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Immunology: 5/2-5/3 > Immunology- FA > Flashcards

Immunology- FA Flashcards

1
Q

List three opsonins

A

C3b
IgG
CRP

*C3b and IgG are main opsonins

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2
Q

Cutaneous Candida vs. systemic Candida. which blood cells are associated with each?

A

cutaneous: T cells
systemic: Granulocytes

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3
Q

Which lymphocyte is associated with GI giardiasis?

A

B cell (IgA)

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4
Q

Which cytokine is involved in cachexia (muscle wasting) in malignancy?

A

TNF-alpha

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5
Q

Which immunosuppressant has nephrotoxicity as a major side effect?

A

calcineurin inhibitors

cyclosporin and tacrolimus

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6
Q

In the spleen, where do APCs capture blood-borne antigens for recognition by lymphocytes

A

marginal zone, between red pulp and white pulp

  • white pulp: B cells, PALS: T cells
  • Red cells: APCs flowing in spleen
  • in between: marginal zone- APC presents antigens to B/T cells
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7
Q

Which structural region of the antibody determines the isotype?

A

Fc portion

  • isotype: Different classes (IgM, IgG,..)
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8
Q

Which structural region of the antibody determines the idiotype?

A

Fab

*idiotype: only one unique/specific antigen-binding pocket for antigen

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9
Q

Which cytokine functions to drive differentiation of helper T cells into Th1 cells?

A

IL-12

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10
Q

Which cytokine functions to drive differentiation of helper T cells into Th2 cells?

A

IL-4

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11
Q

Which cytokine functions to drive differentiation of helper T cells into Th17 cells?

A

IL-6, TGF-beta

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12
Q

Which immune cell expresses FOXP3?

A

regulatory T cell

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13
Q

In what way does Neisseria gonorrhoeae exhibit antigenic variation?

A

pilus protein variation

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14
Q

Which cells produce and secrete interferon-α and -β?

A

virally infected cells

interferon-α and -β are glycoprotein

  • > released by virally infected cells
  • > act locally on UNINFECTED CELLS
  • > degrade viral DNA and RNA
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15
Q

Why is live attenuated vaccine contraindicated in pregnant and immunocompromised pts?

A

it can revert back to virulent form

they are live!

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16
Q

Gram-negative bacteria release endotoxins/LPS that directly stimulate macrophages. Which receptors mediate this process?

A

CD14 (TLR4)

receptor on macrophages. Th cells are NOT involved

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17
Q

Two acute phase reactants that are decreased in inflammation?

A
  • transferrin: to prevent iron loss from bacteria
    more transferrin, more iron available in serum
  • albumin: to increase synthesis of other proteins
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18
Q

Which two signals induce natural killer cell killing activity?

A
  • nonspecific activation signal on target cell
  • absence of MHC1: NK cells are responsible for killing tumor cells. Tumor cells evade T cell mediated immune response as it lacks MHC1.
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19
Q

What is the only one live attenuated vaccine that can be given to HIV?

A

MMR

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20
Q

Which five diseases can be treated with passive immunity?

A 
Tetanus
Botulism
HBV
Varicella
Rabies

To Be Healed Very Rapidly

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21
Q

C3 deficiency causes increased risk for what type of hypersensitivity reaction? why?

A

type 3

C3b (opsonin) helps clearing immune complex

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22
Q

What are thymus independent antigen?

A

non-peptide antigen (lipopolysaccharides from gram negative bacteria)

T cells only recognize peptide as antigen

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23
Q

Which complements (3) are involved in anaphylaxis?

A

C3a, C4a, C5a

  • C5a also plays role in neutrophil chemotaxis
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24
Q

Which cytokine can be used to treat multiple sclerosis?

A

IFN-beta

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25
Q

pernicious anemia: what HLA?

A

HLA-DR5

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26
Q

Name and target of the antibody that would you give to prevent RSV infection?

A

palivizumab, targets RSV F protein (fusion protein)

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27
Q

What immunosuppresent causes hirsutism and gingival hyperplasia

A

cyclosporine

  • note that major toxicity of cyclosporine is nephrotoxicity
  • another calcineurin inhibitor, tacrolimus, does NOT have hirsutism and gingival hyperplasia
28
Q

IL-6

  • secreted by what cell?
  • function?
A
  • macrophage releases IL-6

- production of acute phase reactants

29
Q

IL-8

  • secreted by what cell?
  • function?
A
  • macrophage

- neutrophil chemotaxis

30
Q

Multiple sclerosis is what type of hypersensitivity reaction?

A

type 4

31
Q

Which two enzymes in respiratory burst require selenium as cofactor

A

glutathione reductase

glutathione peroxidase

32
Q

A patient with a bacterial infection coughs up blue-green sputum. What is the function of the enzyme giving this sputum its color?

A

myeloperoxidase

final step of respiratory burst: H2O2 -> HOCl (bleach)

33
Q

Where are complement proteins made?

A

liver

34
Q

What is composition of MAC (Membrane Attack Complex)?

A

C5b-C9

35
Q

cyclosporine vs. tacrolimus: MOA?

A

cyclosporine: binds cyclophilin and inhibits calcineurin, preventing IL-2 transcription and blocking T-cell activation
tacrolimus: binds FKBP to inhibis calcineurin

  • BOTH are calcineurin inhibitors.
  • BOTH are nephrotoxic
36
Q

Blood transfusion reaction: allergic vs. anaphlylatic

  • symptoms
  • treatment
A

allergic

  • urticaria, pruritus, wheezing, fever
  • treat with anti-histamine

anaphlylatic

  • shock, hypotension, bronchospasm
  • treat with epinephrine
  • maintain BP is the first thing to do. hypotension due to shock-> needs epinephrine to increase BP
37
Q

What is function of regulatory T cells?

A

immune tolerance by suppressing CD4 and CD8 T cells

38
Q

What two CD markers are associated with IL-2 signaling pathway?

A

CD3 and CD4

39
Q

target of infliximab? indications?

A

TNF- alpha

IBD, RA

40
Q

target of aldesleukin? indications (2)?

A

IL-2

RCC, metastatic melanoma

41
Q

Mechanism in which TSS-1 toxin of S.aureus produces superantigen?

A

crosslinks MHC2 and TCR
-> polyclonal activation and expansion of CD4+ T cells
: it activates massive amount of random CD4+ T cells

42
Q

Apart from inducing fever, what is another function of IL-1?

A

activation of osteoclast activity

  • IL-1 is called osteoclast activating factor
43
Q

Most abundant antibody?

A

IgG

44
Q

Which cell surface proteins (2) are unique to regulatory T cells?

A

CD4 and CD25

45
Q

Which cytokine can be used to treat chronic granulomatous disease (CGD)?

A

IFN-gamma

46
Q

Hemochromatosis: what HLA?

A

HLA-A3

47
Q

Anaphylaxis: mediators?

  • actue
  • delayed
A
  • acute: IgE cross-linking on mast cells

- delayed: leukotrienes

48
Q

Which cell surface protein on NK cells bind to the Fc region of IgG?

A

CD16

49
Q

Unique cell surface protein on NK cells?

A

CD56

50
Q

Disseminated mycobacterial infections after receiving the BCG vaccine: diagnosis? inheritance pattern?

A

IL-12 receptor deficiency: impaired Th1 cell activation

autosomal recessive

51
Q

What cells express MHC1?

A

all cells except RBC (no nucleus)

  • remember: MHC1 presents ENDOGENOUSLY expressed VIRAL protein (viral DNA inserted to genome)
    anuecleated cells will NOT express viral protein. so no MHC1
52
Q

SLE: what HLA? (2)

A

HLA-DR2 and DR3

53
Q

Sirolimus: side effects? (3)

A
  • pancytopenia
  • SIROlimus, panSIRtopenia
  • hyperlipidemia
  • insulin resistance
54
Q

Serum sickness vs. Arthus reaction: similarities and difference?

A

BOTH are type 3 hypersensitivity reaction, fix complements

  • Serum sickness is immune complex deposition with SYSTEMATIC symptoms: fever, urticaria, lymphadenopathy
  • Arthus is LOCAL SUBACUTE immune complex deposition
    : classic example is subacute edema and necrosis after intradermal injection of antigen
55
Q

PSGN: what type of hypersensitivity?

A

type 3

56
Q

Hyper-IgE syndrome (Job syndrome)

  • inheritance pattern
  • etiology
A
  • autosomal dominant
  • only AD disease in immunodeficiency
  • most others are either XR or AR
  • STAT3 mutation -> loss of Th17 cells
57
Q

Daclizumab: MOA? what is another drug that has same MOA?

A

monoclonal antibodies agains IL-2R

Basiliximab works in same mechanism with Daclizumab

58
Q

What are anti-inflammatory cytokines? which cell secrets them?

A

IL-10 and TGF-beta

secreted by regulatory T cell
* this makes sense: regulatory T cells mediate immune tolerance by SUPPRESSING T cell response

59
Q

septic shock: which cytokine?

A

TNF-alpha

60
Q

What are two immunizations that use both passive and active immunity on viral exposure?

A

HepB and Rabies

61
Q

CGD: suscptible for what bugs infection?

A 
catalase positive
N- nocardia
P- pseudomona
L- listeria
A- aspergillios
C- candia
E- e.coli
S- staph
S- serratia 
H- H.pylori
B- B. cepacia
62
Q

Sirolimus: MOA?

A

Inhibition of mTOR: Inhibition of IL-2 signal transduction

63
Q

What is target of eculizumab?

A

complement protein C5

* eculizumab is indicated for PNH (paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria)

64
Q

SCID: two possible defects? inheritance pattern of each? which one is more common?

A
  • defective IL-2R gamma chain, X-linked, most common

- adenosine deaminase deficiency, autosomal recessive

65
Q

Regulatory T cell: CD markers (2)?

A

CD4 and CD25

Immunology: 5/2-5/3 (4 decks)

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