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IS > ImmunoSero > Flashcards

ImmunoSero Flashcards

1
Q

Network of organs

A

Immunology

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2
Q

Function of Immunology (RRRD)

A

Recognize
Respond
React
Destroy

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3
Q

PRIMARY Immune system organs

A

Bone marrow
Thymus

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4
Q

SECONDARY Immune system organs (5)

A

Spleen
Lymph node
MALT
GALT
Peyer’s patches

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5
Q

Site of B cell maturation
Produce hematopeitic stem cells

A

Bone marrow

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6
Q

Functionally similar to appendix in humans

A

Bursa of Fabricious

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7
Q

Cells that are not committed (lymphoid, myeloid, erythroid progenitors)

A

Stem cells

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8
Q

Site of T cell maturation and differentiation

A

Thymus

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9
Q

Site of T and B cell encounter

A

Secondary Immune System Organs

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10
Q

Houses the lymphoid (B and T cells)

A

MALT/ Mucosa Associated Lymphoid Tissue

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11
Q

Small pox vaccine; cross-immunity

A

Edward Jenner

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12
Q

DISCOVER Phagocytosis

A

Haeckel

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13
Q

EXPLAIN Phagocytosis - Cellular Theory of Immunity

A

Metchnikoff

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14
Q

Mendelian Inheritance

A

Gregor Mendel

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15
Q

Live, attenuated chicken cholera and anthrax vaccine

A

Louis Pasteur

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16
Q

Humoral theory of immunity

A

Emin Von Behring, Kitasata

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17
Q

Type IV Hypersensitivity Demonstration

A

Koch

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18
Q

Discover the complement

A

Jules Bordet

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19
Q

Antibody formation theory

A

Ehrlich

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20
Q

Immediate-Anaphylaxis Hypersensitivity

A

Portier, Richet

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21
Q

Discover the Opsonins

A

Almroth Wright

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22
Q

Large intestinal organ

A

Liver

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23
Q

Cells that can be found on: Chronic dse, tumor, organ donation

A

T cells

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24
Q

Compromised T cell immunity

A

HIV
D’george syndrome
Nezelof’s syndrome

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25
Q

Thymus is located in the:

A

Back of the sternum, near the heart

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26
Q

Largest external organ

A

Skin

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27
Q

Discover the C reactive protein

A

Tillet and Francis

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28
Q

Discover the Ag-ab binding

A

Marrack

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29
Q

Polio vaccine

A

Salk and Sabin

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30
Q

Oral polio vax

A

Sabin

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31
Q

Yellow fever vaccine

A

Reed

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32
Q

Clonal selection theory

A

Burnet

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33
Q

Discover the Monoclonal Abs

A

Kohler, Milstein

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34
Q

First immunoassay that used radioisotope

A

Radioimmunoassay

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35
Q

Discover the radioimmunoassay

A

Rosalyn Yallow

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36
Q

Year the thew T cell receptor gene was discovered

A

1985-1987

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37
Q

Antibody Diversity

A

Susumo Tonegawa

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38
Q

Discover the HPV vaccine

A

Frazer

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39
Q

T or F
HPV Vaccine is not allowed or given to men.

A

FALSE

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40
Q

Types of Immunity

A

Innate
Adaptive

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41
Q

Innate or Adaptive:
Non-specific
Natural
Without memory
Phagocytosis
Non- specific
Short-term

A

Innate

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42
Q

Innate or Adaptive:
Specific
Stimulated
With memory
T and B cell activation
Specific
Long-term

A

Adaptive

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43
Q

Pathogen Recognition for Innate Immunity

A

TLR or Toll-Like Receptors

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44
Q

Pathogen recognition for Adaptive Immunity

A

Memory cells (ex. Booster shot)

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45
Q

Mechanism of Immunologic Injury:
- Allergic or Anaphylactic
- innate
- Basophils and mast cells

A

Type 1

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46
Q

Mechanism of Immunologic Injury:
- Cytologic

A

Type 2

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47
Q

Mechanism of Immunologic Injury:
- Immune complex formation
- Ab attached to organs

A

Type 3

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48
Q

Mechanism of Immunologic Injury:
- Cell-mediated or delayed
- autoimmunity

A

Type 4

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49
Q

Responses of INFLAMMATION (3)

A

Vascular
Cellular
Repair/ Resolution

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50
Q

2 parts of Innate Immunity

A

External defense
Internal defense

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51
Q

The defense system that prevents entry of pathogens into the body

A

External defense

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52
Q

Defense system that kills pathogen that entered and established inside the body

A

Internal defense

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53
Q

pH of skin to prevent infection

A

4.8 to 6.4 pH

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54
Q

Normal flora in the skin

A

S.epidermidis

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55
Q

Normal flora in the oral cavity

A

Viridans strep.

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56
Q

Normal flora in the vagina

A

L.acidophilus

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57
Q

Lactate and fatty acid maintain skin at

A

5.6 pH

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58
Q

Soluble factors in the internal defense system

A

APR or Acute Phase Reactants

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59
Q

Structural barriers: Physical

A

Unbroken skin
Mucosal membrane
Tears
Sweat
Hair/Cilia

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60
Q

Structural barriers: Biological

A

Gut
Skin
Oral cavity
Vagina
Intestine

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61
Q

Gut produce: __________ that binds negatively charged surface if certain bacteria and penetrate to kill

A

Colicins

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62
Q

Bacteria that can be found in the intestine

A

Gram - anaerobic or bacteroides
Enterobacteriaceae

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63
Q

Cells for Cellular Factors (4)

A

Basophils and mast cells
Phagocytic cells
NK cells
Innate lymphoid cells

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64
Q
  • Histamine
  • Regulates T helper cell response to stimulate B cells to produce IgE
  • Short life span
  • Located in the BV
A

Basophil

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65
Q
  • More histamine
  • Has CP, ALP, Proteses
  • For allergic rxn and ag presentation
  • Larger
A

Mast cells

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66
Q

Growth factor for endothelial cells

A

VeGF or Vascular Endothelial Growth Hormone

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67
Q
  • Vasoactive amine
  • Dilate the BV locally
A

Histamine

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68
Q

Produced by in the BV for dilation and autocrine signaling

A

Nitric oxide

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69
Q

What happens to BV if dilated?

A

Will have SPACES
Heparin will control RBCs not to go out

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70
Q

Enzyme that destroys proteins

A

Proteases

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71
Q

How many IgE is needed to activate mast cells?

A

2 IgE

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72
Q

Leukotriene inhibitor

A

Montelukast

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73
Q

Arachidonic acid produces (2)

A

Prostaglandin
Leukotrienes

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74
Q

Ig for
- Th1
- Th2
- Th17 & 9

A

Th1= IgG & IgM
Th2 = IgE
Th17 & 9 = IgG ang IgM

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75
Q

Th1

A

Viral

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76
Q

Th17 & 19

A

Bacterial

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77
Q

Increasing amount of exposure

A

Desensitization

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78
Q

Given to px with anaphylactic shock

A

Epinephrine

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79
Q
  • Principal phagocyte/ first to go to the site of infection
  • Bacterial infx
A

Neutrophils

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80
Q

Other name for Neutrolphil

A

Segs
Segmenter
MIcrophage

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81
Q

2 population granules of Neutrophil

A

Primary/ Azurophilic
Secondary/ Specific

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82
Q

Primary granules contain:

A

MPO
Lysozyme
Elastase
Proteinase-3
Cathepsin G
Defensins

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83
Q

Destroys elastin

A

Elastase

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84
Q

T or F:
Proteinase-3 has anti-bacterial property

A

True

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85
Q

Secondary granules contain:

A

Lysozymes
Lactoferrins
Collagenase
Gelatinase
Respiratory burst components

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86
Q

T or F:
Respiratory burst components are stored in secondary but formed in primary granules.

A

True

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87
Q

Fat that is destroyed by macrophage

A

Mycolic acid

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88
Q

Leukocytes based on abundance

A

Neutrophil
Lymphocytes
Monocytes
Eosinophil
Basophil

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89
Q

Phagocytic cell:
- Regulation of immune response
- mast cell indirect phagocytosis
- increased in allergic rxn
- increased in parasitic infection

A

Eosinophil

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90
Q

Contents of Eosinophilic granules

A

Catalase
Lysozyme
Cytokines
Growth factors
Cationic proteins
Major basic proteins
Histaminase

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91
Q

Create a hole in helminths in basic pH

A

MBP

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92
Q

Largest cell in the peripheral blood

A

Monocytes or MAcrophages

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93
Q

Monocyte 1st type of granules components:

A

Peroxidase
ACP
arysulfatase

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94
Q

Monocyte 2nd type of granules components:

A

B-glucoronidase
Lysozyme
Lipase but no ALP

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95
Q

Interleukins released by the monoyctes during phagocytosis

A

1B
6
12

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96
Q

Interleukin that go to liver to produce CRP to ingest organism

A

Il-6

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97
Q

Interleukin that regulate temperature or stimulates fever

A

Il-1B

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98
Q

Interleukin that activate NK cells for anti-tumor activity

A

Il-12

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99
Q

Coat organism to be recognized

A

Opsonins

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100
Q

Two types of macrophages

A

M1 - Classically activated
M2- Alternatively activated

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101
Q

T or F:
Monocytes are lipid in nature.

A

True

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102
Q

What interferon activates M1

A

IFN-y

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103
Q

What Il activates M2 (2)

A

Il- 13 and Il- 4

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104
Q

M1 produces __, ___, ___ during phagocytosis

A

ROS
NO
Lysosomal enzymes

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105
Q

M1 produces ___, ____, ____, ____ during inflammation

A

Il-2
Il-12
Il-23
Chemokines

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106
Q

M2 produces growth factors and TGF-B for:

A

Tissue repair
Fibrosis

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107
Q

M2 produces Il-10 and TGF- B / Transforming growth factor - B

A

Anti-inflammatory effects

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108
Q

Most effective antigen-presenting cell and most potent phagocyte

A

Dendritic cells

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109
Q

Phagocytic cells

A

Neutrophil
Eosinophil
Monocyte or macrophage
Dendritic cells

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110
Q

Phagocytic cells for healing and repair

A

Macrophage and dendritic cells

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111
Q

MACROPHAGE: Lungs

A

Dust cells
Alveolar macrophage

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112
Q

MACROPHAGE: Liver

A

Kupffer cells

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113
Q

MACROPHAGE: Bone

A

Osteoclast

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114
Q

MACROPHAGE: Placenta

A

Hoffbauer cells

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115
Q

MACROPHAGE: Brain

A

Microgilial cells

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116
Q

MACROPHAGE: Kidney

A

Mesangial cells

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117
Q

MACROPHAGE: Connective tissue

A

Histiocytes

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118
Q

MACROPHAGE: Spleen

A

Littoral cells or splenic macrophage

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119
Q

MACROPHAGE: Blood

A

Monocytes

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120
Q

MACROPHAGE: Skin

A

Langerhans cells

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121
Q

MACROPHAGE: Synovium

A

Type A lining cells

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122
Q

cell eating cell

A

Phagocytosis

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123
Q

Steps in Phagocytosis (6)

A

Initiation
Chemotaxis
Recognition
Ingestion/ Engulfment
Digestion
Exocytosis/ Egress

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124
Q

2 types of Phagocytosis

A

Direct
Indirect

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125
Q

Direct phagocytosis via:

A

PPRR - organism
PAMP - WBC

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126
Q

Indirect phagocytosis via:

A

Opsonins

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127
Q

Most potent chemoattractant

A

C5a

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128
Q

Most potent opsonin

A

CRP

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129
Q

Physical contact bet. WBC and foreign cell

A

Initiation

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130
Q

Recruitment of immune cells to the site of infxn

A

Chemotaxis

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131
Q

Chemical messengers that aid the WBC movements

A

Chemoattractants or Chemotaxin

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132
Q

Chemoattractant

A

65a
C3a
CRP
Il-8

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133
Q

Squeezing out of WBC from blood vessel to tissue

A

Diapedesis

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134
Q

Process of Diapedesis

A

Rolling
Adhesion
Transmigration

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135
Q

Rolling:
L-selectin with bind to

A

Sialyl-Lewis X

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136
Q

Adhesion:
Integrin will bind to

A

E-selectin

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137
Q

T or F:
Lewis is produced in endothelial cells.

A

True

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138
Q

Direct phagocytosis:
- distinguish self from non-self

A

PPRR

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139
Q

Direct phagocytosis:
- present in the foreign organism

A

PAMP

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140
Q

PAMP: Gram +

A

Peptidoglycan

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141
Q

PAMP: Gram -

A

Lipoprotein
LPS

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142
Q

PAMP: Yeast

A

Zymosan

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143
Q

PAMP: FLagellae

A

Flagellin

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144
Q

Receptors in DIRECT phagocytosis

A

PPRR
PAMP
TLR/ Toll-like receptor
CLR/ C-type lectin receptor
RLR- Retinoic Acid - Inducible gene I-like receptor
NOD/ Nucleaotide-binding oligomerization domain receptor

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145
Q

Examples of opsonins

A

CRP
C3b
Antibodies

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146
Q

Light chain enhancer of activated B cell

A

NF-kB

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147
Q

Toll protein is discovered from

A

Fruit fly - Drosophila

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148
Q

CLR binds to ______ and ____ that are found in the fungal cell walls

A

Mannan
B-glucans

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149
Q

Forms Phagosome or vacuole

A

Ingestion or Engulfment

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150
Q

Lysosomal granules + Phagosome =

A

Phagolysosome

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151
Q

Defect in lysosomal enzyme

A

Chediak Higashi

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152
Q

Secondary Digestion Pathway

A

HMP or Hexose Monophosphate Shunt

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153
Q

Digestion of microbes by hydrolytic enzymes

A

Secondary digestion

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154
Q

Defect in NADPH Oxidase

A

Chronic Granulomatous Disease

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155
Q

2 secondary digestion process

A

Oxygen dependent
Oxygen independent

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156
Q
  • Oxidative burst via HMP shunt
  • Produce Oxygen Radicals ( Superoxide, Hydrogen Peroxide, Hypochlorite)
A

Oxygen dependent

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157
Q
  • NADPH Oxidase
  • Depolarization membrane
  • Hydrogen and potassium will enter then alter pH then activate Proteases
A

Oxygen independent

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158
Q

Oxygen radicals that reacts with superoxide

A

Nitric oxide

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159
Q

Convert NADP+ to NAD+

A

NADPH oxidase

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160
Q

Convert Superoxide to Hydrogen Peroxide

A

Superoxide dismutase

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161
Q

Convert Hydrogen Peroxide to Hypochlorite

A

Myeloperoxidase

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162
Q

Damages cell membrane

A

Cathepsin G

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163
Q

Release debris outside the cell

A

Exocytosis or Egress

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164
Q

Toll-like receptors found on the cell surface

A

TLR 1 - Techoic acid
TLR 2 - Lipoproteins
TLR 4 - Lipopolysaccharides
TLR 5 - Flagellin
TLR 6 - Lipopeptides, Lipoteichoic acid, Zymosan

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165
Q

Toll-like receptors found on the endosomal compartments

A

TLR 3 - dsRNA
TLR 7 and 8 - ssRNA
TLR 9 - dsDNA
TLR 10 - unknown

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166
Q
  • cytoplasm
  • serves as intracellular sensors for microbial products
  • inflammatory responses
A

Nod-like receptors or Nucleotide oligomerization domain

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167
Q
  • cytoplasmic sensors
  • production of type 1 interferon
A

Rig-1-like receptors or Retinoid-inducible gene

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168
Q
  • Kiss of death
  • First line of dense against cells that are: virally infected, infected with intracellular pathogen, tumor cells
A

NK cells

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169
Q

Large Granular Lymphocyte

A

NK cells or Natural Killer Cells

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170
Q

T or F:
NK cells are positive in CD16 (FcRy) and CD 56 (CAM)

A

True

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171
Q

T or F:
IFN-y and TNF-a produces cytokines when activated (NK cell)

A

True

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172
Q

Link between innate and adaptive immunity

A

NK cells

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173
Q

NK cells monitors potential target cells thorugh (2)

A

Inhibitory signal
Activating signal

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174
Q

Inhibitory signal:
Receptors which bind to MHC 1

A

CD49/ NKG2A

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175
Q

Activating signal:
Receptors (cancer cells)

A

CD16
NKG2D

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176
Q

Activating signal:
Receptors (viral infxn)

A

ADCC: CD16

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177
Q

ADCC

A

Antibody-dependent cell cytotoxicity

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178
Q

Site: DNA virus

A

Nucleus

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179
Q

Site: RNA Virus

A

Cytoplasm

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180
Q

Process: VIRUS
- “A-P-U-M-A-R”

A

Attachment
Penetration
Uncoating
mRNA
Assemble
Release

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181
Q
  • Bone-marrow-derived cells
  • with lymphocyte morphology but lack markers from lymphocytes
A

Innate lymphoid cells

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182
Q

Tissue signal: Type 1 effect

A

against intracellular oganism

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183
Q

Tissue signal: Type 2 effect

A

parasitic helminth and allergy

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184
Q

Tissue signal: Type 3

A

extracellular organism

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185
Q

Most potent antigen-presenting cell

A

Dendritic cells

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186
Q

Follows phagocytosis

A

Antigen Presentation

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187
Q

Present Ag to CD8+ cells

A

MHC Class 1

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188
Q

Present Ag to CD4+ cells

A

MHC CLass 2

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189
Q

Type of Signal (Antigen Presentation):
- CD 3 proteins
- Z chains
- TCR heterodimer

A

Type 1

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190
Q

Type of Signal (Antigen Presentation):
- CD28 (T cell) to CD 80/26 (Dendritic cells)

A

Type 2

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191
Q

Type of Signal (Antigen Presentation):
- IL-12

A

Type 3

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192
Q

Surveillance cells that checks the MHC Class 1

A

Nk cells/ T cell

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193
Q

Major Histocompatibility Complex Location

A

Chromosome 6p

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194
Q

MHC produces

A

Human- Leukocyte Anitgen (HLA)

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195
Q

T or F:
Major function of MHC is to aid in antigen presentation to T cells

A

True

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196
Q

MHC test of choice

A

Molecular methods (transplant institute)

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197
Q

Type of MHC:
- All nucleated cells
- Present to CD 8+
- Endogenous antigen
- Viral or cytosol antigen
- Ag: HLA A,B,C
- 3 alpha, 1 beta

A

MHC Class 1

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198
Q

Type of MHC:
- B cells, phagocytic cells (Macrophages, neutrophils, dendritic)
- Exogenous antigen
- Bacterial antigen
- Ag: DP, DQ, DR
- 2 alpha, 2 beta

A

MHC Class 2

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199
Q

Type of MHC:
- RBC
- Not capable of antigen presentation
- Ag: Benett Goodspeed

A

MHC Class 3

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200
Q

Disease = HLA present:
Goodpasture’s
Multiple sclerosis

A

DR2

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201
Q

Disease = HLA present:
SLE
Autoimmune thyroid disease
Dermatitis
Herpetiformis

A

DR3

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202
Q

Disease = HLA present:
Rheumatoid arthiritis

A

DR4

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203
Q

Disease = HLA present:
Ankylosing spondylitis or Ankyloarthritis or Bamboo Spine Disease

A

B27

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204
Q

No intervertebral disc

A

Ankylosing spondylitis

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205
Q

Disease = HLA present:
Celiac disease
Dermatitis Herpetiforms

A

B8

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206
Q

Disease = HLA present:
Psoriasis vulgaris

A

Cw6, B17, B13

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207
Q

Disease = HLA present:
Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia

A

B47

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208
Q

Laboratory Test for MHC (Old methods)

A

Microlymphocytotoxicity Test
Mixed Lymphocyte Reaction

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209
Q

Newer detection methods for MHC

A

ELISA Crossmatch
Flow Cytometric Antibody Screen
Multiplex Immunoassay (LUMINEX)

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210
Q
  • Tests for HLA Antigen
  • Use purified HLA ag instead of lymphocytes
A

ELISA Crossmatch

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211
Q
  • Use T or B lymphocytes or purified HLA ag
  • Coat into microparticles
A

Flow Cytometric Antibody Screen

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212
Q
  • Use Px’s HLA ag
    • Mean Fluorescence Intensity
A

Multiple Immunoassay (LUMINEX)

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213
Q

LAD Score Method

A

Logarithm of the Odds score

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214
Q

Biologic Response Modifiers

A

Humoral Factors

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215
Q

4 main sources of BRMs from the mononuclear leukocytes

A

B lymphocyte
T lymphocyte
NK lymphocyte
Monocytes & Macrophages

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216
Q

T or F:
Monocytes & Macrophages secretes IFN-a, Il-1, TNF-a, GM-CSF, M-CSF

A

True

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217
Q
  • Small soluble proteins
  • Chemical signal functions to recruit other immune cells
A

Humoral Factors

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218
Q
  • Polypeptide product of activated cells
  • Control a variety of cellular responses
A

Cytokines

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219
Q
  • First cytokine activity described
  • Retention and accumulation of phagocytes at the sites of infxn
A

Migratory Inhibitory Factor (MIF)

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220
Q

MIF or Migratory Inhibitory Factor Examples

A

Interleukins
Tumor Necrosis Factor
Interferon
Transforming Growth Factor

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221
Q

Innate Immunity Cytokines

A

Chemokines
IFN Type 1 (a & B)
Il-1,6,10,12,15,18
TNF

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222
Q

Adaptive Immunity Cytokines

A

IFN- y
Il-2,4,5,13
Lymphotoxin
TGF-B

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223
Q

Types of Cytokine:
- affects same cell that secreted it

A

Autocrine

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224
Q

Types of cytokine:
- secreted by nearby cells

A

Paracrine

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225
Q

Types of cytokine:
- secreted by the circulatory system
- affect distant celss

A

Endocrine

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226
Q

Massive overproduction of cytokine leading to shock, multi-organ failure, death

A

Cytokine Storm

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227
Q

Rapid screening of bacterial infx secondary to covid

A

Procalcitonin

228
Q
  • COVID Receptor
  • Induce to produce more cytokine
A

ACE-2 Receptor

229
Q

Functions of Interferons (3)

A

Enhance specific gene expression
Inhibit cell proliferation
Augment Immune effector cells

230
Q

Type of interferon:
- Leukocyte IFN
- activates NK cells
- inhibits viral replication

A

Type 1; IFN-a

231
Q

Type of interferon:
- Immune IFN
- Secreted by T cells, Th1, NK cells

A

Type 2; IFN-y

232
Q

Type of Interferon:
- Fibroepthelial IFN
- secreted by dsRNA-induced fibroblast

A

Type 1; IFN-B

233
Q

Principal mediator of Acute Inflammatory response to Gram -

A

Tumor Necrosis Factor

234
Q

effective against Gram + except streptococcus

A

Beta- lysin

235
Q

Site of production of TNF

A

LPS-activated macrophage

236
Q

Recruit and activate phagocytes to kill microbes

A

TNF

237
Q

TNF Concentration:
- acute inflammation

A

Low concentration

238
Q

TNF Concentration:
- systemic effect of inflammation

A

Moderate concentration

239
Q

TNF Concentration:
- causes clinical and pathological abnormalities

A

Large concnetration

240
Q

TNF-a

A

Cachetin

241
Q

TNF-B

A

Lymphotoxin

242
Q
  • Released by Platelets during coagulation
  • heat stable
A

Beta-lysin

243
Q

Multicolony stimulating factor

A

Il-3

244
Q
  • Peptides and proteins
    -Serves as signal molecules
  • Functions through separate receptor
  • Leukocyte is the site of production
A

Interleukin

245
Q
  • glycoproteins
  • increase rapidly during infxn, injury, tse trauma
  • promote phagocytosis and limit destruction through proteolytic enzymes
A

APR or Acute Phase Reactants

246
Q

T or F:
APR is initiated and sustained by cytokine Il-1, Il-6, TNF-a

A

True

247
Q

Half-life of APR

A

2-4 days but CRP has 5-7 hrs

248
Q

APR Protein:
- for opsonization and complement activation
- main substrate is Phosphocholine

A

CRP Or C reactive protein

249
Q

APR Protein:
- Activate monocytes and macrophages
- Increase in chronic inflammation, atherosclerosis, cancer

A

Serum Amyloid A

250
Q

APR Protein:
- general plasma inhibitor of proteases
- inhibites eleastase

A

a-1-antitrypsin

251
Q

APR Protein:
- general plasma inhibitor of proteases
- inhibits elastase
- regulates elastase, Il-1B, Il-6, TNF-a

A

a-1-antitrypsin

252
Q

AAT deficiency

A

Premature emphysema
Liver disease

253
Q

APR Protein:
- Nine serum proteins
- Present and mediates inflammation

A

Complement

254
Q

APR Protein:
- Antioxidant
- Binds irreversibly to free hemoglobin

A

Haptoglobin

255
Q

APR Protein:
- cleaved by thrombin to produce fibrin clot
- promotes aggregation of RBC and platelet by making blood viscous
- Normal value = 200-400 mg/dl

A

Fibrinogen

256
Q

APR Protein:
- Principal copper-transporting protein
- Binds 6 cupric ions per molecule
- Wilson’s disease
- Normal value: 20-40 md/dl

A

Ceruloplasmin

257
Q

Overall body reaction to injury or invasion by an infectious agent

A

Inflammation

258
Q

T or F:
The main purpose of inflammation is to attract cells to the site of infection for phagocytosis

A

True

259
Q

Roles of inflammation (IAS)

A

Initiate
Amplify
Sustain

260
Q

Primary process in inflammation

A

Localized inflammation

261
Q

Final process of inflammation

A

Resolution and repair by Fibroblast

262
Q
  • Early stage of infection
  • Shirt term
A

Acute Inflammation

263
Q
  • Prolonged infection
  • Long term
A

Chronic inflammation

264
Q

Resolution and repair makes fibroblast proliferate resulting to

A

Total repair
Abscess formation
Granuloma formation

265
Q

Cardinal signs

A

Rubor - erythema
Calor - hear
Tumor - edema
Dolor - pain
Functio laesa - loss of function

266
Q

Pressure sensor

A

Pacinian corpuscle

267
Q

Protein complex that recognizes products of dead cells
Ex. Uric acid - by product of purine

A

Inflammasome

268
Q

Components of Inflammasome

A

Sensor protein
Adapter
Enzyme caspase-1

269
Q

Activate caspase-1

A

Il-B

270
Q

Third line of defense

A

Adaptive immunity

271
Q

Types of adaptive immunity

A

Humoral - abs
Cell-mediated - T cells and B cells

272
Q

Cells of adaptive immunity

A

T cells and b cells

273
Q

T or f:
Th1 = intraellular microbes
Th2 = helminthic parasites
Th3 = extracellular bacteria, fungi

A

True

274
Q
  • 60 o 80% lymphocyte fraction
  • for cell-mediated immmunity
  • selected and matures from cortex to medulla
A

T-cells

275
Q

Develomental stages of Tcells

A

Double negative
Double positive
Mature T cells
Activated T cells

276
Q
  • No CD4 and CD8 markers
  • Proliferate due to Il-7
  • Gene arrangement for TCR
A

Double Negative

277
Q

Selection of allele in 1 chromosome

A

Allelic Exclusion

278
Q

Express both CD4 and CD8

A

Double Positive

279
Q

Types of Double Positive

A

Positive selection - retain thymocytes with functinal tcr
MHC Selection - selects thymocytes
Negative selecttion - apoptosis of cells
Colonal deletion- eliminates clone

280
Q
  • Either CD4 and CD8 is present
  • Thelper and T cytotoxic cells
A

Mature T cells

281
Q

T cells with 2/3 population

A

T-helper cells

282
Q

T cells with 1/3 population

A

T cytotoxic cells

283
Q
  • Produce CD25 (Il-2 receptor) to secrete cytokines enhnce B cell ab production
  • Prevent autoimmunity
A

Activated T cells

284
Q

Sub-population of Tcells

A

Th9 = Il-9 produtiion (extracellular bacteria)
Th17 = Il-17 and Il-22 (inflammation and bone destruction)

285
Q
  • inverted CD markers
  • 1:2 ratio
A

AIDS

286
Q
  • For humoral mediated immunity
  • in the bone marrow (stromal cells forming niches)
A

B cells

287
Q

Phases of B cell development

A

Phase 1 - antigen independent
Phase 2 - antigen dependent
Phase 3 - differentiation of plasma cells

288
Q

Phase 1 cells

A

Pro-B cells -heavy and light chain
Pre-B cells - heavy chain and u chain
Immature B cells - complete IgM
Mature B cells- surface IgD

289
Q

Elimination of B cells bearing self-reactive receptors

A

Central tolerance

290
Q

Halmark of adaptive immune system

A

Pre-existing diversity of receptor for Ag

291
Q

Not an end stage cells
Surveillance cell

A

Lymphocyte

292
Q

Remain in the spleen to quickly respond to blood-borne pathogens

A

Marginal zone b cells

293
Q

Migrate to secondary lymphoid organs

A

Follicular cells

294
Q

Most fully differentiated lymphocyte

A

Plasma cells

295
Q

Activators of lymphocytes

A

Monoclonal - antigens
Oligoclonal - superantigens
Polyclonal - mitogens (mitosis =allow proliferation of lymphocytes)

296
Q

B cell mitogen

A

Lipopolysaccharide

297
Q

T cell mitogen

A

Concanavaline A
Phytohemagglutinin

298
Q

Both T and B mitogen

A

Pokeweed mitogen

299
Q

Laboratory Identification of Lymphocytes (3)

A

Density Gradient Centrifugation - Ficoll- Hypaque
Roswell Park Memorial Institute Medium - RPMI 1640
Flow cytometry - gold standard

300
Q
  • E-rosette Test
  • CD2 receptor on sheep RBC
  • End product: cytokines
  • Location: Paracortical region
A

T cell

301
Q
  • Surface Ig Detection
  • IgD and igM on the surface of naive B cells
  • End product: Abs
  • Location: Cortical region
A

B cell

302
Q

Forms of Acquired Immunity

A

Active Natural - infxn
Active Artificial - vaccination
Passive Natural - in-vivo transfer
Passice Artificial - infusion of plasma/serum

303
Q
  • Proteins
    -Binds with Ag
  • Site of Production = Plasma cells, spleen, lymph nodes
  • Determinant = PARATOPE
A

Antibody

304
Q

Antibody Structure

A

2 light chains - kappa or lambda
2 heavy chains - gamma, alpha, delta, epsilon, mu

305
Q

Change in class of antibody

A

Isotype switching

306
Q

Structural regions of Antibody (5)

A

Variable = amino terminal end
Constant = carboxy terminal end
Hinge = bet. Ch2 and ch3; PROLINE
Fc = fragment of crystallization; WBC binding site
Ch2 and Ch3 = complement binding site

307
Q

Enzyme digestion (2)

A

Papain = 1st disulfide bond, 3 fragments
Pepsin = 2nd disulfide bond, 2 fragments

308
Q

Unit of sedimentation rate of Immunoglobulin

A

Svedberg

309
Q

Heavy chain differences

A

Isotypes

310
Q

Minor variation

A

Allotype

311
Q

Variable part of LC and HC

A

Idiotypes

312
Q

pH for Ab gamma region

A

8.6

313
Q

Production of monoclonal antibody by a hybridoma cell (immortally producing abs)

A

Hybridoma technology

314
Q

Plasma cell + Myeloma cell

A

Hybridoma cell

315
Q

Surfactant used for Hybridoma Technology

A

PEG or Polyethylene Glycol

316
Q

Medium used for Hybridoma Technology

A

HAT or Hypoxanthine - Aminopterin - Thymidine

317
Q

Formerly used potentiator for Hybridoma Technology

A

Sendai virus

318
Q

Antibody Isotypes (5)

A

IgG
IgA
IgM
IgD
IgE

319
Q
  • Anamnestic response antibody
  • Activate complement classical pathway
  • Most abundant in SERUM
  • most efficient in PRECIPITATION
  • Can cross placenta
  • Opsonin, viral neutralization, ADCC
A

IgG

320
Q

Types of IgG

A

IgG1 = cross placenta
IgG2 = cannot cross immediately
IgG3 = fix complement
IgG4 = cannot fix complement; destroyed in the spleen

321
Q
  • Secretory components
  • B cell production (MALT)
A

IgA

322
Q

Types of IgA (2)

A

Monomeric IgA = blood
Dimeric IgA = secretions

323
Q
  • Primary reponse antibody
  • Activates complement classical pathway
  • Acute infection indication
  • With joing chain or J chain
  • Macroglobulin
A

IgM

324
Q

Types of IgM

A

Monomeric IgM = surface of naive B cell
Pentameric IgM = plasma

325
Q
  • Surface of naive B cell
  • Extended hinge region
  • For B cell activation, maturation, differentiation
A

IgD

326
Q
  • Most heat labile
  • Reagenic antibody/ Homocytotropic antibody
  • Binds with mast cells, eosinphils, basophils
A

IgE

327
Q

Antigen- Antibody Interaction:
- Association constant
- Univalent antigen

A

Affinity

328
Q

Antigen- Antibody Interaction:
- Overall binding
- Multivalent antigen

A

Avidity

329
Q

Antigen- Antibody Interaction:
- Test negative
- Abscence of homologous ag

A

Specificity

330
Q

Antigen- Antibody Interaction:
- Test positive
- Presence of homologous antigen

A

Sensitivity

331
Q

Antigen- Antibody Interaction:
- Bind similiar but not identical isotope

A

Cross Reactivity

332
Q

Antigen- Antibody Interaction:
- PRIMARY Interactions (3)

A

Vanderwaals = hydrophobic
Ionic and hydrogen bonds = hydrophilic
Covalent bond

333
Q

Antigen- Antibody Interaction:
- SECONDARY Interactions (2)

A

Precipitation = antibody + soluble antigen
Agglutination = antibody + particulate antigen

334
Q

Stages of Agglutination (3)

A

Sensitization
Lattice Formation
Effect on Tissue

335
Q

Factors that affect Ag- Ab binding

A

Ag - Ab ratio = Pro zone, zone of equi, post zone
pH = 6.5 to 7.5
Length of incubation
No. of antigens
Location of antigens
Centrifugation
Potentiators = LISS, PEG, Bovine albumin
Rouleaux and True agglutination = Add NSS for pseudo agglutination
Antibody isotope
Temperature = IgM (RT) , IgG (high temp)

336
Q

Antibody generators

A

Antigen

337
Q
  • Antigenic determinant = Epitope
  • 2 types= complete and incomplete (need haptens)
A

Antigen

338
Q

Antigens capable of inducing immiune response

A

Immunogen

339
Q

Forms of Antigens (3)

A

Autologous = induce autoantibody formation
Homologous = antibody production specific to antigen
Heterologous = cross-reaction, reacts with antibody it did not induced

340
Q
  • Small molecules
  • Immunogenic when paired with high MW carrier
A

Haptens

341
Q
  • Added to vaccine
  • Enhance immune response
  • Ex. Squaline, MF-59, Freund’s complete adjuvant, Alum Precipitate
A

Adjuvants

342
Q
  • Antigens that cancactivate T cells by nonspecifically binding to MHC molecule
  • Do not require anitgen processing
  • Cytokine storm
A

Superantigens

343
Q

Detectable range of test system

A

Linearity

344
Q

Dengue serotype that can cause hemorrhagic fever

A

Dengue serotype 1

345
Q

Traits of Immunogen (5)

A

Macromolecule size = > or = 10 to 100 kDA
Foreigness = Non-self (Lens protein, sperm, brain, thyroglobulin)
Chemical composition = Proteins and polysaccharides
Ability to be processed and presented with MHC
Route and dosage = IV and Intraperitoneal

346
Q
  • Least immunogenic organ
  • No blood supply
A

Cornea

347
Q
  • Most immunogenic organ
A

Bone Marrow

348
Q

Properties of Immunogens

A

T cell-independent = stimulate B cells directly, Ag processing is not required
T cell-dependent = Need T cell recognition, Ag processing is required

349
Q

Induces cytolytic destruction by forming MAC to make hole in the cell membrane

A

Complement System

350
Q

COMPLEMENT SYSTEM:
Inactivated at ____ for ____ mins
Must be used within _____ hrs

A

56 degrees celsius
30 mins
4 hrs

351
Q

COMPLEMENT SYSTEM:
If not used within 4 hours, heat at _____ celsius for ______ mins

A

56 degrees
10 mins

352
Q

Complement Pathways (3)

A

Classical = ab is attached to ag
Alternative = activating surfaces like LP
Lectin Pathway = lectin initiates binding of MBL/ Mannose Binding Lectin

353
Q

Used for screening for bacterial infection

A

Procalcitonin

354
Q

Regulatory Proteins (5)

A

C1 inhibitor / C1INH = detaches C1r and C1s from C1
Factor I = cleaves C3b and C4b
Factor H = cofactor to factor I to inactivate C3b
C4 Binding Protein = cofactor to factor I to inactivate C4b
S protein/ Vitronectin = prevents attachment of C5b67 to cell membrane

355
Q

Disorders resulting from complement deficiency

A

C1 inhbitor = Hereditary Angioneurotic Edema
C1, C2, C4, C7 = SLE- like syndrome
C5 - C8 = Neisseria infection
C3 = Severe recurrent infection
C2 = most common deficiency
C9 = no known disease

356
Q
  • Exaggerated response
  • harmless antigens that results to tuissue injury
  • Influenced by environment and gene
  • Treament: Anti-histamine, docingestant and corticosteriod
A

Hypersensitivity reaction

357
Q

Monoclonal anti-IgE blocks the binding site of IgE to mast cells and basophils

A

Omalizumab

358
Q
  • Preferred method of screening type 1 in hypersensitivity reaction
  • Smaal mamt of allergen is injected in the skin
  • Wheal or flare reaction within 20 mins
A

In Vivo Prick Test

359
Q
  • Alternative test instead of In Vivo Prick Test
  • Unable tol tolerate skin testing
A

Noncompetitive Solid Phase Immunoassay

360
Q

Types of Hypersensitivity Reactions

A

Type 1 = allergic or anaphylactic
Type 2 = cytotoxic
Type 3 = immune complex deposition
Type 4 = delayed

361
Q

Immune mediators for Types of Hypersensitivity Reactions

A

Type 1 = IgE
Type 2 = IgG or IgM
Type 3 = IgG or IgM
Type 4 = T cells

362
Q

Immune Mechanism of Types of Hypersensitivity Reactions

A

Type 1 = IgE sensitized mast cells and basophils
Type 2 = ADCC destruction
Type 3 = Ag - Ab complex
Type 4 = Ag - sensitized Th1 cells to relase cytokines

363
Q

Clinical examples for Types of Hypersensitivity Reactions

A

Type 1 = Anaphylaxis, allergic rhinitis, asthmas, food allergies, urticaria
Type 2 = HTR, AIHA, HDF, Drug reaction, Myasthenia gravis, Graves, Good pasteurs
Type 3 = Serum sickness, Arthus reaction, SLE, RA, Drug reaction
Type 4 = contact dermatitis, tuberculin and anergy skin test, hypersensitivity pneumonitis

364
Q

Tests for Types of Hypersensitivity Reactions

A

Type 1 = In vivo skin test
Type 2 = DAT (HTR, AIHA, HDFN)
Type 3 = - Ag from animal source
Type 4 = Skin test, PPD testing (48-72 hrs)

365
Q
  • Failed tolerance results to
A

Autoimmunity

366
Q

Autoimmune Diseases = Autoantibody

A

SLE = Anti-DNA, Anti- nuclear, Anti- ribosome, Anti-DNP
Primary biliary cirrhosis = Anti-mitochondrial
Chronic Active Hepatitis = Anti- smooth muscle antibody
Hypothyroidism = Anti- TPO, Anti-microsomzl Anti-thyroglobulin
Hyperthyroidism = Anti- TSH receptor, Anti-thyroglobulin
Goodpasteur’s Sydrome = Antiglomerular Basement Membrane (Edema)
Wegener’s Disease = c-ANCA
Churg - Strauss Sydrome = p-ANCA
DM Type 1 = Anti-insulin, Anti- Beta cells
Addison’s Disease = Abs against adrenal glands
Multiple sclerosis = Anti-myelin sheath ab
Myasthenia gravis = Anti-acetylcholine recptor
Pernicious anemia = Anti-parietal cell
Rheumatoid arthritis =Rheumatoid factor
ITP = Anti-platelet
Pemphigus vulgaris = Anti-desmosome
Bullous pemhigoid = Anti- hemidesmosome

367
Q

Laboratory diagnosis for Autoimmunity

A

LE preparation
Rheumatoid factor
Immunochromatography
Immunofluorescent staining

368
Q

Circular dsDNA substrate in anti-dsDNA detection

A

Crithidia lucilliae

369
Q

Immmunofluorescent staining results:
Fluorescence patterns

A

Diffuse = anti-dsDNA and anti- Histone
Nucleolar = anti- RNP
Speckled = most common; anti-RNP and anti-smith
Peripheral = anti-DNA and anti-lamins
Centromere = anti- centromere; CREST (Calcinosis, Reynaud’s, Esophageal dysmotility, Sclerodactyly, Telangiectasia

370
Q

Transplant immunology (3)

A

Allorecognition
Graft vs. Host Disease
Graft rejection

371
Q

Allrecognition types

A

Autograft = same individual
Xenograft = 2 individuals, diff species
Allograft = 2 individuals, same species
Sygeneic graft = identical twins

372
Q

Immunocompetent lymphocytes induced to immunocompetent individuals

A

GVHD

373
Q

Type of graft rejection

A

Hyperacute = within minutes, humoral
Accelerated = 2 to 5 days, cell mediated
Acute = 7 to 21 days, cell mediated
Chronic= > 3 months, cell mediated
Immunopathologic damage to the new organ = > 3 months, immune complex disorder

374
Q

Uncontrolled growth of normal cells

A

Neoplasia

375
Q

Types of neoplasia

A

Benign = non-cancerous
Malignant = cancerous (-oma)

376
Q

Neoplasia:
- Epithelial cell

A

Carcinoma

377
Q

Neoplasia:
- connective tissue

A

Sarcoma

378
Q

Neoplasia:
- bone marrow

A

Leukemia or Lymphoma

379
Q

Protein seen in multiple myeloma

A

Bence Jones Protein

380
Q

Spread of cancer cells

A

Metastasis

381
Q

Tumor markers:
ONCOFETAL ANITGENS (2)

A

CEA = gastrointestinal, colorectal
AFP = hepatoma

382
Q

Tumor markers:
CARBOHYDRATE ANTIGENS (4)

A

CA125 = Ovarian
CA15-3 = Breast
CA19-9 = Pancreatic, gastric
CA72-4 = Gastric

383
Q

Tumor markers:
ENZYMATIC MARKERS (2)

A

PSA = Prostate
ALP = Bone

384
Q

Tumor markers:
HORMONES (3)

A

Beta-HCG = Testicular
Calcitonin = Medullary thyroid
Gastrin = Gastric

385
Q

Tumor markers:
ONCOGENES (3)

A

BRCA-1 and 2 mutations = breast
Her2neu = breast
CYFRA21-1 = lung

386
Q

Tumor markers:
OTHERS (4)

A

Bombesin = oat cell
IGF-1 = pituitary
Il-2 = leukemia
NMP/ Nuclear Matrix Protein= bladder

387
Q

Depleting immune system

A

Immunodeficiency

388
Q

Immunodeficiency classification (2)

A

Primary = inherited (genetics)
Secondary = other factors (aging, stress, chronic disorders, viruses, lifestyle)

389
Q

Immunodeficiency:
Phagocytic cell Deficiency (5)

A

CGD = defect incytochrome B
MPO def = defect in HMP shunt, decreased conversion to hypochlorite
G6PD def = genetic impairment of Neutophil’s aerobic system
Chediak higashi = genetic abnormal fusion of neutrophil granules (Albinism, photosensitivity, giant platelets)
Lazy leukocyte syndrome = (Job syndrome, Tuffsin def, Actin dysfunction)

390
Q

Immunodeficiency:
B cell immunodeficiency (4)

A

X-linked Bruton’s Agammaglobulinemia
Common variable hypogammaglobulinemia
Selective IgA deficiency = most common congenital immunodeficiency
Neonatal agammaglobulinemia

391
Q

Immunodeficiency:
T cell immunodeficiency (2)

A

DiGeorge syndrome = abnormal development of thymus gland
Nezelofs syndrome = athymic px

392
Q

Immunodeficiency:
Combined T and B cell deficiency (3)

A

SCD = decreased T and B cells
Wiskot- Aldrich = Triad (Thrombocytopenia, immunodeficiency, eczema)
Bare lymphocyte = defect in MHC Antigen expression (Class 1 and 2)

393
Q

Study of fluid component of blood (Ab)

A

Serology

394
Q

Most frequent encountered specimen for serology

A

Serum

395
Q

Commonly used Pipette in serological testing

A

Micropipettes

396
Q

Tubes used for serological testing

A

Red top sterile tube / Gold top tube

397
Q

Make less concentrated solution from a reagent

A

Dilution

398
Q

Types of dilution

A

Simple
Compound
Serial = use titer (ab strength); common: doubling dilution

399
Q

Proportion of people who have the disease

A

Sensitivity

400
Q

Proportion of people who do not have the disease

A

Specificity

401
Q

Probability that positive screening test has the disease

A

Positive predictive value

402
Q

Probability that negative screening test does have the disease

A

Negative predictive value

403
Q
  • Ab excess
  • Remedy: dilution
A

Pro zone

404
Q
  • Ag excess
A

Post zone

405
Q
  • Ag closely resemble one another
  • Ab formed against one will react with the other
A

Cross reactivity

406
Q

Removal of bound abs

A

Elution

407
Q

Attachment of unbound abs

A

Adsorption

408
Q

Sensitive than slide testing

A

Tube testing

409
Q

Rapid reading and only need small volume of specimen

A

Slide testing

410
Q

Agglutination grading:
- no agglutinates

A

0

411
Q

Agglutination grading:
- tiny agglutinates, turbid

A

w+

412
Q

Agglutination grading:
- small agglutinates, turbid

A

1+

413
Q

Agglutination grading:
- medium-sized, clear

A

2+

414
Q

Agglutination grading:
- Large agglutinates, clear

A

3+

415
Q

Agglutination grading:
- One solid aggregates, clear

A

4+

416
Q

Causes of false reactions in agglutination:
False positive reaction (7)

A

Overcentrifugation
Contaminated glasswares
Autoagglutination
Saline stored in glass bottles
Cross-reactivity
RF, Heterophile ab
Delay in reading

417
Q

Causes of false reactions in agglutination:
False negative (7)

A

Undercentrifugation
Inadequate washing of cells
Delay in testing
Incorrect incubation temp
Insufficient incubation time
Prozone phenomenon
Failure to add AHG rgt

418
Q

Agglutination rxns (7)

A

Direct
Indirect
Reverse passive
Agglutination inhibition
AHG mediated
Viral hemagglutination
Hemaglutination inhibition

419
Q
  • Natural carrier of Ag
  • Febrile agglutination test
  • ABO Forward typing
A

Direct agglutination

420
Q

Febrile agglutination test (2)

A

Widal = salmonella ab
Weil felix = ricketssia ab

421
Q
  • Artificial carrier antigen
  • Carriers = Polystyrene latex, bentonite, beads, charcoal
  • ASO latex agglutination test
A

Indirect agglutination

422
Q
  • Artificial carrier of ab
  • CRP Latex agglutination test
A

Reverse passive agglutination

423
Q

2 stages of agglutination inhibition test

A

1st = add soluble rgt. ab
2nd = add ag-coated latex particle

424
Q

AHG-mediated agglutination types (2)

A

Direct = in vivo, spx= rbc
Indirect = in vitro , spx= serum

425
Q

Precipitation by Light measurement (2)

A

Nephelometry = light scattered
Turbidimetry = light blocked

426
Q

Passive immunodiffusion types (2)

A

Single = only ag diffuses
Double = both ag and ab diffuses

427
Q

Single immunodiffusion types (2)

A

Linear = James Oudin test
Radial = Fahey- Mckelvy (Kinetic) & Mancini (End point)

428
Q
  • Double immunodiffusion
  • Double angular diffusion
  • Ag (outer) , Ab (inner well)
A

Ouchterlony Double Diffusion

429
Q

Result patterns for Ouchterlony Double Diffusion Test (3)

A

Identity = common epitope
Non-identity = no common epitope
Partial identity = single spur

430
Q

General steps for Electrophoresis (3)

A

Separation = electrophoresis
Staining = Amido black, ponceau S, coomassie brilliant blue
Densitometry = band quantification

431
Q

Separation Electrophoresis (2)

A

Zone Electrophoresis = 5 bands
High resolution electrophoresis = 12 bands

432
Q
  • One stage electrophoresis
  • Single ID + Electric current
  • Rocket precipiti
A

Rocket electrophoresis

433
Q
  • One stage electrophoresis
  • Countercurrent
  • Double ID + Electric current
  • Precipitin line
  • Ag moves to anode (+)
  • Ab moves to cathode (-)
A

Counterimmunoelectrophoresis

434
Q

Two stage electrophoresis (3)

A

Classic Immunoelectrophoresis
Immunofixation electrophoresis
Crossed 2D immunoelectrophoresis

435
Q
  • Electrophoresis + Immunodiffusion
  • Trough
  • Precipitin arc
A

Classic immunoelectrophoresis

436
Q
  • Electrophoresis + Immunodiffusion
  • Gel
  • Precipitin bands
A

Immunofixation electrophoresis

437
Q
  • Electrophoresis + electrophoresis
  • 2nd gel
  • Precipitin rockets
A

Crossed 2D immunoelectrophoresis

438
Q

Marker of ag-ab binding

A

Label

439
Q

Examples of label in Labeled Immunoassay

A

Enzyme
Fluorescein dye
Radioisotopes

440
Q

Steps in Labeled Immunoassay

A

Separation = separate bound and free reactants
Detection = label dependent

441
Q

Physical methods for Labeled Immunoassay: SEPARATION

A

Decantation, centrifugation, filtration

442
Q

Solid phase vehicle for labeled immunoassay (5)

A

Polystyrene tubes
Microtiter tubes
Glass or polystyrene beads
Magnetic beads
Cellulose membranes

443
Q

Label for Labeled Immunoassay : DETECTION (3)

A

Enzyme = Spectrophotometer
Fluorescein dye = Fluorometer, flow cytometer, spectrophotometer
Radioisotopes = Gamma scintillation counter

444
Q
  • Cheap and readily available
  • Ag or ab detection use
  • Commonly used labels = Alkaline phosphatase (Bovine intestine), Horseradish peroxidase (Horseradish), B- galactosidase (E.coli)
A

Enzyme aim,unoassay or ELISA

445
Q

Noncompetitive EIA

A

Indirect = detects abs , solid phase= ag, direct concentration proportion , label AHG
Direct = detects ag, solid phase= ab, direct concentration proportion
, label Ab against ag
Sandwich = detects ag, solid phase= ab, direct concentration proportion , label AHG

446
Q
  • Detects ag
  • Solid phase = ab
  • Label = ag
  • INVERSE concentration proportion
A

Competitive EIA

447
Q
  • Detects ag
  • Solid phase = Unattached abs
  • Labels = Abs
  • Direct concentration proportion
A

Immunozymetric

448
Q
  • Typically used label = FITC, Tetramethyrhodamine, Phycoerythrin, Europium, Lucifer yellow
  • Direct = rgt is labeled ab and speciment is ag
  • Indirect = rgt is ag and labeled ag and specimen is ab
A

Fluorescence Immunoassay

449
Q

Most popular radio immunoassay label

A

I 125

450
Q
  • First type immunoassay developed
  • Radiation hazard
  • Forms: Non-competitive, comptetitive, immunoradiometric
A

Radioimmunoassay

451
Q

Quantitate total IgE

A

Radioimmunosorbent assay (RIST)

452
Q

Antigen specific IgE

A

Radioallergosorbent Test (RAST)

453
Q
  • Emission light caused by chemical reaction
  • Labels = Luminol, Acridium esters, Ruthenium derivatives, Nitrophenyl oxalate
  • For cardiac marker, hormones, Vit D level, total IgE
A

Chemiluminiscent Immunoassay

454
Q

Unexpected fall of analyte concentrstion due to ag excess

A

Hook effect

455
Q
  • uses electrochemical compound
  • Solid phase = magnetic beads
  • Light measured by photomultiplier tube
A

Electro-chemilumiscence Immunoassay

456
Q

Two types of Nucleic Acids

A

DNA = deoxyribose sugar, double stranded
RNA = ribose sugar, single stranded

457
Q

Central Dogma of Life

A

Replication
Transcription
Translation

458
Q

Hybridization techniques

A

Southern blot
Microarray technology
Fluorescent in situ hybridization

459
Q

Amplification techniques

A

Target amplification = PCR, Transcription mediated amplification, Ligase chain reaction
Probe amplification = standard displacement amplification, cleavase/ invader technology
Signal amplification = branched DNA, Hybrid capture assays
Whole genome amplification

460
Q
  • Amplifies tiny quantities of nucleic acid up to detectable levels
  • Reagents = combination freshly prepared reagents
A

PCR or Polymerase Chain Reaction

461
Q

Reagents of PCR:
- medium to suspend reagents

A

Water

462
Q

Reagent of PCR:
- maintains pH

A

Buffer

463
Q

Reagent of PCR:
- cofactor to enzyme

A

MgCl2

464
Q

Reagent of PCR:
- Building blocks of DNA

A

Nucleotide

465
Q

Reagent of PCR:
- starting point

A

Fore primer and reverse primer

466
Q

Reagent of PCR:
- stabilize temperature (from Thermus aquaticus)

A

Taq polymerase

467
Q

Steps in PCR: (3)

A

Denaturation = heat to 95 degrees to separate dsDNA to single strands
Annealing = cool to 52 degrees from primers to bind to complimentary sequence on each DNA strands
Elongation = 72 degrees, heat-stable DNA polymerase binds to primer syntehsize new strand of DNA

468
Q
  • Measures multiple properties of cells suspended in a moving fluid medium
  • Identify and enumeratevvarious cell population
A

Flow Cytometry Analysis

469
Q

Laboratory tests for Syphilis Serology (2)

A

Direct test
Non- treponelmal test

470
Q

Species of Treponema (4)

A

T. pallidum subsp pertenue = YAWS
T. pallidum subsp endemicum = BEJEL
T. carateum = PINTA
T. cuniculi = RABBIT

471
Q

Physical process of contact and adhesions wherein aggregates form karger-size clusters called flocs or flakes

A

Flocculation

472
Q

Clinical stages of Syphilis (4)

A

Primary = hard chancre, blood
Secondary = conylomata lata, blood
Latent = no s/s, blood and csf
Tertiary = Gummata’s lesion,csf

473
Q

Detects anti-cardiolipin

A

Non-treponemmal test

474
Q
  • Quali or quanti slide flocculation test
  • Spx: Serum and CSF
  • Read microscopically
A

VDRL

475
Q

VDRL requires serum inactivation (2)

A

Heat serum for 30 mins at 56 degreees
Use serum within 4 hours

476
Q

Reagents for VDRL (3)

A

0.03% cardiolipin
0.9% cholesterol
0.21% lecithin

477
Q

Gauge of needles for Hamilton syringe (VDRL)

A

Qualitative = 18g (60 + or - then 2 drops)
Quantitative = 19g (75 + or - then 2 drops) or 23g (100 + or - then 2 drops)

478
Q

Antigen that stabilizes Ag and inactivates complement (RPR)

A

EDTA
Na2HPO4
Thimerosal
Charcoal
Choline chloride

479
Q

RPR:
Place serum-ag mixture in a rotator for _____ min @ 100 rpm

A

8 min
100 rpm

480
Q

RPR:
- Uses plastic-coated disposable card with ______ circles instead of glass slide

A

10-18 mm circles

481
Q

RPR:
- Gauge no. of needles
- Drops of Ag suspension/ml

A

20 gauge
60 + or - 2 drops

482
Q

Old to new world

A

Smallpox

483
Q

New to old world

A

Syphilis

484
Q

Treponemal tests for Syphilis (2)

A

T. plallidum Immobilization Test
FTA-Abs

485
Q
  • Trepnemal test for syphilis
  • Specimen = Serum
  • Reagent = Motile bacterial suspension
  • Interpretation = POS >50% immobilized, NEG <50, DOUBTFUL 20-50%
A

T.pallidum Immobilization Test

486
Q
  • Treponemal test for syphilis
  • Specimen = Serum
  • Reagent = dead T.pallidum in slide (Nichol’s virulent strain)
  • Label = FITC- AHG
  • Sorbent = Reiter strain
  • View under UV light
A

FTA-Abs

487
Q

Agglutination Tests (4)

A

TP Hemagglutination
Microhemagglutination
Hemagglutination Treponemal Test for Syphilis
TP- Particle Agglutination

488
Q

Agglutination Test:
- Reagent = Tanned SHeep RBC coated with Ag from Nichols strain
- Confirmatory test = Indirect hemagglutination

A

TP Hemagglutination or TPHA

489
Q

Agglutination Test:
- Reagent = Formalinized tanned sheep rbc coated with ag from Nichol’s strain
- Performed in microtechnique

A

Microhemagglutination or (MHA) TP

490
Q

Agglutination Test:
- Reagent = Glutaraldehyed- stabilized turkey RBCs
- Automated version of TPHA

A

Hemagglutination Treponemal Test for Syphilis

491
Q

Agglutination test:
- Reagent = Gelatin particles (instead of RBC) sensitized with T.pallidum
- Indirect Agglutination Test

A

TP- Particle Agglutination

492
Q
  • Retrovirus containing RNA and Reverse Transcriptase
  • Target cell = CD4+ T cells
A

HIV Serology

493
Q

Type of HIV :
- Formerly Human T-cell lymphotropic virus type III, Lyphadenopathy- associated virus, AIDS- associated retrovirus
- Causative agent of AIDS in US and Europe

A

HIV - 1

494
Q

Type of HIV:
- Endemic in West Africa
- Less pathogenic
- Lower rate of transmission

A

HIV - 2

495
Q

3 major routes of HIV transmission

A

Intimate Sexual Contact
Parenteral from body fluid/blood
Perinatal from infected mother (Vertical transmission)

496
Q

Responsible for binding to CD 4 receptor of T cells (HIV)

A

gp120

497
Q

First antibody to appear (HIV)

A

Anti-p24

498
Q

HIV:
- Screening test

A

ELISA

499
Q

HIV:
- Confirmatory test

A

Western blot

500
Q
  • Positive = + at least 2 bands
  • Bands = p24, gp41, gp120/160
A

Western blot (HIV)

501
Q

HIV:
- Ratio of CD4:CD8

A

1:2 or 0.5:1

502
Q
  • CD4 count in AIDS
A

<200 ul

503
Q

Confirmatory test for HIV in Philippines

A

RHiVDA or Rapid HIV Diagnostic Algorithm

504
Q

HIV:
- Test used 5 days from initial contact of infective agent

A

NAT

505
Q

HIV strains (2)

A

T-tropic X4) strain - HIV infecting T cells (lymphocyte strain)
M-tropic (R5) strain - HIV infecting both T cells and macrophage (monocyte strain)

506
Q

HIV Transmission %
- Blood transfusion
- Sexual intercourse; receptive anal intercourse

A

90%
6-8%

507
Q

Syphilis Serology

A

RPR - screening test
FTA - confirmatory
ELISA - either screening or confirmatory

508
Q

HIV Test:
- Gold standard = Immunophenotyping w/ Flowcy
- HIV AIDS CD4 count = <200 cell/mm3

A

CD4 T cell Enumeration Test

509
Q

Screening tests forHIV Antibody Detection (3) “E A D”

A

ELISA
Agglutination test
Dot- blot testing

510
Q

Confirmatory test for HIV Antibody detection (2) “W I”

A

Western blot
Immunofluorescence

511
Q

Window oeriod before antibody is detectable

A

P24 Antigen detection

512
Q

Determine viral load and development of drug resistant strain

A

HIV NAT

513
Q

Quantitative test for HIV Nucleic Acid

A

Viral Load Test

514
Q

HIV test preferred method for infants, hildren younger than 18 months

A

PCR

515
Q

HIV Generation

A

First = detects ab to HIV 1 only
Second = detects ab to HIV 1 and HIV 2
Third = detects HIV ab of different Ig class including IgM
Fourth = detects HIV 1 and HIV 2 ab and p24 antigen

516
Q

HIV Structural Gene (3)

A

Gag or Group Antigen Gene
Pol or Polymerase
Env or envelope

517
Q

HIV Structural Gene = Product
- p25, core proteins ( p6, p9, p17, p24)

A

Gag or Group Antigen Gene

518
Q

Products of Pol/ Polymerase gene (4)

A

Reverse transcriptase (p66, p51) = transcribes RNA to DNA
Integrase (p31) = inserts viral DNA to host
Protease (p10) = cleaves protein precursors
RNase = slipts DNA to RNA again

519
Q

Products of Env/ Envelope gene (3)

A

gp160 = cleaved to form gp120 and gp41
gp120 = binds to CD4 on T cells
gp41 = transmembrane protein

520
Q

Markers of Hepatitis B infection (6)

A

HBsAg = active infx
HBeAg = high degree of infectivity
IgM Anti-HBc = current or recent infxn, core windor period
IgG Anti-HBc = lifelong marker
Anti-HBe = recovery markerv
Anti-HBs = immunity to Hepatitis; Protective marker: > or = to 10 miu/ml of serum

521
Q

Markers of Hepatits A infxn (4)

A

IgM anti-HAV = incubation period and early phase
IgG anti-HAV = Immunity to Hepa A
Total anti-HAV = Immunity to Hepa A
HAV RNA = HAV in clinical, food, water samples

522
Q

Other names of Hepatitis:
- Hepa A
- may be transmitted by clotting factors

A

Infectious hepatitis

523
Q

Other names of Hepatitis:
- Hepa B

A

Serum Hepatitis

524
Q

Complete HBV that causes infxn

A

Dane particle

525
Q

Other names of Hepatitis:
- Hepa c

A

Non-A, Non-B hepatitis
Post transfusion hepatitis

526
Q
  • Increased ALT
  • Positive Anti-HBc
A

Surrogate Test for HCV

527
Q

Positive Anti-HCV

A

Specific test for HCV

528
Q

Tests for Streptococcal Serology (3)

A

ASO
Anti-DNase B Test
Streptozyme Test

529
Q

_____ fold rise in titer to be considered significant (Streptococcal serology)

A

4 fold

530
Q

Streptococcal Serology:
- 5 in 1 test = slide agglutinating screening test
- Reagent = Sheep RBCs coated with streptococcal extracellular products

A

Streptozyme

531
Q

Streptococcal serology:
- Latex agglutination test = indirect or passive agglutination
- Tube test = neutralization or inhibition

A

ASO or Anti- streptolysin O titer

532
Q

ASO tube testing units used:

A

Todd units = streptolysin rgt istandard is used
UI = WHO international standard

Normal= <200 todd unit

533
Q
  • Detects Ab capable of preventing DNase from depolymerizing DNA
  • Principle = Neutralization
  • Reagent = DNA-metho green substrate
  • Grading= 4+ unchange color (positive), 0 toal loss of color (negative)
A

Anti- DNase B

534
Q

Kissing disease caused by EBV

A

Infectious Mononucleosis

535
Q

Atypical lymphocytes in EBV infxn

A

Downey cells

536
Q

Infectious Mononucleosis Serology:
- Cross react with a group of similar antigen
- IgM usually appears during acute phase of ifxn

A

Heterophile Antibody

537
Q

Heterophile Ab of IM:
- React with
- Absorbed by
- Not absorbed by

A
  • React with = Horse, Ox, sheep rbcs
  • Absorbed by = Beef rbcs
  • Not absorbed by = Guinea pig kidney cells
538
Q

IM Serological Tests (3)

A

Paul-Bunnel Screening Test
Davidsohn Differential Test
Monospot test

539
Q
  • IM serologic test
  • Hemagglutination, detect heterophile ab
  • Reacts with sheep rbc
  • Normal titer: < or = to 56
A

Paul Bennel Screening Test

540
Q
  • IM serologic test
  • Differentiates HA associated with IM, Serum sickness or Forssmann Ag
  • Agglutination = Sheep rbcs
  • Absorbed by = Guinea pic and Beef rbc
  • Perform if Paul Bennel Screening test result is > 56
A

Davidsohn Differential Test

541
Q
  • IM serologic test
  • Rapid differential slide test
  • Requires absorption of px serum
  • Horse rbc is agglutinated by heterophile ab of IM
A

Monospot test

542
Q

Detects ab to Salmonella, Brucella, Tularemia

A

Widal test

543
Q

Salmonella Serology:
- Clinical significant titer

A

> or = to 160

544
Q

Antigens in Salmonella Serology (3)

A

O antigen = LPS
H antigen = Protein
K or Vi antigen = Polysaccharide/ capsular or virulent

545
Q

Salmonella serology:
- Carrier specimen

A

Fluid from gallbladder (1 yr.)

546
Q

Causes spotted fever and typhus

A

Rickettsia

547
Q
  • Test for detection of ab in rickettsia
  • Four fold rise in titer or 1:160 is significant
A

Weil Felix Test

548
Q

Antigens in Rickettsia serology (3)

A

OX-K
OX-2
OX-19

549
Q

Ricketssia Serology: ORGANISM
- Epidemic typhus
- OX-19 (+)

A

R. prowazekii

550
Q

Ricketssia Serology: ORGANISM
- Rocky mountain spotted fever
- OX-19 or OX-2 (+)

A

R. rickettsia

551
Q

Ricketssia Serology: ORGANISM
- Scrub typhus
- OX-K (+)

A

R. tsutsugamushi

552
Q
  • Stool antigen test
  • With endocscopy or No endoscopy
A

H. pylori serology

553
Q

H. pylori serology:
- With endoscopy (3)

A

H. pylori culture
Histological exam
Urease biopsy test

554
Q

H.pylori serology:
- No endoscopy (4)

A

Urea breath test
Enzyme immunoassay for bacterial ag in STOOL
Molecular test
Serum EIA

555
Q
  • Associated with cold agglutinins
  • Auto p anti-I (blood banking)
A

M. pneumonia serologic test

556
Q

Serologic test for ______:
- Thick smear = quantitation
- Thin smear = identification

A

Malaria

557
Q

Immunochromatography for Malaria (2)

A

OptiMAL Assay
MalaQuick Stanby Marlarial test

558
Q

Immunochromatography for Malaria:
- detects parasitic LDH (100-200 parasites/ul blood)
- detects variable parasite
- distinguish bet. spp through detection of different isoforms of PLDH

A

OptiMal Assay

559
Q

Immunochromatography for Malaria:
- Detects P. falciparum Histidine Rich Protein (HRP)- 2 Antigen

A

MalaQuick Standby Test for Malaria

560
Q

T or F:
H. capsulatum is a fungi.

A

True

561
Q

Serological test for Histoplasma:
- 2 precipitin band of diagnostic significance

A

H line = most specific, found up to 2 yrs after recovery “HUMANA”
M line = found in px with active infx or past infxn or px who had recent skin test “MASASAKTAN KA PA”

562
Q

Serological tests for Influenza (2)

A

Hemagglutinin = required for entry of virus (H1 to H18)
Neuramidase = for release of virus from cells (N1 to N11)

563
Q

Mutations of Influenza (2)

A

Antigenic shift = occurs every 10 yrs, sudden in onset
Drift = occur at the site if the virus as it replicates, pre-existing abs

564
Q

Most common cause of congenital infection

A

CMV or Cytomegalovirus

565
Q
  • Uses Frei test for Lymphogranuloma Vinerium
A

Chlamydia trachomatis

566
Q
  • Agent = Toxoplasma gondii
  • Utilize Sabin-feldman dye test
A

Toxoplasmosis

567
Q
  • Utilizes Casoni skin test
A

Echinococcosis

IS (1 decks)

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