immunology remember Flashcards

1
Q

how do Tregs suppress

A
  1. metabolic disruption – they out compete T cells for IL-2 as they have a high affinity alpha chain, giving them a high affinity IL-2 receptor. they also prevent CAMP from killing infected cells, disrupting normal T cell metabolism
  2. cytolysis – they can destroy T cells through perforin and granzyme
  3. suppressive cytokine production - IL-10, 35 and TGF-beta.
    —– IL-10 suppresses T cell cytokine production and decrease MHC expression
    —— IL-35 suppresses T cell proliferation
    ——- TGF-beta blocks T cell cytokine production, division, and has a killing ability
  4. CTLA-4 binding – this is a co-inhibitory molecule. it binds with high affinity to CD80/86 on APCs, competing with T cells which express CD28 (binds to CD80 on APCs) which means these T cells are turned off. also induces DCs to produce molecules which are toxic to T cells
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2
Q

describe IPEX

A

systemic autoimmunity. patients lack the foxp3, which is necessary for Treg function and development. the patients are unable to suppress the immune function against good bacteria in the gut. this leads to a leaky gut and gut inflammation. treatment = bone marrow transplant

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3
Q

describe features of memory B cells

A
  1. express high affinity AB which have undergone class switching
  2. express high levels of MHC-II and co-stimulatory molecules
  3. populate the spleen and lymph nodes
  4. express surface Ig, but not antibody
  5. secrete antibody rapidly and differentiate into plasma cells when they re-encounter antigen
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4
Q

describe features of memory T cells

A
  1. different activation requirements and cell surface proteins from naive T cells
  2. cytokines IL-7 and 15 are needed for survival
  3. need contact with self peptide:MHC complexes to continue to proliferate
  4. divide more frequently than naive T cells
  5. proliferate at lower antigen doses
  6. require less co-stimulation for activation
  7. produce cytokines faster.
  8. may be strategically positioned in the tissue where they may encounter the pathogen
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5
Q

what is the difference between central memory T cells and effector memory T cells

A

central memory:
- have lymph node homing moleucles
- slower than effector cells to produce cytokines
effector memory:
- lack lymph node homing molecules
- rapidly produce cytokine upon antigenic stimulation

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6
Q

viral disease standard nz vaccines

A

hhpr mmr
h - hepatitis B
h - hpv
p - polio
r - rota virus
m - measles
m - mumps
r - rubella

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7
Q

bacterial disease standard nz vaccines

A

dtwhp
d - diphtheria
t - tetanus
w - whooping ocugh
h - haemophilus influenza type B
p - pneumococcal disease

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8
Q

what does INFANRIX-HEXA protect against

A

dtaphph
d - diphtehria
t - tetanus
a - acellular pertussis
h - hepatitis b
p - polio
h - haemophilus influenza

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9
Q

what is the adjuvant in INFANRIX-HEXA and why is it used

A

alum is the adjuvant. this stimulates PRRs through acting as a DAMP. it activates the inflammasome to increase the immune response

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10
Q

how does HPV cause cancer

A
  1. persistent infection
  2. integration of virus into host genome and increase expression of oncogenes E6 and E7
    — E6: can block apoptosis through p53 degradation, resulting in the outgrowth of dysregulated cells
    —- E7: inhibits RB, causing dysregulation of cellular proliferatoin and apoptosis induction
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11
Q

describe the HPV vaccine

A

this is gardasil. it contains VLPs of the recombinant major capsid protein (L1). they are produced in recombinant yeast and then self assembled into VLPs
the adjuvant is AAHS.

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12
Q

describe central tolerance in B cell development and negative selection processes

A

this is initial testing of the BCR on immature B cells.
if there is no self-reactivity, they move to the periphery and mature
if they self-react, they undergo negative selection
—– 1. anergy: unresponsiveness or paralysis of function
——2. elimination through apoptosis
——3. rescue by receptor editing – there is the continued expression of RAG which can allow BCRs to continue light chain rearrangement and alter specificity to potentially become non-reactive to self

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13
Q

describe central tolerance in T cell development

A

self reactive cells with MHC, and with self antigen are removed.
little/weak response – death by neglect
fine – positive selection
too strong – negative selection
AIRE is a TF which allows transcription to create a peripheral shadow in the thymus, which is what allows for the tolerance testing.

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14
Q

describe peripheral tolerance in T cell development and where each occurs

A
  1. anergy – cellular inactivation by weak signalling without a co-stimulus. happens in secondary lymphoid tissue
  2. Tregs – suppression by cytokines and intracellular signals. in secondary lymphoid tissue and sites of inflammation
  3. functional deviation – autoreactive T cells are induced to become Tregs. happens in secondary lymphoid tissue and sites of inflammation
  4. activation of induced cell death – through apoptosis. occurs in secondary lymphoid tissue and sites of inflammation
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15
Q

describe the condition resulting as a breakdown of central tolerance

A

APECED.
this is the failure of multiple endocrine glands and results in chronic mucucutaneous candidiasis.
this is the result of an AIRE deficiency. normally, there would be enough AIRE to express self antigen in the thymus to identify autoreactive T cells. deficiency means the auto reactive T cells can escape.
patients have autoimmunity with auto-antibodies against IL-17. Th17 cells secrete IL-17 and is important for protection against fungal infectoins. IL-17 is getting mopped up by auto reactive T cells before it can exert its function. explains chronic mucocutaneous candidiassis.
immunodeficiency to fungal infections.

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16
Q

describe both conditions resulting as a breakdown of peripheral tolerance, and the treatments for one of them

A
  1. IPEX
    this is a deficiency of Tregs. Tregs suppress autoreactive T cells and also compete for Il-2 to suppress T cell function. deficiency results in auto reactive T cell proliferation
    gut inflammation
  2. MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS
    T cell mediated neurological disorder. there is a destructive immune response set up against brain antigens and causes the demyelination of neurons.
    treatment:
    a. type 1 interferon. this uses the drug Betaferon. production of cytokines which support the development of Tregs to slow symptoms
    b. fingolimod. prevents egress of T/B cells from the secondary lymphoid organs, thus preventing these cells from entering the blood and tissues.
17
Q

describe monoclonal antibodies and their uses in the lab

A

each B cell produces a specific antibody of a single specificity. if a single B cell can be cloned, we can produce lots of specific antibody
fuse an antibody with a tumour cell to form a hybridoma.
USE IN THE LAB:
- ELISA
- EIA
- fluorescent microscopy
- flow cytometry
- western blot

18
Q

describe antibody based immunoassays to detect pathogens and an example

A

detect antibody produced in the patient in response to the pathogen by ELISA or western blot. this can indicate if the patient currently has the infection, had it in the past, or if they have been vaccinated against it.
IgM = recent/current infection
IgG = prior/chronic infection, or vaccination
HEPATITIS B
– distinguish between infected and vaccinated by measuring antibody against the core antigen which is not in the vaccine (vaccine has the surface antigen only)

19
Q

describe T cell based immunoassays to detect pathogens

A
  1. TB interferon gamma release assay - IGRA
    – detects the T cell response produced by the patient in response to the pathogen. blood sample is taken and stimulated with TB antigens which are not in the vaccine. IFN gamma levels measured and use an ELISA to quantify IFN gamma levels through use of capture/detection antibodies and streptavin peroxidase colour production
  2. CD4/CD8 ratio
    — detects pathogen induced perturbed T cell responses. blood sample taken and analysed for CD4/CD8 cells. detetced using antibodies conjugated with fluorescent dyes
  3. detection of antinuclear antigens
    —-helps with diagnosis of lupus or rheumatoid arthritis. HEp-2 cells are used as a substrate and use fluorescent anti-human Ig to detect
20
Q

describe assays to detect allergy

A
  1. skin prick testing
    – allergen is applied to skin using a puncture device. patient is observed for wheal and redness. measures immediate immune response due to IgE mast cell activation
  2. circulating allergen specific IgE by EIA
    – immunoCAP screens for specific IgE against panels of allergens. positive samples require further testing for specificity
  3. immunoassays to detect rhesus incompatibility
21
Q

describe rhesus incompatibility and the immunoassay to detect rhesus incompatibility

A

when an Rh positive man fathers a child with an Rh negative women, the foetus may inherit the Rh positive antigen. at birth, a small amount of foetal blood enters the maternal blood. over the next several months, the woman develops antibodies against the Rh antigen. when the woman becomes pregnant with her next Rh positive foetus, her antibodies will cross the placenta and attack the foetus’ red blood cells.
COOMBS TEST
1. direct antiglobulin: detects foetal RBCs coated with maternal antibody. Anti IgG AHG reagant is added after erythrocytes are washed. AHG reagant causes IgG-coared erythrocytes to agglutinate
2. indirect antiglobulin: detects anti-Rh antibodies in the maternal seru,