Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

Give circumstantial evidence supporting immune system control of tumours which express antigens absent from the corresponding normal tissue.

A

Autopsies of accident victims have microscopic cancer cell colonies with no symptoms.
People have donated organs where the recipients quickly developed tumours.
Deliberate immunosuppression, e.g. with transplantation, increases the risk of malignancy.
Men have twice the chance of dying from malignant cancer (women mount stronger responses).

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2
Q

Describe the cancer-immunity cycle.

A

Release of cancer cell antigens (due to cancer cell death) leads to cancer antigen presentation by APCs which primes and activates other immune cells, including T lymphocytes. T lymphocytes then travel to the tumour and infiltrate (tumour infiltrating lymphocytes, TILs)) where they recognise the cells and kill them.
As such, there is an immune selection pressure placed upon these tumour cells.

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3
Q

What are the requirements for an anti-tumour immune response.

A

Local inflammation - DAMP signals - leading to an innate response.
Expression and recognition of tumour antigens, leading to an adaptive anti-tumour response.

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4
Q

Why may an anti-tumour immune response not be mounted?

A

It can take a while for tumour growth to cause inflammation and cause an innate response.
Antigenic differences are very subtle (often arising from a small number of point mutations).

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5
Q

What is the principle immunotherapy is based on?

A

In the absence of requirement for ‘spontaneous’ activation of the adaptive anti-tumour immune response, we can ‘teach’ the adaptive immune system to selectively detect and destroy tumour cells.

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6
Q

Explain the basis of the HPV vaccine.

A

HPV causes cervical cancer: the resultant tumour cells contain viral antigens, E6 and E7 oncoproteins which induce and maintain the cancer. The vaccine alerts the immune system to these intracellular antigens. Often used preventatively but can be used to therapeutically boost immune response.

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7
Q

What are tumour associated antigens?

A

Normal cellular proteins which are aberrantly expressed (timing, location, quantity).
Since they are self-proteins, tolerance may need to be overcome.

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8
Q

What are the problems with targeting tumour associated antigens (TAAs) in immunotherapy?

A

Auto-immune response against normal tissue (since they are normal cellular proteins).
Must overcome immunological tolerance.

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9
Q

Describe monoclonal antibody-based immunological therapy.

A

Antibodies against tumour antigens.
‘Naked’ antibody e.g. herceptin agaisnt HER2
‘Conjugated’ with a radioactive particle or drug e.g. HER2 with cytotoxic drug.
‘Bi-specific’ - genetically engineered to combine 2 specificities e.g. anti CD3 and anti CD19 in B cell tumours.

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10
Q

What are the 4 types of immunotherapy?

A

Antibody-based therapy
Therapeutic vaccination
Immune checkpoint blockade
Adoptive transfer of immune cells.

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11
Q

Describe Provenge as a therapeutic prostate cancer vaccination.

A

T-cell response elicited against prostatic acid phosphatase (PAP).

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12
Q

Describe the principle of therapeutic vaccination in immunotherapy and its future personalised vaccination potential.

A

Principle: Eliciting a T-cell response against tumour-specific or tumour-associated antigens.
Whole exome sequencing (WES) may lead to personalised vaccinations through identification of somatic mutations between tumour cells and normal cells.

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13
Q

Describe immune checkpoint blockade.

A

Seeks to remove negative regulatory controls of T-cell responses - a GENERAL approach.
Targets CTLA-4 (cytotoxic T-lymphocyte associated antigen 4) and PD-1 pathways.
Uses antibodies to block these regulatory pathways.

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14
Q

Describe adoptive transfer of cells (ATC)

A

Isolate tumour infiltrating lymphocytes (T-cell source), expand in vitro and re-infuse into the patient.

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15
Q

Contrast life-saving vs life-enhancing transplantation.

A

Life-saving: when other life-supportive methods have reached their end of use, e.g. a left ventricular assist device (LVAD) in heart failure, total parenteral nutrition (TPN) in short bowel syndrome.

Life-enhancing: other life-supportive methods are less good; the organ is not vital but improves quality of life, e.g. with dialysis and insulin injections.

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16
Q

Give the 5 types of transplant source.

A

Autograft: within the same individual
Isograft: genetically identical individuals of the same species
Allograft: between different individuals of the same species
Xenograft: between individuals of different species
Prosthetic graft: synthetic material

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17
Q

Describe living donation.

A
Allografts (usually) - can donate bone marrow, kidney, liver.
Genetically related (spouse) or unrelated (altruistic).
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18
Q

What is DBD (donor after brain stem death)?

A

The majority of deceased donation.
Brain injury has caused death before terminal apnoea has resulted in cardiac arrest and circulatory standstill, e.g. intracranial haemorrhage, RTC.
Circulation established through resus.
Death confirmed by neurological criteria.
Organs perfused until removed, harvest and cooled to reduce ischaemic damage.

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19
Q

Describe DCD (donor after circulatory death).

A

Donation after death confirmed by cardio-respiratory criteria.

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20
Q

What sort of things do you want to exclude from a donated organ?

A
Disease of the organ
Infection of the organ
Malignancy
Drug abuse
Poisoning
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21
Q

How long do cooled and perfused organs last?

A
Cornea 96h (longer if cryopreserved)
Kidney about 60h max
Other organs much shorter.
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22
Q

Describe transplant selection and allocation.

A

Selection: waiting list at a transplant centre after multidisciplinary assessment.
Allocation: evidence-based computer algorithm based on equity (accounts for time on waiting list and urgency of transplant).

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23
Q

How can we increase the number of organs available for transplant?

A

More acceptance of marginal donations (DCD, elderly, comorbidities).
Transplant across compatibility barriers, exchange programmes for better matching.
More xenotransplantation in the future? Stem-cell research.

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24
Q

Why are ABO antigens important in transplanted organs and how may ABO incompatible transplantation be permitted?

A

ABO antigens not just present on the RBCs but also the endothelial lining of the blood vessels in the transplanted organs.
In an incompatible transplantation, you can remove the antibodies in the recipient (plasma exchange) with good outcomes.

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25
Q

Describe HLA matching.

A

HLA is a group of highly variable cell surface proteins important in the defence against infections and neoplasia.
Class I (A,B,C) and II (DR, DQ, DP). They present peptides to T-lymphocytes.
A, B, DR most highly polymorphic, hence most commonly discussed in matching.
Each individual has 2 types of each HLA (maternal and paternal).
Expresses as mismatch (MM) 1:2:0 (A,B,DR) so 3/6.

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26
Q

What is rejection, how is it diagnosed and managed?

A

Rejection is the most common cause of graft failure, resulting from foreign HLA molecules on the transplanted organ being recognised as foreign epitopes and eliciting an immune response. This can result in graft damage and failure.
Diagnosed by histological examination of biopsy.
Managed by immunosuppression.

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27
Q

Describe T-cell mediated rejection.

A

Graft infiltration by autoreactive CD4+ cells.

Cytotoxic (CD8+) T-cells release toxins to kills targets, induce apoptosis and create holes in target cells.

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28
Q

Describe antibody-mediated rejection.

A

Antibodies against HLA and AB antigens raised.
If these arise preimplantation - they are sensitised antibodies.
If they arise post-implantation, they are de novo.

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29
Q

How do you monitor post transplant function?

A

Gold standard: biopsy.
Monitor, for example, creatinine, fluids and B.P. for a kidney graft, LFTs and coagulation for a liver graft, angioedema and breathlessness for a lung graft.

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30
Q

How is rejection prevented?

A

Maximising HLA compatibility

Life-long immunosuppression.

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31
Q

Describe the standard immunosuppressive regimen of transplantation.

A

Pre-transplant: induction agent (T-cell depletion or cytokine blockade).
From time of transplantation: maintenance therapy. Signal transduction blockade, antiproliferative agents, corticosteroids.
If needed (treatment of acute rejection):
For T-cell mediated: steroids, anti-T-cell agents.
For antibody-mediated: intravenous Ig (IVIG), plasma exchange (removed Abs), anti-CD20 antibodies, anti-complement antibodies.

32
Q

Give possible transplant complications

A

Poor organ quality, recurrence of original disease, rejection, post-transplant infections (can be opportunistic due to immunosuppression), post-transplant malignancy (e.g. skin cancer, EBV-driven lymphoproliferative disorder).

33
Q

Describe hyperacute rejection.

A

Pre-existing antibody to donor AB or HLA antigens due to historical sensitisation (have ‘seen’ the antigens before from previous transplant, transfusion or pregnancy).
The antibodies bind to graft endothelium in minutes and destroy the graft in hours.
Recipients are screened for such antibodies to avoid this.
Antibodies can be removed by plasma exchange, though they may return in the longer term.

34
Q

Describe acute rejection.

A

Presents weeks to years post-transplant, usually as acute graft dysfunction.
T or B cell mediated (often due to non-compliance with immunosuppressive regimen).

35
Q

Define atopy and allergic disease.

A

Atopy: the tendency to produce abnormally high IgE responses to otherwise harmless foreign environmental substances.
Allergic disease: expression of a disease caused by atopy.

36
Q

Define hypersensitivity

A

Reactions where immune responses are mounted against harmless (innocuous) foreign antigens, autoantigens and alloantigens.

37
Q

Describe type I hypersensitivity.

A

Immediate: anaphylaxis, asthma, rhinitis, food allergy.
First antigen exposure leads to sensitisation: IgE production.
Second exposure leads to more IgE, which cross-links on mast cells/ basophils to cause degranulation. This release of histamines and other mediators causes vasodilation, oedema, mucus secretion, nervous stimulation leading to itching etc.

38
Q

Describe type II hypersensitivity.

A

Antibody dependent.
Presentation depends on tissue target e.g. myasthenia gravis (anti-nAChR Ab), glomerulonephritis (anti-glomerular BM Ab), pernicious anemia (anti-IF Ab).

39
Q

Describe type III hypersensitivity.

A

Immune complex (Antigen-antibody) dependent.
Complex deposition in blood vessels/tissues leads to complement and cell activation. Other cascades, e.g. clotting, may be activated.
Leads to tissue damage e.g. systemic lupus erythematosus.

40
Q

Describe type IV hypersensitivity.

A

Delayed, cell-mediated.
Chronic graft rejections, GvH disease, many autoimmune diseases. Also asthma, eczema and rhinitis again (chronic IgE).
Much of the tissue damage dependent upon TNF and cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTLs).

41
Q

What is a common feature of hypersensitivity reactions?

A

Inflammation: vasodilation, increased vascular permeability, inflammatory cells and mediatory entry, cytokines and tissue damage.
Signs: redness, heat, swelling, pain.

42
Q

Describe the epidemiology of atopy.

A

Present in around 50% of young adults in the UK (and rising).
Around 80% have FHx.
Polygenic.
Environmental risk factors: age (increases in infancy, peaks in teens, reduces in adulthood).
Sex (more common in boys, more common in adult females).
Early exposure to animals and infections confers protection.
More common in small families.
Less common in infants who were breast-fed.

43
Q

Summarise asthma.

A

Acute inflammation of the airways leading to mast cell activation and degranulation. Acute airway narrowing due to mucous secretion and smooth muscle contraction.
2 PHASE RESPONSE TO A SINGLE ALLERGEN CHALLENGE: Early response due to mediators such as prostaglandins and leukotrienes (type I). Late (4-6hr later) cell-mediated (type IV).
Leads to breathlessness and chest tightness.
Take reliever inhaler.

44
Q

Describe allergic rhinitis.

A

Seasonal: hay fever (grass, tree pollens)
Perennial: house dust mites, pets.
Leads to sneezing, rhinorrhoea, itchy nose and eyes, nasal blockage, sinusitis, loss of smell/taste,

45
Q

Describe allergic eczema.

A

Chronic itchy skin rash often at flexures of the arms and legs. Due to defect in barrier function of the skin.
Linked to house dust mite sensitization.
Complicated by bacterial and (rarely) viral infections.

46
Q

Describe food allergy.

A

Infancy - aged 3 - often milk or eggs
Children/adults - peanuts, nuts, shellfish, fruits, cereals, soya.
Mild: itchy lips, mouth, angioedema, urticaria.
Severe: nausea, abdominal pain, diarrhoea, collapse, anaphylaxis.

47
Q

Describe anaphylaxis.

A

Severe generalised allergic reaction. Potentially fatal.
Generalised degranulation of IgE sensitised mast cells.
Causes profound vasodilation, bronchospasm, laryngeal oedema, erythema, urticaria, angioedema, vomiting and diarrhoea.

48
Q

How are anaphylactic shocks treated?

A

EpiPen and anaphylaxis kit -> antihistamine, steroid, adrenaline.
Prevention: avoid known allergens (bee stings, penicillin, peanuts, shellfish). Inform family, wear a medical alert bracelet, always carry anaphylaxis kit.

49
Q

How is allergic rhinitis treated?

A
Anti-histamines (for sneezing, itching, rhinorrhoea)
Nasal steroids (for nasal blockage)
50
Q

Describe the asthma treatment pathway.

A

Step 1: use short-acting B2 agonist e.g. salbutamol.
Step 2: inhale steroid (low to moderate dose).
Step 3: add further therapy (long acting bronchodilators, leukotriene antagonists, high dose steroids)
Step 4: add course of oral steroids.

51
Q

Define autoimmunity.

A

Breakdown of self-tolerance leading to an adaptive immune response with specificity for self-antigens.
Because self tissue is always present, autoimmune diseases are often chronic conditions (often relapsing). Effector mechanisms resemble those of hypersensitivity reactions types II, III and IV.

52
Q

Give risk factors for autoimmunity.

A

Genetic predisposition (twin and family studies).
Women more susceptible.
Infections (inflammatory environment).
Diet (obesity, high fat, effects on gut microbiome).
Stress (physical and psychological)
Microbiome (perturbation/dysbiosis may help trigger autoimmune disease).

53
Q

Describe how immune reactions play a direct role in the pathology of autoimmune disease.

A

Antibody response to cellular or extracellular matrix antigen (insoluble antigen) - type II
Immune complex formed by antibody against soluble antigen - type III
T-cell mediated disease - type IV.
NO type I (IgE) autoimmune diseases.

54
Q

Give type II mediated autoimmune diseases.

A

Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia, Grave’s disease, myasthenia gravis.

55
Q

Describe SLE as a type III autoimmune disease.

A

IgG antibodies against DNA, histones, ribosomes. Antigens released, immune complexes deposit, leads to glomerulonephritis, vasculitis and arthritis.

56
Q

How do type II and III autoimmune diseases differ?

A

Both have the same effector mechanisms (complement and cell recruitment).
Antibody deposition differs (local vs systemic).

57
Q

Describe type IV autoimmune diseases.

A

T-cell mediated.
Insulin-dependent (type I) diabetes mellitus, rheumatoid arthritis, MS.
Often, antibody responses also present.
Human MHC (HLA) class II is the dominant genetic factor affecting susceptibility to autoimmune disease (involved in CD4+ T-lymphocyte recruitment).

58
Q

Define tolerance in the context of the “3 As” and how its failure may lead to autoimmune disease.

A

Tolerance: the acquired INability to respond to an antigenic stimulus.
3As: acquired, antigen-specific, active process.
Central tolerance (during development).
Peripheral tolerance (active suppression (reg T-cells) and anergy (since most people have lymphocytes capable of recognising self) and immunological ignorance).
Failure in one or more of these may lead to autoimmune disease.

59
Q

Describe central tolerance.

A

T-cell development in thymus:
Useless (can’t see MHC) die by apoptosis/neglect
Useful (weakly bind MHC) receive signal to survive - POSITIVE SELECTION
Dangerous (strongly bind MHC) - die by apoptosis - NEGATIVE SELECTION.

B-cells also have tolerance during development in bone marrow.

60
Q

What is AIRE?

A

AIRE is a transcription factor that causes expression of ‘tissue-specific’ genes in the thymus and involved in negative selection of T-cells.
Mutations in AIRE may lead to failure to delete dangerous T-cells in the thymus, leading to APECED.

61
Q

Describe peripheral tolerance.

A

Some antigens are not expressed in the thymus or bone marrow: they may only be expressed after the immune system has matured.
3 mechanisms: anergy, suppression by regulatory T-cells, ignorance.

62
Q

Describe the role of FOXP3 in peripheral tolerance.

A

FOXP3 is a gene which encodes a transcription factor critical for the development of regulatory T-cells.
Failure leads to accumulation of autoreactive T-cells leading to IPEX (see notes).
Of course, development of reg T-cells suppresses autoreactive T-cells which are present so they are not responsive - one of the 3 peripheral tolerance mechanisms.

63
Q

Define anergy.

A

A peripheral tolerance mechanism. Absence of the normal immune response to a particular antigen or allergen due to absence of costimulation. Without costimulation, cell proliferation and/or factor production of naive T-cells don’t proceed.

64
Q

Describe immunological ignorance.

A

A peripheral tolerance mechanism. Antigen concentration is too low in the periphery. Occurs when relevant antigen presenting molecule absent (most cells in the periphery are MHC II negative).
Occurs at immunologically privileged sites where immune cells don’t normally penetrate e.g. the eye, CNS. In this case, cells have never been tolerated against the auto-antigens

65
Q

Describe sympathetic opthalmia.

A

Damage to an eye causes antigen exposure and presentation at a lymph node leading to effector T-cell sensitisation and activation.

66
Q

How may infections affect tolerance?

A

Molecular mimicry of self molecules.
Induce changes in expression and recognition of self proteins.
Induction of costimulatory molecules or inappropriate MHC class II expression.
Cause a failure in regulation (by reg T-cells)
Cause immune deviation e.g. shift from Th1 to Th2
Cause tissue damage at immunologically privileged sites, compromising the immunological ignorance mechanism of peripheral tolerance.

67
Q

Give the types of eczema and describe atopic eczema.

A

Types include atopic, seborrhoeic, discoid and allergic contact.
Atopic eczema is a very common itchy skin condition. Onset often within first 6 months of life. Many children grow out of it. Caused by defective barrier function of the skin - leading to dryness. Filaggrin gene mutations in 10% of cases. Defective barrier function allows penetration of irritants, allergens (e.g. house dust mites) and pathogens e.g. staphylococcus aureus. Inflammation of the skin then occurs.
N.B. palmar hyperlinearity (more prominent lines) is a sign of filaggrin gene mutation.

68
Q

Describe seborrheic eczema.

A

Seborrheic eczema (causes dandruff): very common affecting babies and adults. Often not itchy. There is overgrowth of malassezia species of yeast on the skin associated with inflammation. Distinctive rash distribution including nasolabial folds, eyebrows, scalp, central chest and sometimes axillae and groins.

69
Q

Describe allergic contact eczema.

A

Patient becomes sensitised to particular allergens, such as cosmetics, eye drops and hair dye. Patients with atopy predisposed to this.

70
Q

Describe discoid eczema

A

Disc-like patches of eczema - often on the legs.
Related to dryness e.g. washing twice a day (overwashing).
Adults since they produce less lipid in the stratum corneum.

71
Q

Describe psoriasis.

A

Plaque-like lesions, well-defined and scaly. Salmon-pink. Underlying genetic susceptibility.
Triggers: stress, alcohol, smoking, certain drugs and infections.
Caused by proliferation of keratinocytes, which then shed when premature.
Histology: hyperkeratosis, parakeratosis (top layer of skin nucleated), acanthosis (thickening of epidermis), inflammation and dilated blood vessels.
Symmetrical often.
Affects scalp, extensor surfaces, umbilicus and genitalia.
Subungual (beneath nail) hyperkeratosis, onycholysis and pitting.

72
Q

Describe guttate psoriasis, palmoplantar pustulosis and generalised pustular psoriasis.

A

Guttate psoriasis affects teens and young adults. It involves very small pustules instead of large plaques. (Pustules are neutrophil aggregations in the dermis). Often exacerbated by streptococcal infections.
Palmoplantar pustulosis - pustules on palms and soles.
Generalised pustular psoriasis - extensive involvement of skin with pustules.

73
Q

Describe acne

A

A very common condition mainly affecting teens and young adults.
Disease of pilosebaceous unit. Hyperkeratinization of the epidermis in the infundibulum of hair follicles. Accumulation of dead keratinocytes. Increased sebum production stimulated by androgens.
Rupture of the inflamed pilosebaceous unit with further inflammation of surrounding skin.
Open and closed comedones (open comedone = blackhead, closed (covered by skin) = whitehead).

74
Q

Describe bullous pemphigoid.

A

A condition affecting the basement membrane zone leading to deep blisters, common in the elderly.
IgG autoantibody targets BP180 and BP230 antigens leading to cleavage of skin at the dermo-epithelial junction.

75
Q

Describe pemphigus vulgaris.

A

A disease leading to SUPERFICIAL blisters, affecting middle-aged people.
Autoantibody against desmogleins 1 and 3: desmogleins are intercellular connection proteins holding keratinocytes together.
Leads to splits within the epidermis (not BM to epidermis).
Easily-broken, fragile, superficial blisters.