immunology exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

imbalances in __ can affect the immune response

A

health conditions

humidity

temperature

nutrients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

two groups of innate immunity

A

cellular

humoral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

components of cellular immunity

A

neutrophils

macrophages

mast cells

lymphoid cells

basophils

eosinophils

natural killer cells

dendritic cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

components of the humoral system

A

complement system

natural antibodies

acute phase proteins

antimicrobial peptides

soluble lectins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

why is it important for newborns to receive colostrum in the first couple hours

A

the mother’s antibodies are in the colostrum - the antibody mediated immune response can be transferred naturally through nursing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

three major lineages of hematopoiesis

A

erythroid

myeloid

lymphoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

cells with myeloid lineage

A

granulocytes - neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils

mast cells

monocytes

macrophages

myeloid dendritic cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

cells with lymphoid lineage

A

lymphocytes - T and B cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

function of colony stimulating growth factors (CSFs) and interleukins (ILs)

A

stimulate production of WBC in bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

neutrophil primary function

A

antimicrobial effectors - esp. in acute bacterial infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

neutrophil mechanism of action

A

phagocytosis

degranulation

neutrophil extracellular trap formation - cover the pathogen, makes getting rid of them more efficient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

most prominent leukocyte

A

neutrophil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

eosinophil primary function

A

antiparasitic effectors - esp. in helminthic infection

some antiviral action

role in allergies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

eosinophil mechanism of action

A

degranulation

limited phagocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

basophil primary function

A

mediator of inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

basophil mechanism of action

A

degranulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

monocytes primary function

A

precursors of macrophages and dendritic cells

high phagocytic properties

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

monocytes mechanism of action

A

limited antimicrobial function in blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

macrophage primary function

A

immune surveillance

moderate antimicrobial capacity

limited antigen presentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

macrophage mechanism of action

A

detection of threats and release of inflammatory mediators

phagocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

dendritic cell primary function

A

immune surveillance

antigen processing and presentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

dendritic cell mechanism of action

A

detection of threats and release of inflammatory mediators

endocytosis and phagocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

mast cell primary function

A

immune surveillance

mediator and amplifier of inflammation and allergy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

mast cell mechanism of action

A

detection of threats and release of inflammatory mediators via degranulation

synthesis of lipid mediators and cytokines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

natural killer cells lineage

A

lymphoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

natural killer cells primary function

A

destruction of virally infected or abnormal host cells (incl. tumor cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

natural killer cells mechanism of action

A

recognition of virally infected or abnormal host cells and targeted release of cytotoxic granules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

characteristics of B lymphocytes

A

recognize extracellular antigens

produce antibodies

differentiate in plasma cells

main role in humoral immune response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

characteristics of T lymphocytes

A

recognize intracellular antigens

does not produce antibodies

produce cytokines

differentiate in several types of lymphocytes

main role in cellular immune response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

where do B cells mature in birds

A

bursa of fabricus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

where to B cells mature in mammals

A

bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

where to T cell precursors arise from

A

bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

where do T cells mature

A

thymus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

canine trapped neutrophil syndrome

A

cycles every 2 weeks where puppies will develop neutropenia (dec. neutrophils)

neutrophils get trapped in the bone marrow

makes puppies more susceptible to infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

site of lymphocyte development

A

primary lymphoid organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

sites where lymphocytes respond to antigens

A

secondary lymphoid organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

primary lymphoid organs

A

thymus

bursa of fabricus

peyer’s patches

bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

secondary lymphoid organs

A

tonsils

spleen

lymph nodes

peyer’s patches

bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

internal lymphoid organs

A

thymus

bone marrow

spleen

lymph nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

surface lymphoid organs

A

salivary glands

respiratory tract

mammary glands

intestine

urogenital system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

thymic hormones

important for T cell production

A

thymosins

thymopoietins

thymic humoral factor

thymulin

thymostimulins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

effect of thymectomy

A

affects cellular immune response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

effect of bursectomy

A

affects antibody immune response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

high endothelial venule (HEV) in the lymph node

A

responsible for lymphocyte recruitment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

lymph node cortex is rich in ___

lymph node paracortex is rich in ___

A

B cells

T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

white pulp in spleen is rich in

A

mainly B cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

immune response to injected antigen

A

occurs in secondary lymphoid organs during primary immune response

occurs in primary lymphoid organs during secondary immune response (primary response developed memory)

48
Q

mucus associated lymphoid tissue (MALT)

A

unencapsulated lymphoid tissue found in various mucosal membranes

49
Q

how does particle size influence site of deposition within the respiratory tract

A

directly - smaller particles make it further

50
Q

ciliary dyskinesia

A

impaired movement of cilia - makes more susceptible to URIs

51
Q

innate immunity - chemical factors - fatty acids

A

on skin mainly found in sweat; inhibit bacterial growth

52
Q

innate immunity - chemical factors - lysozyme and phospholipase

A

found in tears, saliva, nasal secretions; inhibit bacterial growth

53
Q

innate immunity - chemical factors - low pH

A

found in sweat, gastric juices - antibacterial effects

54
Q

innate immunity - chemical factors - surfactants

A

opsonins in lungs; enhance phagocytosis

55
Q

sebum

A

origin sweat glands; water repellant and acidic

56
Q

defensins and cathelicidins

A

+ charged proteins insert into - charged microbial membranes and punch holes – causes an osmotic imbalance and cell lysis

57
Q

lactoferrin

A

origin milk; inhibits bacterial growth by sequestering iron

58
Q

lactoperoxidase

A

generate reactive oxygen compounds that damage microbes

59
Q

commensal bacteria

A

compete with pathogens for resources and are present in the GIT, respiratory, reproduction and skin

influence intestine development and adaptive immune response

60
Q

first line of defense, normally in blood circulation

A

neutrophils

61
Q

stages of neutrophil adhesion and migration

A

rolling - adherence - emigration - chemotaxis

62
Q

chemokines function

A

trigger movement of neutrophils by chemotaxis

63
Q

chemokines

A

CXCL-8 (IL-8), C5A, B4 (leukotriene); must be present in [high]

64
Q

what signals the release of selectin and integrin (for neutrophil rolling)

A

PAMPs and DAMPs

65
Q

opsonins - enhance phagocytosis by binding around pathogen

A

mannose binding lectin

fibronectin

complement

antibodies

66
Q

neutrophil extracellular traps (NETs)

A

extension of cell membrane rich in DNA, histones and enzymes; can kill larger microorganisms

67
Q

ROS

A

hypochlorite

hydrogen peroxide

superoxide

singlet oxygen

68
Q

neutrophils produce

A

lysozymes

defensins

lactoferrin

colagenase

gelatinase

elastase

cathepsin B

B-glucoronidase

myeloperoxidase

69
Q

collagenase, gelatinase and elastase

A

degrade bacteria and tissues

70
Q

elastase, cathepsin B and B-glucoronidase

A

activate TNF-a, degrade connective tissue and are bactericidal

71
Q

neutrophil receptors (CDs)

A

complements

antibodies

cell adhesion

72
Q

macrophages produce

A

cytokines and chemokines

73
Q

pro-inflammatory cytokines

A

IL-1, IL-6, TNF-a

74
Q

reactive nitrogen species (RNS)

A

nitrogen dioxide

nitrate

dinitrogen tetroxide

nitryl chloride

75
Q

effect of RNS

A

degradation/mutation of pathogen DNA

76
Q

enzyme for RNS

A

nitric oxide synthase 2 (with arginine)

77
Q

macrophage polarization - classical activation

A

M1 cells, host defense, inflammation

78
Q

macrophage polarization - alternative activation

A

M2 cells, suppress inflammation, tissue repair

79
Q

M1 cells activated by

A

IFN-y

80
Q

M2 cells activated by

A

IL-4, IL-10, IL-13

81
Q

what signal causes M2 cells to remove dying neutrophils

A

failure for CD31 interaction

82
Q

precursor to granulomas

A

fibrosis due to fibroblast accumulation during persistent infection

83
Q

first line of defense against viruses

A

NK cells

84
Q

NK cells can recognize

A

virus infected cells

tumor cells

MHC class I molecules

stressed cells

parasitic worms

bacteria without prior activation

85
Q

NK cells produce

A

IFN-y

86
Q

NK cell activation triggered by

A

failure to express MHC class 1 molecules

expression of stress related molecules

presence of antibodies

87
Q

NK cell receptors

A

killer cell immunoglobulin-like receptor (KIR)

Ly49

NKG2D receptor

Fc receptor

88
Q

stress molecules

A

MICA

MICB

89
Q

KIR cells

A

bind to MHC on target cell; inhibition

90
Q

Ly49 receptor

A

binds to MHC; inhibition or activation

91
Q

NKG2D receptor

A

binds to stress molecules; activation (destruction)

92
Q

Fc receptor

A

binds to Ab on target cell; activation

93
Q

antibody dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC)

A

lysis of target cell with Ab

94
Q

Ly49 may be replaced with

A

KIR receptors

95
Q

types of receptors on NK cells

A

adhesion

integrins

chemokine

cytokine

regulatory

inhibitory

activating

96
Q

pattern recognition receptor (PRR) functions

A

proinflammatory signals

cytokine release

phagocytosis

97
Q

PRR receptor families

A

TLRs

NLRs

RLRs

98
Q

PAMPS that TLRs recognize

A

LPS
peptidoglycans

bacterial DNA/RNA

flagellin

profilin-like protein

99
Q

TLRs

A

transmembrane protein expressed in sentinel cells, external epithelium and intracellular endosomal membrane

100
Q

NLRs

A

cytosol receptors, not membrane bound

NOD1, NOD2

initiate signaling cascades that result in NF-KB – expression of proinflammatory cytokines and chemokines

101
Q

RLRs

A

intracellular, detect viral RNA

activation of NF-KB and type 1 interferon expression

102
Q

inflammasome

A

activated by TLRs and NLRs

activates pro-inflammatory cytokines

103
Q

phagocyte receptor

A

mannose receptor

104
Q

DAMPs release

A

pro-inflammatory cytokines (TNF-a and IL-8) when cells die by necrosis or cell injury

105
Q

how does shock occur

A

high levels of pro-inflammatory cytokines

106
Q

TNF-a produced by

A

macrophages

monocytes

T cells

mast cells

107
Q

TNF-a functions

A

promotes inflammation

activates cells

enhances fibroblast/collagen growth

toxic effects

108
Q

IL-1 functions

A

promotes inflammation

affects metabolism, blood flow, cell growth, leukocytes, the brain

kills tumor cells

109
Q

IL-6 produced by

A

muscle during exercise

110
Q

IL-6 functions

A

stimulates T and B cells

fever

antiinflammatory

acute phase response of hepatocytes

111
Q

vasoactive amines

A

histamine - vasodilation

serotonin - vasoconstriction/vasodilation

112
Q

vasoactive peptides

A

C5a - chemotactic

113
Q

vasoactive lipids

A

sentinel cells - leukotrienes, prostaglandins

114
Q

fever caused by

A

hypothalamus

prostaglandins and inflammatory cytokines

115
Q

effects of acute inflammation on vasculature

A

decreased blood velocity at venous end - increased filtration, edema

116
Q

systemic effects of acute inflammation

A

anorexia

altered sleep patterns

lethargy

cachexia (muscle loss)
hemodynamic changes (shock)

fever

leukocytosis

metabolic acidosis