Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Immunology Final Exam review > Immunology Final Exam Review > Flashcards

Immunology Final Exam Review Flashcards

1
Q

T/F Sterile gloves must be used for all laboratory work

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

T/F Immunology is defined as the study of molecules, cells, organs, and systems.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

T/F Cooperation is required for optimal functioning of the immune system. Cooperative interaction
involves specific cellular elements, cell products, and nonlymphoid elements.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

T/F The function of the immune system is to recognize self from non-self and to defend the body
against nonself

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

T/F The second barrier to infection is unbroken skin and mucosal membrane surfaces

A

False (The first barrier to infection is unbroken skin and mucosal membrane surfaces.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The father of immunology is generally considered to be ______.

A

Louis Pasteur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A specific function of the immune system is

A

to recognize self from non-self and to defend the body against nonself

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The first line of defense against infection is

A

unbroken skin or mucous membranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A child who contracts a contagious disease from an older sibling could develop
______________ immunity against the disease.

A

natural active

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Artificial passive immunity is achieved by

A

infusion or injection of preformed specific antibody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The innate immune system is:

A

the most ancient form of host defense. / mediated by germline-encoded receptors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

T/F Sterile gloves must be used for all laboratory work

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

T/F Gloves should be changed between each patient contact

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

T/F Gloves should be worn when performing fingersticks and heel sticks on infants and children

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

T/F In regard to handwashing in the medical laboratory environment, hands should be washed
after completing laboratory work. _

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

T/F in regard to handwashing in the medical laboratory environment, hands should be washed
after removing gloves.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

T/F In regard to handwashing in the medical laboratory environment, hands should be washed
immediately after accidental skin contact with blood

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which of the following legislative documents ensures that workers have safe and healthful
working conditions?

A
  • Hazard Communication Standard

- Occupational Safety and Health Act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Safety in the clinical laboratory includes:

A
  • chemical hygiene plan.
  • chemical hazard identification.
  • bloodborne pathogen plan.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Standard Precautions refer to:

A

-treating blood and other body fluids as potentially infectious.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Infectious disease safety practices include:

A
  • Educate and train all health care workers in Standard Precautions and in the prevention of bloodborne infections.
  • Provide proper equipment and supplies (e.g., gloves).
  • Monitor compliance with the protective biosafety policies.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Nonanalytic factors in the quality assessment include:

A
  • qualified personnel

- established laboratory policies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

An example of a preanalytic error is:

A

the specimen obtained from the wrong patient.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Quality assessment programs include:

A
  • patient identification.
  • specimen procurement.
  • specimen transportation and processing procedures.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

For testing of moderate complexity, quality control requires:

A

-performing control procedures using at least two levels of control material each day of testing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Sensitivity is defined as

A
  • proportion of subjects with the specific disease or condition who have a positive test result.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Specificity is defined as:

A
  • proportion of subjects without the specific disease or condition who have a negative test
    result.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How close a test result is to the true value:

A

-Accuracy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Highly purified substances of a known composition

A

-Standard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

A specimen with a known value that is similar in composition to the test specimen

A

-Control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How close the test results are to one another when repeated analyses of the same
material is performed.

A

-Precision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Complement can be inactivated in human serum by heating to _____° C.

A

56

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Complement can be inactivated in human serum by heating to 56° C for _______ minutes.

A

30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

A specimen should be reinactivated when more than ______ hour(s) has(have) elapsed since
inactivation.

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

A meniscus is:

A

curvature in the top surface of a liquid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

A dilution is:

A
  • ratio of volume or number of parts of the substance to be diluted in the total volume, or parts,
    of the final solution.
  • indication of relative concentration.
  • frequently used measure in serologic testing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Serum for the detection of antibodies should be drawn during:

A

acute and convalescent phases of illness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

A central concept of serologic testing is:

A

a manifestation of a rise in antibody titer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

The term antibody titer is defined as:

A

the reciprocal of the highest dilution of the patient’s serum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Delivers the amount of liquid contained between two calibration marks on the pipette.

A

Graduated pipette

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

The letters TD (to deliver) appear on the pipette.

A

Serologic pipette

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

T/F Ultimate responsibility and control of point-of-care testing (POCT) reside within the
CLIA-certified laboratory.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

T/F A minimum of two laboratory staff members are required to be responsible for each
POCT program.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

T/F Written policies and procedures must be available to all laboratory personnel for
patient preparation and for specimen collection and preservation.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

T/F The greatest source of error is a preanalytic error, such as patient identification and
specimen collection.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

A major advantage of POCT is:

A

faster turnaround time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Any over-the-counter test approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is
automatically placed into the category of:

A

waived tests.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

More complex than waived tests but usually automated

A

Moderately complex tests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Usually, nonautomated or complicated tests requiring considerable judgment

A

Highly complex tests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Simple procedures

A

Waived tests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Slide examinations

A

Provider-performed microscopy tests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

An antigen is described as a substance that ____________________

A
  • stimulates antibody formation
  • has the ability to bind to an antibody
  • is capable of stimulating an immune response
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Haptens are characterized as being ___________________.

A

antigenic when coupled to a carrier molecule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

The primary function of an antibody in body defenses is to___.

A

combine with antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Which immunoglobulin (Ig) class is the first to be manifested after antigen exposure?

A

IgM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q 
Which immunoglobulin (Ig) class is produced in the highest concentration in a secondary
(anamnestic) response?
A

IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

IgE is an important immunoglobulin because of it:

A

-mediates some types of hypersensitivity (allergic) reactions.
-is generally responsible for an individual’s immunity to invading parasites.
-binds strongly to a receptor on mast cells and basophils and, with antigen, mediates the
release of histamines and heparin from these cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Foreignness

A

The greater the difference, the better

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Degradability

A

Avoidance of rapid destruction is essential.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Molecular weight

A

The higher, the better

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Complexity

A

Contributes to greater effectiveness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

If the first line of nonspecific body defense, intact skin, is cut with a piece of glass
contaminated with Staphylococcus aureus, which cellular component of the immune system
quickly responds?

A

Neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Place the stages of phagocytosis in the correct sequence of occurrence

A
  1. Chemotaxis
  2. Adherence
  3. Engulfment
  4. Phagosome formation and fusion
  5. Digestion and destruction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

PMN leukocytes

A

Primary phagocytic cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Mononuclear monocytes-macrophages

A

Phagocytosis, antigen presentation, and secretion of biologically active molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Plasma cells

A

Antibody-synthesizing cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Neutrophil

A

Principal leukocyte-associated with phagocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Eosinophil

A

Homeostatic regulator of inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Basophil

A

High concentrations of heparin and histamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is the source of undifferentiated T lymphocytes later in fetal development and
throughout the life cycle of an individual?

A

Bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Surface markers on lymphocytes can be used to:

A
  • identify and count CD4+ and CD8+ cells.
  • classify leukemic cells.
  • monitor patients on immunotherapy.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q 
Cluster designation (CD) antigens are involved in various lymphocyte functions, which can
include:
A
  • promotion of cell to cell interactions and adhesion.

- transduction of signals that lead to lymphocyte activation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

When mature T lymphocytes leave the thymus, their T cell receptors are either CD4+ or

A

-CD8+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Helper T type 1 (Th1)

A

Responsible for cell-mediated effector mechanisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Helper T type 2 (Th2)

A

Play a greater role in the regulation of antibody production and the release of cytokines
required for B cell differentiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Regulatory T (Treg)

A

Are an immunoregulatory type of helper T cells (Th cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

T/F The normal ratio of T helper cells to T suppressor cells is about (~2:1) and can
be reversed under certain conditions.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Complement is characterized by all except:

A

normally present in the circulation as an active enzyme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Functions of the complement system include:

A

host defense against infection, such as chemotaxis.

  • interface between innate and adaptive immunity.
  • clearance of immune complexes from the tissues
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

The classical complement pathway is activated by:

A

bonding of C1 complex, consisting of C1q, C1r, and C1s..

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

The alternate complement pathway is activated by:

A

bacterial exotoxins, viruses, and fungi.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

The physiologic or cellular consequences of complement activation can include:

A

production of inflammatory mediators.

  • cytolysis or hemolysis.
  • opsonization.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

The membrane attack complex (MAC) is characterized by all except:

A

the complement cascade reaches full amplitude at this stage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Increased susceptibility to pyogenic infections can be caused by:

A
  • deficiency of the opsonic activities of complement.
  • any deficiency that compromises the lytic activity of complement.
  • the deficient function of the mannose-binding lectin pathway.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Interferons:

A

mediate the early immune response to viral infections.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Which of the following characteristics is representative of C-reactive protein (CRP)?

A
  • It has been used for monitoring infection, autoimmune disorders, and healing after myocardial infarction.
  • Its changes show great sensitivity
  • A prominent acute-phase protein
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

The measurement of C-reactive protein (CRP) can be used for all except:

A

-diagnosis of viral septicemia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

The definition of the term agglutination refers to:

A

the process whereby specific antigens aggregate to form larger visible clumps when the
corresponding specific antibody is present in the test specimens.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Precipitation is the term applied to:

A

aggregation of soluble test antigens.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

An artificial carrier could be:

A
  • latex particles

- colloidal charcoal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

All the following procedures are typically performed by latex agglutination assays except for:

A

RPR for syphilis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

With latex slide agglutination in pregnancy testing (refer to pages 141-142 for the Pregnancy
Latex Slide Agglutination discussion), a negative result is evidenced by:

A

no agglutination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

The quality of test results depends on the following technical factors:

A
  • time of incubation with the antibody source
  • amount and avidity of an antigen conjugated to the carrier
  • conditions of the test environment (i.e. pH, protein concentration)
94
Q

The first phase of agglutination (specifically, hemagglutination) represents:

A
  • physical attachment of antibody molecules to antigens on the erythrocytic membrane
  • a reversible chemical reaction.
95
Q

The most efficient type of antibodies in agglutination (specifically, hemagglutination) reactions
are _________.

A

IgM

96
Q

Anti-human globulin (AHG) is used to:

A

form cross-links between antibodies bound to the surface of erythrocytes.

97
Q

Prozone phenomenon

A

An excessive antibody concentration produces a false-negative reaction.

98
Q

Postzone phenomenon

A

An excessive antigen concentration results in no lattice formation.

99
Q

Electrophoresis is defined as:

A
  • migration of charged solutes in an electrical field

- migration of charged particles in an electrical field..

100
Q

Separation of proteins by electrophoresis is based on:

A

rate of migration of individual components in an electrical field.

101
Q 
In immunoelectrophoresis (IEP), when a favorable antigen-antibody ratio (equivalence point)
is reached, the antigen-antibody complex becomes visible as:
A
  • precipitation line
  • precipitation bands
  • a line representing one specific protein.
102
Q

Differentiation of proteins using immunoelectrophoresis is based on:

A
  • electrophoretic mobility
  • diffusion coefficient.
  • antibody specificity.
103
Q

The immunoelectrophoresis of a normal serum typically depicts:

A

-IgG, IgA, IgM

104
Q

A monoclonal gammopathy is:

A
  • frequently diagnosed condition using immunoelectrophoresis (IEP).
  • condition in which a single clone of plasma cells produces increased levels of a single class
    of immunoglobulin.
  • condition in which a single clone of plasma cells produces increased levels of a single type of
    immunoglobulin.
105
Q

Monoclonal gammopathies can be observed in:

A
  • malignancy.
  • multiple myeloma.
  • macroglobulinemia.
106
Q

The most common application of immunoelectrophoresis (IEP) of urine is:

A

demonstration of Bence Jones (BJ) protein.

107
Q

The primary application of immunofixation electrophoresis (IFE) is for:

A
  • characterization of monoclonal immunoglobulins.
108
Q

T/F Immunofixation electrophoresis (IFE) is more sensitive and is easier to interpret than
immunoelectrophoresis (IEP).

A

True

109
Q

To be used for an enzyme immunoassay (EIA), an enzyme must:

A
  • exhibit a high degree of stability.
  • show extreme specificity.
  • not be present in the antigen or antibody being tested.
110
Q

Chemiluminescence refers to:

A
  • light emission.

- a chemical reaction.

111
Q

Chemiluminescence:

A
  • has excellent sensitivity and dynamic range.

- does not require sample radiation

112
Q

This type of immunofluorescence uses a conjugated antibody to detect antigen-antibody
reactions at a microscopic level:

A

Direct fluorescent antibody (DFA)

113
Q

T/F In competitive immunoassay, a fixed amount of labeled antigen competes with unlabeled
antigen from the patient specimen for a limited number of antibody-binding sites.

A

True

114
Q

T/F In sandwich immunoassay, the sample antigen binds to an antibody fixed onto a solid phase.
A second antibody (labeled with a chemiluminescent label) binds to the antigen-antibody
complex.

A

True

115
Q

T/F Homogenous immunoassays involve a solid phase and require washing steps to remove
unbound antigens or antibodies.

A

False

116
Q

Noncompetitive EIA

A

-The amount of color that develops is proportional to the amount of antibody in the
patient’s serum.

117
Q

Competitive EIA

A

The amount of color that develops in the reaction is inversely proportional to the
amount of antibody in the patient’s serum.

118
Q

Capture EIA

A

Antibody specific for an immunoglobulin (such as IgM or IgG) is attached to a
solid-phase surface

119
Q

Latex particles act as ______________________ in nephelometry.

A

antigen-coated reaction intensifiers

120
Q

Cryoglobulins are proteins that precipitate or gel when cooled to __________.

A

0° C

121
Q

A blood specimen for testing for the presence of cryoglobulins should be:

A

immediately placed in warm water after collection.

122
Q

Laser is an acronym for:

A

light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation.

123
Q

A photon is a:

A

basic unit of all radiation.

124
Q

The principle of flow cytometry is based on:

A

reaction of dyes with the cellular component of interest.

125
Q

Quality control

A

Analytic

126
Q

Specimen labeling

A

Preanalytic

127
Q

Networking results with other computer systems

A

Postanalytic

128
Q

All the following are true in regard to a polymerase chain reaction (PCR) except:

A

the target sequence to be amplified can be unknown.

129
Q

The name of the product of the PCR is an _______.

A

amplicon

130
Q

Amplification of nucleic acid fragments from a different target is performed with:

A

multiplex PCR.

131
Q

Real-time PCR:

A

is less susceptible to amplicon contamination.

132
Q

What is the correct order of the following steps in the enzymatic process of the PCR cycle?

A
  • DNA denaturation
  • Primer annealing
  • Extension of the primed DNA sequence
133
Q

The gold standard of molecular testing is

A

-DNA sequencing

134
Q

Each cycle of PCR theoretically quadruples the amount of specific DNA sequence and results
in an exponential accumulation of the DNA fragment being amplified.

A

False

135
Q

Southern blot

A

-DNA

136
Q

Northern blot

A

-RNA (specifically, mRNA)

137
Q

Western blot

A

-Use of labeled antibodies specific for the protein of interest

138
Q

Factors that can influence exposure to, or actual development of, an infectious disease include
all the following factors except:

A

season of the year

139
Q

For an infectious disease actually to develop in a host, a microorganism must:

A
  • penetrate the skin or mucous membrane barrier (first line of defense).
  • survive natural body defense mechanisms.
  • survive adaptive body defense mechanisms.
140
Q

Major immunologic defense mechanisms against bacteria include:

A
  • lysozyme.

- phagocytosis.

141
Q

A microorganism can survive phagocytosis if it possesses

A

capsule

142
Q

Parasites can avoid being phagocytized because of:

A
  • their ability to migrate away from an inflamed area.
  • their relatively large size.
  • the presence of a body (cell) wall.
143
Q

Immune responses to parasitic infection include:

A
  • immunoglobulin production.
  • antibody-dependent, cell-mediated cytotoxicity.
  • cell defenses, such as eosinophils and T lymphocytes
144
Q

Histoplasmosis

A

Caused by a virus; can be found in soil contaminated with chicken, bird, or bat excreta.

145
Q

Rubella

A

Sequelae of virus infection include three distinct neurologic syndromes.

146
Q

Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

A

The most common congenital virus infection in the world.

147
Q

Toxoplasmosis

A

Hydrocephalus, intracranial calcification, and retinochoroiditis are the most common
manifestations of tissue damage.

148
Q

Vaccines can be divided into _____________ and ___________ vaccines.

A

live attenuated; nonreplicating

149
Q

The earliest host response to vaccination is

A

an innate immune response

150
Q

Anthrax vaccine

A

Protection against bioterrorism

151
Q

Cytomegalovirus vaccine

A

Not available for preventing congenital infection

152
Q

Hay fever vaccine

A

DNA-based vaccine

153
Q

Human papillomavirus vaccine

A

Protection against cervical cancer

154
Q

Influenza vaccine

A

Annual vaccination required

155
Q

Rotavirus vaccine

A

Since the introduction of this vaccine, diarrhea-associated health care utilization for
U.S. children has decreased substantially

156
Q

Polio vaccine

A

Has reduced disease by 99%

157
Q

Smallpox vaccine

A

Given to high-risk individuals

158
Q

Members of the Streptococcus pyogenes species are almost always ________-hemolytic.

A

beta

159
Q

A characteristic of necrotizing fasciitis is that it:

A

a. is known as the “flesh-eating” bacteria.
b. is caused by Streptococcus pyogenes.
c. destroys the tissue covering the muscles.

160
Q

Streptolysin O is:

A

the most frequently used serologic indicator (antibody response) of a recent streptococcal
infection

161
Q

Streptolysin S is:

A

an oxygen-stable enzyme

162
Q

Laboratory diagnosis of S. pyogenes can be made by:

A

a. culturing of throat or nasal specimens.
b. ASO procedure.
c. anti–DNase B (ADN-B).

163
Q

An elevated antistreptolysin O (ASO) titer indicates:

A

relatively recent streptococcal infection

164
Q

Most patients who have Streptococcus pyogenes infection begin to demonstrate a rise in
antibody titer in ______days.

A
  • 7
165
Q

Serologic testing for S. pyogenes should compare acute and convalescent specimens collected
________ apart.

A

3 weeks.

166
Q

Shocklike symptoms of STSS can be produced by high levels of:

A
  • S. pyogenes superantigens

- Cytokines

167
Q

The case definition of STSS includes serological confirmation of Group A streptococcal
infection by a ____________increase against SLO and DNAse B:

A

fourfold.

168
Q

syphilis develops in which percentage of the sexual partners of
persons with syphilitic lesions?

A

30% to 50%

169
Q

In infected donor blood, Treponema pallidum does not appear to survive in citrated blood
stored at 4° C for more than _____day(s).

A

3 days

170
Q

Before clinical or serologic manifestations, the incubation period for syphilis usually lasts
______________________, but can range from 10 to 90 days.

A

about 3 weeks

171
Q

The term for nontreponemal antibodies produced by syphilis-infected patients against
components of their own or other mammalian cells is:

A

reagin antibodies.

172
Q

The nontreponemal antibody produced by syphilis-infected patients can also be produced by
patients with:

A

a. other infectious diseases.
b. leprosy, tuberculosis, leptospirosis, or malaria.
c. autoimmune disorders, drug addiction, or old age.

173
Q

Tertiary syphilis is best evaluated by using:

A

cerebrospinal flui

174
Q

The substance detected by the RPR assay is:

A

a reagin.

175
Q

Untreated congential syphilis can lead to:

A

a. stillbirth.
b. neonatal death.
c. infant disorders.

176
Q

A biological false-positive reaction is least likely to occur with which syphilis assay?

A

FTA-ABS.

177
Q

Direct examination of the treponemes is most often performed by?

A

Darkfield Microscopy

178
Q

What is the causative agent of Lyme disease?

A

Borrelia burgdorferi

179
Q

Most cases of Lyme disease in the United States remain concentrated in the ________ regions.

A

a. northeastern
b. north-central
c. Pacific coastal

180
Q

In the United States, the diagnosis for Lyme Disease is usually based on:

A

a. Recognition of the characteristic clinical findings
b. History of exposure in areas where disease is endemic
c. An antibody response to B. burdorferi

181
Q

Definitive diagnosis of ehrlichiosis requires:

A

Acute and convalescent serum antibody titers

182
Q

In symptomatic patients, a diagnostic evaluation of human erlichiosis can be made by
visualization of intraerythrocytic organisms in thick or thin red blood cell films.

A

False : Intraleukocytic

183
Q

The definitive host of Toxoplasma gondii is

A

House cat

184
Q

Toxoplasmosis is a serious health treat to:

A

AIDS patients.

185
Q

All mammals, including humans, can transmit T. gondii by:

A

Transplacental transmission

186
Q

T/F The best evidence of toxoplasmosis infection is significant change in two appropriately timed specimens (paired acute and convalescent specimens.)

A

True

187
Q

T/F Diagnosis of toxoplasmosis can be made by direct observation of parasite in stained tissue sections, cerebrospinal fluid, or biopsy material.

A

True

188
Q

Cytomegalovirus (CMV) is related to:

A

a. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV).
b. herpes simplex 1.
c. herpes simplex 2.

189
Q

Herpesviruses all share the characteristic of being

A

cell-associated.

190
Q

Individuals with the greatest risk of developing cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection are:

A
  • fetuses

- immunocompromised individuals.

191
Q

Patients with the highest risk of mortality from cytomegalovirus (CMV) are:

A

-allograft transplant, seronegative patients who receive tissue from a seropositive donor

192
Q

Forms of transfusion-acquired cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection include all except:

A

-latent infection.

193
Q

Primary infection

A

The seronegative recipient is transfused with blood from actively or latently infected donor.

194
Q

Reactivated infection

A

The seropositive recipient is transfused with blood from a CMV antibody-positive or
antibody-negative donor

195
Q

Reinfection

A

CMV strain in the donor’s blood differs from the strain originally infecting the recipient.

196
Q

All the following statements about Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) are true except:

A

it is not an agent in the development of nasopharyngeal carcinoma.

197
Q

Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is:

A

a. a DNA herpesvirus.
b. harbored by B lymphocytes..
c. the most ubiquitous virus known to humans.

198
Q

In infectious mononucleosis, Epstein-Barr virus:

A

a. infects B lymphocytes.
b. produces lymphocytes in peripheral blood with T cell characteristics.
c. induces a cytotoxic response against the EBV-infected circulating B lymphocytes.

199
Q

Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is transmitted primarily by:

A

close contact with infectious oral-pharyngeal secretions.

200
Q

Viral capsid antigen (VCA) is produced by:

A

infected B lymphocytes.

201
Q

Anti-VCA immunoglobulin G (IgG) is usually detectable within _________________.

A

4 to 7 days.

202
Q

Which of the following stages of infectious mononucleosis is characterized by antibody to
Epstein-Barr nuclear antigen (EBNA)?

A
  • Past infection (convalescent) period

- Reactivation of latent infection

203
Q

In rapid MonoSlide testing, a false-positive result can be caused by:

A

a. observing agglutination after the observation time.
b. misinterpreting agglutination.
c. residual heterophil antibody present after clinical symptoms have subsided.

204
Q

Primary hepatitis viruses account for approximately ______% of cases of hepatitis.

A

95

205
Q

A patient with a known exposure to hepatitis B 3 weeks earlier has negative results for all
markers when a hepatitis profile is performed, except for IgM anti-HBc. What is a possible
reason for this result?

A

HBsAg was still too low in concentration to detect.

206
Q

The serologic markers in expected order of appearance in the serum of a patient with
hepatitis B infection are:

A

HBsAg, HBeAg, HBcAb, HBeAb, and HbsAb.

207
Q

Which of the following hepatitis viruses can result in chronic infection and the potential
development of liver cancer?

A
  • Hepatitis B

- Hepatitis C

208
Q

Which hepatitis viruses have been scientifically identified as being spread by the transfusion
of unscreened blood transfusion products?

A

Hepatitis B and

hepatitis C

209
Q

Which hepatitis B serologic marker is the classic first indication of a hepatitis B infection?

A

HBsAg

210
Q

Hepatitis A virus infection

A

infectious hepatitis or short-incubation hepatitis

211
Q

Hepatitis B virus infection

A

Long-incubation hepatitis

212
Q

Rubella is also known as:

A
  • German measles.

- 3-day measles.

213
Q

Rubella infection is transmitted by:

A

respiratory secretions.

214
Q

The risk of fetal anomalies in congenital rubella infections is highest at the
_____________________.

A

first trimester.

215
Q

Testing for ________antibody in the newborn is diagnostic for the confirmation of congenital
rubella syndrome.

A

IgM

216
Q

T/F Rubella and rubeola are caused by the same virus and cause the same type of infection.

A

False

217
Q

The incubation period of acquired rubella infection varies, but ____ days is typical.

A

12- 14 days

218
Q

. Infected persons are usually contagious for 12 to 15 days, beginning ____ days before the
appearance (if present) of a rash.

A

5-7 days

219
Q

Acute rubella infection lasts from___days and generally requires minimal treatment.
Permanent effects are extremely rare in acquired infections.

A

3-5 days

220
Q

IgM antibodies against the rubella virus become detectable a few days after the onset of
signs and symptoms and reach peak levels at ____days .

A

7-10 days

221
Q

These IgM antibodies persist but rapidly diminish in concentration over the next_____
until antibody is no longer clinically detectable.

A

4-5 weeks

222
Q

Which of the following statements is (are) true about retroviruses?

A

a. They contain a single, positive-stranded ribonucleic acid (RNA).
b. They contain a special enzyme called reverse transcriptase in their core.
c. They reverse the normal process of transcription in which DNA is converted to RNA.

223
Q

The major structural protein (core) of the human immunodeficiency virus type 1 (HIV-1)
encoded by the gag gene is _______________.

A

p24

224
Q

One of the glycoproteins associated with the viral envelope is _______________.

A

gp41

225
Q

The HIV infectious process begins when the protein on the viral envelope binds to the
protein receptor _______ on the surface of a target cell.

A

CD4

226
Q

The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV-1) attaches itself to receptor sites by means of
_________.

A

gp120

227
Q

In HIV infections, a window period of seronegativity extends from the time of initial infection
up to __________________________.

A

6 to 12 weeks or longer

228
Q

The enzyme immunoassay for the HIV-1 antigen detects primarily uncomplexed
______antigen.

A

p24

229
Q

Which procedure is considered to be a screening procedure for the detection of HIV?

A

EIA

230
Q

Which analysis is currently considered the standard method for confirming HIV-1
seropositivity?

A

Western blot

231
Q

A positive Western blot (WB) test result for HIV infection is indicated by the presence of two
of the following bands, along with a positive EIA test result:

A

p24 and gp41

Immunology Final Exam review (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions