Immunology and Pathology Flashcards
1
Q
What are extremophiles?
A
Microorganisms adapted to live in harsh and extreme environments
2
Q
What are thermophiles?
A
Bacteria with optimum growth temp >45
3
Q
What are psychrophiles?
A
Bacteria with optimum growth temp below 20
4
Q
What are bacteria that withstand high osmotic pressure environments called?
A
Halophiles - high salt environments and spoilage of salted foods
5
Q
What are bacteria that live in acidic and alkaline environments called?
A
Acidophiles
Basophiles
6
Q
What are the 7 beneficial activities of microorganisms?
A
- Environmental cycles: C, N, O, S
- Agriculture and horticulture
- Food and drink: brewing, wine-making, baking, cheese
- Medicine: insulin, antibiotics
- Energy production: ethanol, methane, H2
- Solvent production: acetone, butanol
- Nutritional benefits and protective in man and animal
7
Q
What are the 7 mechanical antimicrobial factors which microbiota must contend with in healthy host?
A
- Flushing action of liquids: saliva, urine
- Peristalsis of gut
- Skin: impermeable barrier
- Cough/sneeze reflex
- Mucus
- Cilia
- Shedding of epithelial cells
8
Q
What are the 8 biochemical antimicrobial factors in health?
A
- Anaerobicity
- Acidity
- Sebaceous secretions
- Sweat: high salt
- Lysozyme: antibacterial enzyme
- Digestive enzymes
- Bile: detergent action
- Colonisation resistance
9
Q
What are the 6 immunological antimicrobial factors in health?
A
- Complement
- Phagocytosis
- Inflammation
- Acute phase response
- Antibodies
- Cell-mediated responses
10
Q
Why is infection control important?
A
Body surfaces are heavily colonised
Inanimate surfaces, instruments, H2O, air contaminated
Patients and staff may be carrying infections
Need to protect patients and staff from risk of infection
Dentists have responsibility for ensuring safety
11
Q
What are some of the infection control procedures?
A
Hep B immunisation Sterile instruments/equipment Proper aseptic techniques Safe disposal of waste PPE General hygiene and cleanliness
12
Q
What dental diseases are caused by microorganisms?
A
Dental plaque related disease: caries, periodontal disease
Other oral infections: abscess, mucosal infections, bone and sinus infections
Systemic disease: infective endocarditis, brain abscess
13
Q
What are the 5 infectious agents in inc. complexity?
A
- Prions: infectious proteins
- Viruses: non-living, obligate intra-cellular parasites
- Bacteria: prokaryote
- Fungi: eukaryote
- Protozoa: eukaryote
14
Q
What are prokaryotes?
A
Single-celled, contain RNA and DNA
Lack membrane bound nucleus
Single, circular DNA molecule as chromosome
15
Q
Describe eukaryotes
A
Truly nucleated: uni/multicellular containing both RNA and DNA
Membrane bound nucleus and other organelles
16
Q
What are prokaryotes and eukaryotes but viruses not?
A
Defined as living organisms
17
Q
What are parasites?
A
Organism that lives in/on 2nd organism (host)
May have little/no harmful affect, in apparent or bring about damage/harm (pathogen)
18
Q
What are commensals?
A
Microbes found colonising host that benefit or are essential to them
19
Q
Describe bacteria
A
Unicellular
Reproduce asexually by binary fission
V small, v diverse (aerobes, anaerobes, microaerophilic, capnophilic)
Low generation time (mins)
20
Q
What are the 2 important structural features of bacteria essential for their survival?
A
- Fimbriae: on surface; protect against phagocytosis, aid adherence to target
- Pilus: share genetic material; antibiotic resistance
21
Q
What are the 6 main bacteria types that interact with man?
A
- Gram +ve
- Gram -ve
- Acid-fast
- Mycoplasma, ureaplasma
- Rickettsiae
- Chlamydia
22
Q
Describe gram +ve bacteria
A
Thick peptidoglycan cell wall, possible protein layers, stain purple
23
Q
Describe gram -ve bacteria
A
Thin peptidoglycan layer, 2nd membrane, periplasm (space), lipid rich, fragile, stain pink
24
Q
What are acid-fast bacteria?
A
Bacteria with mycolic acids (waxy lipid) attached to peptidoglycan
Cross linking with arabinose and galactose
Does not stain by normal procedure
25
What is special about mycoplasma and ureaplasma?
Cytoplasmic contents surrounded by well developed PM thus resistance to antibiotics that target cell wall e.g. penicillins
26
How do viruses replicate?
```
Depend on host
Adsorption
Penetration
Assembly
Reslease
```
27
How do fungi reproduce?
Asexual - most freq. in good conditions
| Sexual - fusion of gametes or gametangia
28
How do yeasts reproduce?
By budding
29
What is an important yeast in oral biology?
Candida albicans
30
When are the body surfaces sterile?
Immediately before birth, rapidly colonised after birth
31
What body surfaces are normally non-sterile?
Skin, mouth, upper respiratory tract, GIT, genitourinary tract
Acquire from environment and contact with other people
32
What body surfaces are usually sterile?
Blood, CSF, lymph, bones, joints, internal organs
33
What secretions are contaminated?
Faeces heavily
| Saliva, tears, sebum sterile within glands, contaminated as soon as reach mucous membrane/skin
34
What 5 factors effect establishment of microorganisms?
1. Exposure of site to potential organism
2. Availability of suitable receptor sites
3. Ability of organism to adhere to receptors
4. Ability of organism to compete for nutrients
5. Ability to evade/withstand host defence mechanisms
35
Compare resident and transient microflora
Resident: commensal organisms regularly present at different sites
Transient: colonise body for short periods of time, w/o causing disease
36
Define commensal
Organism that benefits from relationship with host but is neither directly benefits or harms host
37
Define opportunistic pathogen
Organism that only causes disease when host is immunocompromised or is transferred to unusual site
38
Define carriage
Person asymptomatically carries pathogen which can be transferred to others
39
Define colonisation resistance
Mechanism by which resident microflora act as barrier against colonisation by undesirable, exogenous organisms
40
Define pathogen
Microorganism that is capable of causing disease
41
Define virulence
Quantitative ability of a pathogen to cause disease - measure of degree of pathogenicity
42
Describe the possible consequences of resident microflora being absent
```
Poor physical development of gut
Poor nutrient absorption in gut
Vit. deficiencies
Reduced host immune defences
Susceptibility to colonisation by pathogens
```
43
Describe the consequences of resident microflora being suppressed
Overgrowth by antibiotic-resistant microorganisms
| Colonisation by pathogens
44
What are the 4 possible mechanisms for colonisation resistance?
1. Competition for receptor sites
2. Competition for nutrients
3. Creation of unfavourable micro-environments that discourage colonisation
4. Production of inhibitory substances
45
Describe the advantageous metabolic activities of microflora of the vagina
Lactobacilli produce acid from glycogen, maintain low pH which is unsuitable for many exogenous bacteria
46
Describe advantageous activities of skin microflora
1. Propionibacteria breakdown sebum, release FAs - inhibit some potential pathogens
2. Some staphylococci produce peptide antibiotics which inhibit other bacteria
47
Describe advantageous activities of mouth and GIT microflora
Some bacteria produce bacteriocins which inhibit other organisms
48
What are 4 important gram +ve mouth microflora?
1. Streptococci
2. Actinomyces
3. Bifidibacterium
4. Lactobacillus
49
What are 4 important gram -ve oral bacteria?
1. Aggregatibacter
2. Porphyromonas
3. Fusobacterium
4. Prevotella
50
What 4 factors can disrupt normal flora at all sites?
1. Suppression by antimicrobial agents allowing overgrowth of resistant organisms
2. Changes in general health or immunological status
3. Hormonal changes
4. Local trauma
51
What 5 factors can disrupt normal flora of the mouth?
1. Changes in diet
2. Reduction in salivary production
3. Dental disease
4. Dental treatment
5. Oral hygiene
52
What 3 factors can disrupt GIT flora?
1. Changes in diet
2. Functional disorders of gut
3. Localised pathological lesion in gut
53
What 2 factors can disrupt female genital tract flora?
1. Menstrual cycle, pregnancy
| 2. Infra-urine contraceptive device
54
What 2 factors can disrupt skin flora?
1. Use of soaps, cosmetics, antiseptics
| 2. Wetness, dryness
55
What 2 factors can disrupt respiratory tract flora?
1. Viral infections
| 2. Damage to ciliated epithelial cell function
56
What are viruses?
'Non-living', obligate intracellular parasites
57
What are the 4 distinguishable features of viruses?
1. V small size
2. Genome: DNA/RNA
3. Metabolically inert: some have polymerases
4. Replication: not true reproduction
58
Describe the structure of viruses
Capsid: protein coat made of capsomeres
Nucleic acid in capsid
Some have membrane derived from host cell
Receptor binding protein
59
On what 5 characteristics are viruses classified?
```
1. Virus particle morphology
Type of nucleic acid:
2. DNA OR RNA
3. Intact or segmented
4. Single or double stranded
5. Linear or segmented
```
60
Differentiate between positive and negative RNA viruses
+ve: act directly as mRNA
| -ve: transcribed by virus-associated RNA transcriptase to mirror-image +ve copy which then acts as mRNA
61
What 4 factors allow viral evolution to be so rapid?
1. Genome duplication v quick
2. No proof reading or error correction
3. RNA viruses: nucleotide divergence 2%/yr
4. Polymerases v high freq. of error
62
What are the 6 stages of the viral life cycle?
1. Attachment
2. Entry
3. Uncoating
4. Synthesis (of viral components)
5. Assembly
6. Release
63
Define episomal and proviral
Episomes: viral genomes free in cytoplasm or nucleus
Proviral: integrate into host genome
64
What is amantadine? How does it work?
Antiviral agent
1-aminoadamantane
Interferes with uncoating of virus
65
What is acyclovar and how does it work?
Antiviral
| Inhibits viral reverse transcriptase
66
How do proteases inhibit viruses?
Prevent cutting up of viral proteins for assembly into capsid
67
How does ribavirin inhibit viruses?
Unknown
Ribonucleoside analogue
Prevents RNA synthesis and mRNA capping
68
What are the 5 leukocytes in order from most numerous to least?
1. Neutrophils: 40-70%
2. Lymphocytes: 20-45%
3. Monocytes: 4-8%
4. Eosinophils: 1-4%
5. Basophils: <1%
69
What are the 2 types of leukocytes?
1. Granulocytes
| 2. Agranulocytes
70
Which leukocytes are granulocytes and which are agranulocytes?
Granulocytes: neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils
Agranulocytes: lymphocytes, monocytes
71
Describe neutrophils
Multilobed nucleus: 2-6 interconnected lobes
Blue granules, pick up acid and base stains
Phagocytise and destroy bacteria
72
Describe eosinophils
Bilobed nucleus
Red/yellow granules
Role in ending allergic reactions and parasitic infections
73
Describe basophils
Bilobed nucleic hidden by large purple granules
Role in inflammation mediator
Granules secrete histamine
74
Describe lymphocytes
Round nuclei
Dense, purple staining, little cytoplasm
Immune response; act against specific antigens and infectious agents
75
Describe monocytes
Kidney shaped nuclei
Larges leukocyte
Transform into macrophages; phagocytic cells
76
What are the 2 types of lymphocytes?
1. T cells: attack antigen directly
| 2. B cells: multiply to become antibody secreting plasma cells
77
What are the 3 basic functions of myeloid cells (WBCs)?
1. Migration: move to site of infection
2. Phagocytosis: engulf bacteria in vacuole
3. Granule-release: different cells have different granules and purposes
78
What are the 4 functions of granule release from myeloid cells?
1. Degradation of pathogens
2. Chemotactic factors: cytokines that stim. release of more WBCs from bone marrow
3. Activators of clotting and clot dissolution
4. Factors that allow permeability
79
What is the overall affect of granule release?
Trigger and sustain inflammatory response
80
What is neutrophilia? When is it seen?
Inc. in number of neutrophils
1. Infection
2. Inflammation
3. Tissue damage
4. Myeloproliferative disorders
81
What 6 disorders can lead to eosinophilia?
1. Allergic: asthma
2. Skin: eczema, psoriasis
3. Gut: ulcerative colitis
4. Parasitic: Protozoa, metazoa
5. Malignancies: Hodgkin's disease, myeloproliferative
6. Lung eosinophilia: tuberculosis
82
What conditions can lead to basophilia?
1. Myeloproliferative: chronic leukaemia
2. Occasionally chronic infections
3. Severe hypothyroidism
83
In what situations does monocytosis arise?
1. Recovery from acute infection
2. Some chronic bacterial infection: tuberculosis
3. Viral infections
4. Collagen disease
5. Monocytic leukaemia
84
In what 4 conditions can lymphocytosis arise?
1. Viral infections: glandular fever
2. Infections in children: whooping cough
3. Other: TB, typhoid, toxoplasmosis
4. Malignant lymphoproliferative disorders: lymphomas, lymphocytic leukaemias, myeloma
85
What are the 3 functions of lymphocytes?
1. Helper cells: help B cells make antibodies
2. Regulatory: regulate immune response
3. Cytotoxic: kill virally infected cells
86
What is the role of natural killer cells?
Recognise and destroy cells infected w/ virus
| Act against malignant cells
87
What are the 5 epithelial barriers in innate immunity?
1. Mucus, peristalsis
2. Enzymes
3. Microbial
4. Cells that recognise pathogen patterns, produce chemicals that disrupts viral replication
5. Antibacterial peptides
88
What are the 5 molecules of the innate immune system?
1. Lysozyme
2. Pepsin-digestive enzyme
3. Complement: plasma cells mark pathogens for phagocytosis
4. Cytokines and Chemokines: cell-cell communication
5. Antimicrobial substances: cryptidins, defensins
89
What are the 8 functions of antibodies?
1. Neutralise toxins
2. Neutralise viral activity
3. Activating complement
4. Agglutination
5. Immobilisation of microorganisms
6. Binding soluble antigen
7. Antibody dependent cellular cytotoxicity: killing infected cells
8. Opsonisation: marking bacteria
90
Describe the basic structure of antibodies
2 light chains and 2 heavy chains both w/ variable and constant region
Held together by S=S bond
Hinge region allows flexibility of antibody
91
What determines the isotype of antibody?
Position of S=S
92
Compare the constant and variable regions
Constant region is effector functions region where antibody can bind to receptor proteins
Variable region is the antigen binding portion and has 2 antigen binding sites. It is the upper part, V shape of Y.
93
How are polymers of antibodies held together?
J chains
| Joining chains
94
Describe IgM, G, A
M: pentameric; 1st AB produced in immune response; best at activating complement
G: monomeric: AB associated w/ immune response in serum; best at opsonisation
A:
monomeric: in serum
dimeric: prevalent in secretions; signature Ig of all secretions
95
What are paraproteins?
Abnormal Igs synthesised by atypical cells in the reticuloendothelial system
If only light chains lead to Bence-Jones paraproteinaemia where proteins found in urine and blood
Most present themselves as m-component (monoclonal gammopathy) in electrophoresis
96
In what diseases is Bence-Jones paraprtoeinaemia found?
Myeloma
| Malignant B cells only produce Ig light chains
97
What lymphoproliferative diseases are associated w/ paraproteins?
Myeloma, lymphoma, chronic lymphatic leukaemia
98
What Ig is the foetal Ig?
IgG
| Only Ig that can cross placenta
99
What Ig is the maternal Ig?
IgA
| Predominates in all secretions including breastmilk
100
What is hypogammaglobulinaemia?
Disorder caused by a red. in B cells thus there are less Ig resulting in immunodeficiency
101
What is X-linked Agammaglobulinaemia?
Total loss of Ig production
102
What can hypogammaglobulinaemia result in?
Recurrent infections
103
What is hypergammaglobulinaemia?
Overproduction of Ig resulting in inc. Ig levels in serum
| Observed in chronic infections
104
What is Hyper IgM syndrome?
Inability to activate B cells fully prevents formation of germinal centres and switching of IgM to other isotypes
105
Why is AB class switching important?
As different isotypes have different functions
106
Describe the primary and secondary response
Primary: 1st contact w/ antigen, small Ig response, wanes after 3 weeks
Secondary: repeated contact, massive inc. in response, IgG production massively inc., IgM doesn't inc.
