired glucose tolerance
  2. gastric irritation
  3. osteoporosis
  4. thinning of skin
  5. easy bruising
21
Q

why is neutropenia seen in immunosuppression

A

the cells with the highest proliferation rate are bone marrow -> their action is downregulated and so less neutrophils are produced

22
Q

side effects of calcineurin inhibitors

A
  1. nephrotoxicity
  2. fluid retention/hypertension
  3. hirstuisim
  4. gum hypertrophy
  5. diabetes (esp w tacrolimus)
23
Q

via what system are calcineurin inhibitors metabolised

A

cyt P450 -> multiple drug interactions

24
Q

what common drug does azothiorpine interact with

A

allopurinol - inhibits metabolism, increasing the drug levels in the body

25
Q

Mycophenolate mofetil MOA

A

The active metabolite of mycophenolate, mycophenolic acid, prevents T-cell and B-cell proliferation and the production of cytotoxic T-cells and antibodies via the inhibtion of monophosphate dehydrogenase (required for de novo purine synthesis)

26
Q

how is the action of MMF mainly lymphocyte sepcific

A

inhibits only de novo purine synthesis -> most cells have both de novo and salvage pathways while lympocytes only have de novo

27
Q

rapamycin/sirolimus MOA

A

inhibits signal transduction from IL-2 receptors back to the nucleus -> inhibiting T-lymphocyte activation and proliferation

28
Q

what is the most feared side effect of long term immunosuppression

A

malignancy

29
Q

side effects of rapamycin (5)

A
  1. hyperlipidaemia
  2. impaired wound healing
  3. acne
  4. mouth ulcers
  5. lung infiltrates
30
Q

cyclophosphamide MOA (3)

A

an alkylating agent which works by:
1. attachment of alkyl groups to DNA bases, resulting in the DNA being fragmented by repair enzymes -> preventing DNA synthesis and RNA transcription from the affected DNA;
2. DNA damage via the formation of cross-links (bonds between atoms in the DNA) which prevents DNA from being separated for synthesis or transcription;
3. the induction of mispairing of the nucleotides leading to mutations

31
Q

5 side effects of cyclophosphamide

A
  1. haemorrhagic cyctitis
  2. bone marrow suppression
  3. nausea
  4. hair loss
  5. infertility
32
Q

what abx is used for pneumocystis jiroveci penumonia mgx

A

cotrimoxazole

33
Q

what skin cancer is seen more frequently in immunosuppressed ppl

A

squamous cell carcinoma -> incidence of BCC are also increased but SCC are more common

34
Q

what is EBV-related post transplant lymphoproliferative disorders

A

excessive proliferation of EBV infected B cells due to lack of T cell control -> B cell lymphoma