Immunomodulatory Drugs Flashcards

1
Q

What are the three T cell activation signals that are modified with immune modulatory drugs?

A
  1. TCR/MHC Activation
  2. CD28 (Tcell)/B7 (APC) Costimulatin
  3. Cytokine signalling:
    IL-2 from Tcells to Tcell IL-2R for cell activation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is Graft vs Host Disease?

A

Undesired immune reaction to organ/cell allogeneic transplantation:

  • T cell driven immune response –> Donor-derived T cells recognize recipient tissues as foreign and attack

Direct Allorecognition:
Donor APCs migrate to a local lymph node and stimulate alloreactive recipient T cells

Indirect Allorecognition:
Recipient APCs process proteins and present peptides derived from the graft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the signal cascade for TCR/MHC-II activation?

A

MHC-II (From APC)+Antigen binds to TCR (from Tcell) with CD3+CD4+ complex

–> Binding of TCR with MHC leads to an influx of Ca++

–> Calcium is necesssary for Calcineurin function

–> Calcineurin is typically used to dephosphorylate NFAT, allowing NFAT to enter the nucleus and complex to become a transcription factor of cytokines (i.e. IL-2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is Cyclosporine A?

A

Calcineurin inhibitor

  • Binds to cyclophilin and inhibits calcineurin from dephosphorylating NFAT
  • Used to prevent acute rejection of solid organs
    (kidney, liver, heart, etc.) as well as acute GVHD
  • Usually used in conjunction with corticosteroids
  • Used for treatment of severe rheumatoid arthritis and psoriasis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the side effects of Cyclosporine A?

A
  • ***nephrotoxicity**** - most critical
  • Renal hypperfusion
  • Arteriopathy
  • Tubular atrophy
  • Interstitial fibrosis

HTN

Hepatotoxicity

Increased risk of:
lymphoma

Infections
Convulsions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is tacrolimus?

A

Calcineurin inhibitor

  • Binds to FK binding protein, preventing calcineurin activation
  • More potent than CsA
  • Superior performace in preventing acute rejection of renal, heart-lung, and liver allografts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the side effects of tacrolimus?

A

Nephrotoxicity

Neurotoxicity

HTN

diabetes

malignant lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is Sirolimus (rapamycin)?

A

mTOR inhibitor –> blocks effects of IL-2 on Tcells

  • MOA: Inhibits mTOR complex 1, blocks IL-2 induced proteins synthesis
  • Used to prevent renal allograft rejection
  • *(as effective as cyclosporine A w/o nephrotoxicity)**
  • Contraindicated for liver/lung transplant
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the toxicities of Sirolimus?

A

anemia

thrombocytopenia

hyperlipidemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the IL-2R signal cascade?

A

IL-2 binds to IL-2R on the surface of the Tcell

–> TOR is activated

–> Cyclin/CDK is activated

–> Activates cell cycle progression from G1 phase to S phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the immunemodulators that interfere with the TCR cascade?

A

Cyclosporine A: Calcineurin inhibitor that binds to cyclophilin

_Tacrolimus: _ Calcineurin inhibitor that binds to FK binding protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is Mycophenolate Mofetil (MMF)?

A

Inhibitor of inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase (required for purine biosynthesis)

–> blocks cell cycle progression

  • Useful in kidney/liver transplants in combination with CsA or Tacrolimus
  • Hydrolyzed by liver esterases to MPA (the active inhibitor of IMD)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is Azathioprine?

A
  • *Purine analog metabolized to 6-mercaptopurine**
  • disrupts de novo purine synthesis and inhibits DNA transcription
  • Used in combination therapy (prednisone +/- CsA/Tacrolimus)

Side Effects:
GI distress
leukopenia
increased infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the “1st line” DMARDs for RA?

A

1. Methotrexate (Same rationale as MMF; stops cell cycle)
Folic acid analogue –> dihydrofolate reductase inhibitor
Blocks nucleoside biosynthesis

2. Leflunamide
Prodrug whose active metabolite inhibits dihydroorate dehydrongenase (an essential enzyme for pyrimidine synthesis)

  • *Also:**
  • *Chloroquine** (perturbs lysosomal processing and antigen presentation –> decreased Tcell activation)

Penicillamine (metal chelator prevents IL-1 production and collagen maturation)

Sulfasalazine (Scavenger of ROS produced by neutrophils)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What kind of Antibodies end in:

  • omab
  • ximab
  • zumab
  • umab
A

-omab: mouse antibodies

-ximab: chimeric antibodies

-zumab: humanized antibodies

-umab: human antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What anti-CD3 anbitodies are available for treatment of autoimmunities?

A

Muromonab

  • Mouse mAb directed against signaling chaing of TCR
  • -> blocks engagement of TCR
  • Indicated for reversal of rejection of heart, liver, and kidney transplants
  • Never given prophylactically b/c can cause cytokine storm due to non-specific activation of Tcells
  • hypersensitivity reactions associated w/formation of anti-mouse Ab
17
Q

What anti-CD25 anbitodies are available for treatment of autoimmunities?

A

daclizumab

Basiliximab

  • mAbs directed against the a-chain (CD25) of the high-affinity IL-2 receptor –> inhibits IL-2 mediated T cell proliferation
  • Reduces risk of acute rejection when used in combination with cyclosporine/asathioprine in kidney and cardiac transplantation
  • Hypersensitivity possible with basiliximab
18
Q

What drugs are used to block CD28/B7 costimulation of T cells?

A

CTLA4-Ig:

  • *Abatacept –** treats RA
  • *Belatacept** – prevent renal transplant rejection
  • Rec chimera of the extracellular domain of CTLA4 and IgG1 Fc (biologic drug)
  • Binds to B7 on APCs to prevent CD28 engagement
  • Causes anergy in Tcells
19
Q

What drugs are used to inhibit IL-1/IL-1R?

A

Canakinumab

Anakinra (biologic)

Rilanocept (biologic)

20
Q

What drugs are used to inhibit IL-12?

A

Ustekinumab

21
Q

What drugs are used to inhibit TNF?

A

anti-TNF:

Infliximab

Adalimumab

Golimumab

Certolizumab pegol

Etanercept (biologic)

22
Q

What drugs are used to inhibit IL-6R?

A

toclizumab

23
Q

What are the indications and side effects of anti-TNF mAb?

(i.e. Infliximab, etanercept, adalimumab)

A

Indications:
Crohn’s
Ulcerative colitis
RA
Psoriatic Arthritis
Plaque psoriasis
Ankylosing spondylitis

Side Effects:
Infections
Malignancy
hepatotoxicity

24
Q

What are the indications and side effects of anti-IL-6R mAbs?

(i.e. Tocilizumab)

A

RA

Side Effects:
Increased infections
hypersensitivity

25
Q

What are the indications and side effects of anti-IL-1R mAbs?

(i.e. anakinra)

A

RA

Side effects:
Increased risk of serious bacterial infection

26
Q

What are indications and side effects of anti-CD20 mAbs?

(i.e. rituximab)

A

RA

Side Effects:
Infection
cytokine release syndrome

–> extremely effective in depleting B cells

27
Q

What are indications and side effects of anti-BAFF mAb?

(i.e. belimumab)

A

SLE

Side effects:
Infections
hypersensitivty

28
Q

What is natalizumab?

A

Anti-VLA4 mAb
- Blocks T cell migration to site of inflammation

–> used to treat Crohn’s disease and multiple sclerosis

  • Significant risk of JC virus-iduced progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy
29
Q

What is fingolimod?

A
  • Phosphorylated form binds to Sphingosine-1 phosphate receptors
  • Prevents lymphocytes from migrating out of lymph notdes

–> approved to treat multiple sclerosis

  • Increased risk of fatal infections
30
Q

What is Epoetin alfa?

A

Rec erythropoeitin analogues that stimulate formation of RBCs in anemic patients

darbepoeitin alfa - longer 1/2 life

31
Q

What is filgrastim?

A

G-CSF

Stimulates neutrophil proliferation and maturation

Stimulates neutrophil migration

32
Q

What is GM-CSF?

A

Granulocyte Macrophage Colony stimulating factor

  • stimulator of granulocyte proliferation and maturation
  • inhibits neutrophil migration
33
Q

What is Oprelvekin?

A

rIL-11

Stimulates proliferation and maturation of megakaryocytes and formation of platelets

34
Q

What cytokines and growth factors are medically used to boost your immunity?

A

Epoeitin alfa

Filgrastim (G-CSF)

GM-CSF

Oprelvekin (rIL-11)

35
Q

What is IVIG?

A