Immunology Exam Flashcards

1
Q

What are the stages of progression for HIV infection

A

Acute HIV infection
Clinical latency stage
Symptomatic HIV infection
Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS)

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2
Q

Explain the Acute HIV infection stage

A

Occurs within a few weeks after initial exposure to HIV.

Virus replicates rapidly resulting in a high viral load.

Flu-like symptoms; fever, fatigue, sore throat, rash and swollen lymph nodes (some individuals may have mild / no symptoms)

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3
Q

Explain Clinical Latency stage for HIV

(Also known as Chronic or Asymptomatic stage)

A

Phase can last for several years

virus continues to replicate but at a slower rate

virus is active and can be transmitted

Most do not experience significant symptoms

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4
Q

Explain Symptomatic stage for HIV infection

A

Immune system gradually becomes weakened

Symptoms such as persistent fever, weight loss, chronic diarrhea and infections begin.

Infections take advantage of weakened immune system = pneumonia, TB, cancer

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5
Q

Explain AIDS stage

A

Acquired immunodeficiency Syndrome

Most advanced stage of HIV

Occurs when immune system is severely damaged and CD4 count drops below 200 cells per microliter

At this stage, individuals are highly susceptible to opportunistic infections which can be life-threatening

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6
Q

Describe Viral load monitoring for HIV and its importance

A

Measures the amount of HIV RNA in a person’s blood and is a crucial component of HIV management

Viral load helps determine how effectively antiretroviral therapy (ART) is suppressing the virus and allows clinicians to monitor progression

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7
Q

Describe a method of viral load monitoring for HIV

A

Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR): PCR is the most widely used method for HIV viral load monitoring. It amplifies the viral RNA present in a blood sample to detect and quantify the amount of HIV in the bloodstream.

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8
Q

Explain PCR viral load process for HIV

7 Stages

A

plasma / serum sample is collected

RNA is extracted and isolated from blood using laboratory techniques; this involves breaking open the virus particles

Since HIV is an RNA virus, the viral RNA needs to be converted into cDNA before PCR amplification can occur; this step is called reverse transcriptase.

The cDNA generated from reverse transcriptase serves as a template for PCR amplification

PCR reaction mixture contains cDNA, primers, polymerase enzyme and other necessary components.

Each PCR cycle doubles the amount of DNA, leading to exponential amplification of the target region. After multiple cycles, the target DNA segment (in this case, the HIV viral RNA) is amplified to a detectable level.

In the case of HIV viral load monitoring, fluorescence-based detection techniques are commonly employed. Fluorescent probes that specifically bind to the amplified HIV DNA are used to measure the level of fluorescence, which is proportional to the amount of viral genetic material present in the sample

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9
Q

What are the different phases and periods for HIV infection

(WAS)

A

Window phase

Acute phase

Seroconversion period

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10
Q

Describe the Window phase for HIV in the context of antibodies

A

This is the time between HIV infection and the production of detectable HIV antibodies. During this phase, which can last several weeks, standard antibody tests may yield negative results despite the presence of the virus.

However, specialized tests like nucleic acid testing (NAT) can detect the virus directly during this period.

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11
Q

Describe the Acute phase of HIV in the context of antibodies

A

The acute phase occurs immediately after the window period and typically lasts a few weeks.

high viral load, rapid viral replication, and flu-like symptoms.

Antibodies against HIV start to develop during this phase, leading to seroconversion.

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12
Q

Describe the Seroconversion Period for HIV

A

Seroconversion refers to the development of detectable HIV antibodies in the blood.

It usually occurs within three to twelve weeks after infection, with an average time of around 25 days.

During seroconversion, individuals may experience symptoms similar to the flu or may remain asymptomatic. Once seroconversion takes place, standard HIV antibody tests become positive, indicating HIV infection.

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13
Q

What is the one distinctive HIV Antigen?

A

p24 viral protein

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14
Q

p24 viral protein relevance to HIV

A

Useful in diagnosing primary HIV infection.

High levels of p24 are present in the blood serum of newly infected individuals during the short period between infection and seroconversion

Antibodies to p24 are produced during seroconversion

rendering the p24 antigen undetectable after seroconversion in most cases. Therefore, p24 antigen assays are not reliable for diagnosing HIV infection after its very earliest stages

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15
Q

Define autoimmune disease and what are the outcomes

A

Autoimmune disease refers to a condition in which the immune system, which normally protects the body against harmful substances, mistakenly attacks healthy cells and tissues.

Instead of targeting foreign invaders like bacteria or viruses, the immune system produces autoantibodies that attack the body’s own cells, tissues, and organs.

This immune response leads to inflammation, tissue damage, and various symptoms specific to the affected organ or system.

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16
Q

Discuss the challenges in diagnosis when it comes to Autoimmune diseases

A

Vague and overlapping symptoms

Many autoimmune diseases share similar symptoms eg. fatigue, joint pain and inflammation. These symptoms can be nonspecific and may mimic other conditions making it difficult to differentiate between autoimmune diseases and other underlying causes

Lack of specific diagnostic tests

While certain autoantibodies can be detected in some autoimmune diseases, there is often a lack of specific tests for many conditions. Diagnosis usually relies on a combination of clinical evaluation, medical history, physical examination and lab tests.

Delayed onset and variable progression

Autoimmune diseases can have a delayed onset, with symptoms appearing gradually over time. Additionally the progression of these diseases can vary greatly among individuals making it challenging to identify the disease at an early stage

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17
Q

What is coeliacs disease

A

Coeliac disease is an autoimmune disease triggered by the ingestion of gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye.

When individuals with coeliac disease consume gluten, it leads to an immune response that damages the lining of the small intestine, resulting in various symptoms and potential long-term complications.

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18
Q

Symptoms of Coeliacs

MSJD

A

Malabsorption

Skin problems; itchy rash, blistering lesions

Joint and muscle pain

Digestive Issues; Abdominal pain, bloating, diarrhea, constipation, and nausea.

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19
Q

Discuss the diagnostic strategy for Coeliacs disease

A

The first step is to assess the patient’s symptoms and medical history.

Coeliac disease is often suspected in individuals who experience symptoms such as chronic diarrhea, abdominal pain, bloating, weight loss, fatigue, or deficiencies in certain nutrients like iron or vitamin D.

Serology testing

The next step involves blood tests to detect specific antibodies associated with coeliac disease. The primary antibodies measured are tissue transglutaminase antibodies (tTG-IgA). Elevated levels of tTG-IgA suggest a high likelihood of coeliac disease. Total IgA levels may also be measured to identify potential IgA deficiency, which could affect the reliability of the tTG-IgA test.

Intestinal Biopsy

The definitive diagnosis of coeliac disease usually requires an intestinal biopsy. This involves taking small samples of tissue from the small intestine, typically through an endoscopy procedure. The samples are then examined under a microscope to look for characteristic changes in the intestinal lining, such as villous atrophy, increased intraepithelial lymphocytes, and crypt hyperplasia.

Genetic Testing

Genetic testing is not used to diagnose coeliac disease directly but can be helpful in certain cases. The presence of specific human leukocyte antigen (HLA) genes, such as HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8, is strongly associated with coeliac disease. However, it’s important to note that not all individuals with these genes develop coeliac disease, and their absence does not rule out the condition.

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20
Q

Coeliacs disease diagnosis summary

A

It’s important to note that for accurate results, patients should be on a gluten-containing diet (containing gluten from wheat, barley, and rye) prior to serology testing and intestinal biopsy. A gluten-free diet can lead to false-negative results and should only be initiated after the diagnostic process is complete.

Overall, the diagnostic strategy for coeliac disease involves a combination of clinical evaluation, serology testing, genetic testing, and intestinal biopsy to establish a definitive diagnosis.

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21
Q

What is the ANA test

A

ANA test also known as the antinuclear antibody test is used to detect the presence of antinuclear antibodies in the blood.

These antibodies attack the body’s own cell nuclei and can be associated with various autoimmune diseases.

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22
Q

Principle of ANA

A

Indirect Immunofluorescence (IIF)

In this technique, patient serum is exposed to a substrate (typically human epithelial cells eg. hep-2000 cells) containing a mixture of different antigens in the cell nuclei.

If ANA is present in the patient’s serum, it will bind to these antigens.

After the serum is incubated on a slide containing fixed cells, it is washed to remove any unbound antibodies.

After washing, a fluorescently labelled secondary antibody is added which binds to the ANA if present.

When exposed to specific wavelengths the fluorescence can be visualized as bright green apple staining under a fluorescent microscope.

Common patterns include; homogenous, speckled, nucleolar and centromere

After the detection of ANA, titers are carried out until a weak fluorescent grade of 1 is detected for reporting.

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23
Q

Purpose of ANA

A

Diagnosis of autoimmune diseases

ANA test is primarily used to help diagnose autoimmune diseases, such as systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), Sjögren’s syndrome, rheumatoid arthritis, and systemic sclerosis.

Disease monitoring

For individuals who have already been diagnosed with an autoimmune disease, the ANA test may be used to monitor the progression of the disease and the effectiveness of treatment.

Differential diagnosis

The ANA test can assist in distinguishing between autoimmune diseases and other conditions that may have similar symptoms. It is not a definitive diagnostic tool on its own, but it can aid in the overall diagnostic process when combined with other clinical and laboratory findings.

Research purposes

The ANA test is also used in research studies to investigate the mechanisms and patterns of autoimmune diseases, as well as to explore potential new treatments and therapies.

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24
Q

Limitation of ANA test

A

ANA test result indicates the presence of antinuclear antibodies, it does not provide a definitive diagnosis of a specific autoimmune disease.

Further evaluation, including a comprehensive medical history, physical examination, additional laboratory tests, and consultation with a healthcare professional, is necessary for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

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25
Q

What is the ENA test

A

An extractable nuclear antigen test is a laboratory test used to detect specific antibodies against extractable nuclear antigens in the blood.

Extractable nuclear antigens are proteins that are found in the cell nucleus and can be associated with various autoimmune diseases.

The ENA test is a more specific and targeted test compared to the ANA test.

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26
Q

Principle of ENA test

A

Line immunoassay

Kit contains strips coated with parallel lines of antigens purified by affinity chromatography.

In the first reaction diluted patient samples are incubated with immunoblot strips.

For positive samples, the specific antibodies will bind to the corresponding antigenic site.

To detect bound antibodies, a second incubation is carried out using an enzyme-conjugated antibody which is capable of promoting a colour change

these results are visualized by different intensity bands seen on the strip which can be compared to a reference strip provided in order to report results.

27
Q

Purpose of ENA

A

Primarily used to aid in the diagnosis and classification of autoimmune diseases, especially those associated with specific extractable nuclear antigens.

These include diseases such as systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), Sjögren’s syndrome, systemic sclerosis, and mixed connective tissue disease.

The presence of specific antibodies against extractable nuclear antigens can help differentiate between different autoimmune diseases.

Disease monitoring (like ANA)

Differential diagnosis

Research

28
Q

ANA vs ENA

A

ANA is a broad screening test for the presence of antibodies targeting the cell nucleus, while ENA is a more specific test that identifies individual antibodies against extractable nuclear antigens.

Both tests are useful in diagnosing and monitoring autoimmune disorders, but ENA provides additional information on the specific antigens involved.

The results of these tests, along with clinical evaluation and other laboratory findings, help healthcare professionals make a more accurate diagnosis and develop appropriate treatment plans.

29
Q

6 Main proteins in ENA

RLSRJS

A

An extractable nuclear antigen (ENA) panel detects the presence of autoantibodies in the blood that react with proteins in the cell nucleus.

These proteins are known as “extractable” because they can be removed from cell nuclei using saline and represent six main proteins

Ro, La, Sm, RNP, Scl-70 and Jo1

30
Q

What is the complement system and what does it consist of

A

A complement system is a group of proteins that work together to defend against pathogens and promote immune responses.

It consists of over 30 proteins, including C1-C9 components, regulatory proteins, and receptors.

31
Q

What are the different Complement activation pathways

A

Classical
Alternative
Lectin

32
Q

Initiation of classical pathway and associated proteins

A

initiated by antibody-antigen complexes

involves C1q, C1r, and C1s proteins

33
Q

Initiation of the Alternative pathway

A

activated spontaneously and amplifies the complement response.

34
Q

Initiation of the Lectin pathway

A

triggered by pattern recognition receptors binding to pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs)

35
Q

Different functions of the Complement system

Remember OCCI

A

Opsonization
Chemotaxis
Cell lysis
Inflammation modulation

36
Q

What happens in the Opsonization outcome of complement

A

Complement proteins coat pathogens which enhances their recognition and clearance by phagocytes

37
Q

What happens in the Chemotaxis outcome of complement

A

Complement proteins attract immune cells to the site of infection or inflammation

38
Q

what happens in the Cell lysis outcome of complement and what are the associated proteins

A

The membrane attack complex (MAC) formed by complement proteins can directly lyse cells

Proteins involved; C5b, C6-C9

MAC is initiated by C5b

39
Q

what happens in the Inflammation modulation outcome of complement

A

Complement proteins regulate the intensity and duration of inflammatory responses

40
Q

Complement deficiencies and clinical implications

A

Deficiencies in complement components can lead to increased susceptibility to infections, autoimmune disorders, and immune complex diseases

Examples include deficiencies in C1q, C2, C3, C4, and terminal complement components, which are associated with an increased risk of infections and autoimmune diseases

41
Q

Purpose of MHC restriction in T cell recognition

A

T cells can only recognize antigens when presented in association with self-MHC molecules.

MHC restriction ensures that T cells respond to foreign antigens while ignoring self-antigens, preventing autoimmune reactions

42
Q

What does MHC stand for and what are the Different classes

A

Major Histocompatibility Complex

MHC class I molecules are found on almost all nucleated cells and present antigens to CD8+ T cells

MHC class II molecules are expressed on antigen-presenting cells (APCs) and present antigens to CD4+ T cells

43
Q

Structure and function of MHC molecules

A

MHC molecules have a cleft or groove where antigens bind and are presented to T cell receptors

44
Q

Role of MHC Restriction

A

MHC molecules play a crucial role in the regulation of immune responses by presenting antigens to T cells;

  1. MHC restriction ensures that T cells recognize foreign antigens in the context of self-MHC molecules
  2. It helps regulate the immune response and prevents T cells from attacking self-tissues, thus preventing autoimmune reactions
45
Q

Different types of autoimmune liver diseases

A

Autoimmune hepatitis (AIH)

Primary biliary cholangitis (PBC)

Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC)

46
Q

What is AIH

A

Autoimmune Hepatitis is characterized by immune-mediated inflammation of the liver

47
Q

What is PBC

A

Primary biliary cholangitis (PBC) involves the destruction of small intrahepatic bile ducts

48
Q

What is PSC

A

Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) is characterized by inflammation and scarring of the intrahepatic and extrahepatic bile ducts

49
Q

Clinical presentations of autoimmune liver diseases

A

may include fatigue, jaundice, abdominal pain, and elevated liver enzymes

50
Q

Important liver enzymes

A

ALT - Alanine transaminase

AST - Aspartate transaminase

51
Q

Diagnostic criteria for autoimmune liver diseases include

A

clinical, serological and histological findings

52
Q

Serological markers and laboratory tests for autoimmune liver disease

A

Serological markers such as antinuclear antibodies (ANA), anti-smooth muscle antibodies (ASMA), and anti-mitochondrial antibodies (AMA) are used in the diagnosis and monitoring of autoimmune liver diseases.

Liver function tests, including liver enzymes and bilirubin levels, are evaluated to assess liver function and damage.

53
Q

Treatment options for autoimmune liver disease

A

immunosuppressive therapy to reduce liver inflammation and prevent disease progression

Medications; corticosteroids, immunomodulators, and bile acid sequestrants may be used to manage symptoms and slow disease progression

Liver transplantation may be considered in severe cases

54
Q

Monoclonal vs Polyclonal antibodies

A

Monoclonal antibodies are derived from a single clone of B cells or hybridoma cells and recognize a single epitope.

Polyclonal antibodies are produced from a mixed population of B cells and recognize multiple epitopes of an antigen.

55
Q

Production method and sources of pAbs and mAbs

A

Monoclonal antibodies are typically produced through hybridoma or recombinant DNA technology

Polyclonal antibodies are produced by immunizing an animal with an antigen, and the serum containing a mixture of antibodies is collected

56
Q

Advantages and limitations of pAbs and mAbs

A

Monoclonal antibodies offer high specificity and uniformity, making them valuable for targeted therapies and precise diagnostics

Polyclonal antibodies provide broader coverage and can recognize multiple epitopes, making them useful in certain assays and detecting antigenic variations

57
Q

Define QC and its aim

A

QC refers to the set of activities and procedures performed to monitor and control the quality of laboratory processes and results.

Its primary aim is to identify and correct any errors or deviations that may occur during testing.

58
Q

Define QA and its aim

A

QA refers to the overall management and processes designed to ensure that the laboratory consistently produces reliable and accurate results.

It focuses on preventing errors and deviations rather than correcting them.

59
Q

How is QA achieved and what is the focus

A

establishing quality policies

developing SOPs

implementing quality management systems

conducting training to ensure standardized practices.

It focuses on continuous improvement, risk management, and adherence to regulatory requirements.

60
Q

What does QC involve and what components are used to achieve QC

A

QC involves monitoring and assessing the reliability of test results through internal and external quality control measures.

It includes using control samples, calibration of instruments, verification of reagents, and proficiency testing to detect and correct errors or deviations.

61
Q

Types of QC measures

A

Internal QC involves the use of control samples with known values to monitor the precision and accuracy of test results within a laboratory.

Kit QC - provided by the manufacturer

External / Third party QC

62
Q

Documentation of QC in a laboratory

A

Multi QC
IT3000
Data manager

Levy Jennings plots with west guard rules

63
Q

Laboratory requirements and standards

A

Laboratories must adhere to regulatory requirements and standards set by accrediting bodies and regulatory agencies.

These standards may include ISO 15189, CLIA (Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments)