Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Phase 2a Medicine > Immunology > Flashcards

Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

What is innate immunity?

A

Instinctive, non-specific, doesn’t depend on lymphocytes, present from birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is adaptive immunity?

A

Specific acquired/learned immunity, requires lymphocytes, antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What forms haematocrit?

A

Erythrocytes and platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is serum?

A

Plasma without fibrinogen and other clotting factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the groups of leukocytes?

A
  1. Lymphocytes
  2. Phagocytes
  3. Auxiliary cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What cells are phagocytes?

A
  1. Mononuclear phagocyte
  2. Neutrophil
  3. Eosinophil
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What cells are auxiliary cells?

A
  1. Basophil
  2. Mast cell
  3. Platelets
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What do leukocytes derive from?

A

Multipotent haematopoietic stemm cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the dendritic cells in the liver and skin?

A

Liver - Kupffer

Skin - Langerhans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the modes of action of complement C?

A
  1. Direct lysis
  2. Attract more leukocytes to site of infection
  3. Coat invading organisms
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the 5 classes of immunoglobulins?

A

IgA, IgG, IgM, IgD, IgE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What does the Fc region bind?

A

Receptors on leukocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What does the Fab region bind?

A

Bind to different specific antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the most prominent Ig?

A

IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How many binding sites does IgG have?

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How many binding sites does IgM have?

A

10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Where is IgM found?

A

Blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is IgA the prominent Ig in?

A

Mucous secretions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What cells express an IgE specific receptor?

A

Basophils and mast cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is released when basophils and mast cells bind an antigen?

A

Histamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are cytokines?

A

Proteins secreted by immune and non-immune cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the function of interferons?

A

To induce a state of antiviral resistance in uninfected cells and limit spread of viral infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What releases IFNa+B?

A

Virus infected cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What releases IFNy?

A

Activated Th1 cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What have a switch to turn off the immune response?

A

Interleukins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the function of interleukins?

A

To cause cells to divide, differentiate and to secrete factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the function of colony stimulating factors?

A

To direct division and differentiation on bone marrow stem cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the function of tumour necrosis factors?

A

Mediate inflammation and cytotoxic reactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are chemokine?

A

Group of proteins that direct movement of leukocytes from bloodstream into tissues or lymph organs by binding to specific receptors on cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is innate immunity composed of?

A
  1. Physical and chemical barriers
  2. Phagocytic cells
  3. Blood proteins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the steps of the inflammatory response?

A
  1. Coagulation
  2. Acute inflammation
  3. Kill pathogens, neutralise toxins, limit pathogen spread
  4. Phagocytosis
  5. Proliferation of cells to repair damage
  6. Remove blood clot
  7. Re-establish normal function of tissue
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is inflammation?

A

A series of reactions the brings cells and molecules of immune system to sites of infection or damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the hallmarks of inflammation?

A
  1. Increased blood supply
  2. Increased vascular permeability
  3. Increased leukocyte trans endothelial migration extravasation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is acute inflammation?

A

Complete elimination of a pathogen followed by resolution of damage, disappearance of leukocytes and full regeneration of tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is chronic inflammation?

A

Persistent, unresolved inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What do pattern recognition receptors bind?

A

Pathogen associated molecular patterns (PAMPs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the functions of complement?

A
  1. Lysis
  2. Chemotaxis
  3. Opsonisation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the activation pathways for C’?

A
  1. Classical
  2. Alternative
  3. Lectin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the function of TNFa released by macrophages in extravasation?

A

Activates endothelium to make it sticky and secretes chemokines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What happens following chemokine secretion in extravasation?

A

Chemokine sticky to endothelium surface and cause neutrophil to stop on surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What happens once the neutrophil is bound to the surface in extravasation?

A

It squeezes through endothelial cell gaps and moves to the site of infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the steps of phagocytosis?

A
  1. Binding
  2. Engulfment
  3. Phagosome formation
  4. Phagolysosome
  5. Membrane disruption/fusion
  6. Phagocytes internalise and kill invading organisms
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are the 2 killing pathways in neutrophils and macrophages?

A
  1. O2 dependent

2. O2 independent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Describe adaptive immunity

A
  1. Antigen specificity and diversity
  2. Immunological memory
  3. Specific self/non-self recognition
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Why does cell-mediated immunity require cell to cell contact?

A
  1. To control Ab responses via contact with B cells

2. To directly recognise and kill viral infected cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Where are T cells killed in T cell selection?

A

Foetal thymus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

How do T cells recognise antigens?

A
  1. MHC molecule presents peptide
  2. Antigen peptide bound to MHC molecule
  3. TCR recognises MHC and peptide
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What codes for MHC in humans?

A

Human leukocyte antigen genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Where are Class I MHC found?

A

All cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Where are Class II MHC found?

A

Antigen presenting cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the function of CTL?

A

Forms proteolytic granules, releases perforins and granulysin, induces apoptosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What Ig are expressed on B cells?

A

IgM and IgD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

How do B cells present antigens to T cells?

A

Via MHC II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What happens when Th2 bind to B cells?

A

They secrete cytokines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What happens when cytokines are released?

A

They cause B cells to divide - clonal expansion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What do B cells differentiate into after clonal expansion?

A

Plasma cells and memory B cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What Ig do plasma cells tend to secrete?

A

IgM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is it called when IgM change to IgG?

A

Class switching

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

How do antibodies work?

A
  1. Neutralise toxins by binding to it
  2. Increase opsonisation
  3. Activate complement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What rate of vaccination uptake is needed for herd immunity to work?

A

95%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is the pathway in antibody production?

A

Antigen -> B lymphocytes -> plasma cells -> soluble Ab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What class of glycoprotein do antibodies belong to?

A

Immunoglobulins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What part of the antibody is responsible for antigen recognition?

A

Fab region - variable in sequence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What part of the antibody is responsible for antigen elimination?

A

Fc region - constant in sequence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What are the 2 chains that make up constant regions and their size?

A

Light chain - 25kD

Heavy chain - 50kD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What encodes variable and constant regions?

A

Exons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What are the 5 classes of immunoglobulin?

A

IgG, IgM, IgA, IgD, IgE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is the main Ab class in serum and tissues?

A

IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What response types are IgG important for?

A

Secondary/memory responses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What response type are IgM important for?

A

Primary responses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What Ab type protects mucosal surfaces?

A

IgA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Which Ab type are involved in allergic reactions?

A

IgE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What are the 2 types of light chain?

A

Kappa and lambda

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

How can Ab protect against infection?

A
  1. Specific binding/ multivalency (Fab)

2. Enhance innate mechanisms (Fc)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

How do Fab regions protect against infection?

A
  1. Neutralise
  2. Immobilise motile microbes
  3. Prevent binding to, and infection of host cells
  4. Form complexes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

How do Fc regions protect against infection?

A
  1. Activate complement

2. Bind Fc receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What are the Fc receptors and what do they do?

A
  1. Phagocytes - enhance phagocytosis
  2. Mast cells - release inflammatory mediators
  3. NK cells - enhanced killing of infected cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What controls behaviour of leukocytes?

A

Cytokines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is the role of T cells?

A

To specifically kill infected host cells

80
Q

What are the T cells in immunity?

A
  1. T helper cells
  2. T cytotoxic cells
  3. T regulatory cells
81
Q

What are the functions of T helper cells?

A
  1. Help B cells make antibodies
  2. Activate macrophages and natural killer cells
  3. Help development of cytotoxic T cells
82
Q

What is the function of T cytotoxic cells?

A

Recognise and kill infected host cells

83
Q

What is the function of TREGS?

A

Suppress immune responses

84
Q

How are different T cell receptor (TCR) specificities achieved?

A

Multiple V region axons in genome recombine during T cell differentiation

85
Q

What do B cells recognise?

A

Soluble, free, native antigens

86
Q

What do T cells recognise?

A

Cell-associated, processed antigens

87
Q

What has a major role in initiating T cell responses?

A

Major histocompatibility complexes (MHC)

88
Q

Why are MHC described as polymorphic?

A

They have many different alleles at each gene locus

89
Q

Which MHC is expressed by all nucleated cells?

A

MHC I

90
Q

What do MHC I display antigens to?

A

Cytotoxic T cells

91
Q

What expresses MHC II?

A

Macrophages, dendritic cells, B cells

92
Q

What do MHC II display antigens to?

A

Helper T cells

93
Q

How do activated T cytotoxic cells kill infected cells?

A

Induce apoptosis

94
Q

What are cytokines?

A

Small secreted proteins involved in communication between cells of immune response

95
Q

How do cytokines act?

A

Bind to specific receptors on surface of target cells

96
Q

Give 4 types of cytokine

A
  1. Interleukins
  2. Interferons
  3. Chemokines
  4. Colony stimulating factors
97
Q

What cytokines do TH1 cells make?

A

IL2, gamma-interferon, TNFb

98
Q

What cytokines do TH2 cells make?

A

IL4, 5, 6, 10, 13

99
Q

What cytokines do TREGS make?

A

IL10, TNFb

100
Q

What do TH1 cells promote?

A

Production of cytotoxic T cells

101
Q

What are TH1 cells important for?

A

Intracellular infections

102
Q

What do TH1 cells induce B cells to make?

A

IgG

103
Q

What do TH2 cells activate?

A

Eosinophils and mast cells

104
Q

What are TH2 cells important for?

A

Helminth infections and allergy

105
Q

What do TH2 cells induce B cells to make?

A

IgE

106
Q

What is the counter regulation hypothesis?

A

Infection protects against allergy by promoting IL10 and TGFb production

107
Q

What is the hygiene hypothesis?

A

Insufficient exposure to certain types of infection skews TH1/TH2 balance towards TH2

108
Q

Describe innate immunity

A

Present since birth, no requirement for memory

109
Q

How are bacterial and fungal infections handled?

A

Phagocytosis and killing

110
Q

How are viral infections handled?

A

Cellular shut down, self-sacrifice, cellular resistance

111
Q

What is a problem with adaptive immunological memory?

A

Cross-reactivity or self-targeting specificity

112
Q

What is the function of pattern recognition receptors (PPR)?

A

Self-non-self discrimination by recognition of unchanging patterns of microbes

113
Q

What are 2 PRRs?

A

Toll-like receptors, Drosophila toll

114
Q

Which antimicrobial peptides are secreted from lining fluids?

A

Defensins and cathelicidin

115
Q

How do defensins/ cathelicidin work?

A

Interrupt function and transport through ion channels

116
Q

What are lectins and collectins?

A

Carbohydrate-containing proteins that bind carbs or lipids in microbe walls

117
Q

How do lectins and collectins work?

A

Activate complement and improve phagocytosis

118
Q

How do pentraxins work?

A

React with C protein of pneumococci, activate complement and promote phagocytosis

119
Q

What are cell associated PRRs?

A

Receptors that are present on cell membrane or in cytosol of cells

120
Q

What is the main family of cell associated PRR?

A

TLRs

121
Q

Where are nod-like receptors (NLR) found?

A

Within cytoplasm

122
Q

What is the function of NOD2?

A

Recognises muramyl dipeptide and activates inflammatory signalling pathways

123
Q

What happens in non-functioning mutations of NOD2?

A

Crohn’s disease

124
Q

What happens in hyper-functioning mutations of NOD2?

A

Blau syndrome

125
Q

What us the function of Rig-like receptors (RLR)?

A
  1. Detect IC double-stranded viral RNA and DNA

2. Couple effectively to activation of interferon production, enabling an antiviral response

126
Q

What activates immunity to initiate tissue repair?

A

TLR signalling by cellular damage products

127
Q

What increases the likelihood of successful T cell activation?

A

Activation of TLRs and other PPRs which drives cytokine production by antigen-presenting cells

128
Q

How are PRRs involved in disease?

A
  1. Recognition of host molecules

2. Failure to recognises pathogens or increased inflammatory responses

129
Q

Give 3 examples of diseases PRRs are involved in

A

Autoimmune disease, atherosclerosis, arthritis, COPD, IBD

130
Q

How can PRRs be used in therapies?

A
  1. Enhance TLR signalling
  2. Inhibit TLR signalling
  3. Modify adaptive immune response
131
Q

What are the clinical indications in allergic reactions in skin?

A

Eczema, itching, redness

132
Q

What are the clinical indications in airway allergies?

A

Excessive mucus production, bronchoconstriction

133
Q

What are the clinical indications in GI allergies?

A

Abdominal bloating, vomiting, diarrhoea

134
Q

What are the clinical indications of anaphylaxis?

A

Airway, breathing, circulation problems

135
Q

What is an allergy?

A

Abnormal response to harmless foreign material (allergens)

136
Q

What is atopy?

A

Inherited tendency to exaggerated IgE response to antigen

137
Q

What are the classes of hypersensitivity?

A

Immediate, acute, delayed

138
Q

What cells are involved in the immune system?

A

Neutrophils and monocytes, lymphocytes

139
Q

What are the humoral components of the immune system?

A

Immunoglobulins, complement, surfactant proteins

140
Q

What is a Type 1 allergic reaction?

A

Immunological memory to something causing an allergic response

141
Q

Give 3 examples of type 1 allergic reactions

A

Acute anaphylaxis, asthma, hayfever

142
Q

How is atopy diagnosed?

A

Skin prick tests, RAST/ImmunoCAP

143
Q

What is the treatment for hayfever?

A
  1. Prevent exposure
  2. Antihistamines
  3. Reduction in local inflammation (steroids)
  4. Desensitisation
144
Q

What is the treatment of anaphylaxis?

A
  1. Avoid/cease exposure
  2. Antihistamines
  3. Acute resuscitation (Adr, fluids, bronchodilators)
  4. Decrease ongoing inflammation (steroids)
145
Q

What causes type 2 reactions?

A

Immunoglobulins bound to surface antigens

146
Q

What causes Goodpasture’s?

A

Autoantibodies to a3(IV) chain of type 4 collagen

147
Q

What are the symptoms of Goodpasture’s?

A

Pulmonary haemorrhage and glomerulonephritis

148
Q

What is the treatment for Goodpasture’s?

A

Remove antibodies with steroids

149
Q

Give 2 examples of type 3 reactions (immune complex disease)

A
  1. Chronic bacterial endocarditis

2. Extrinsic allergic alveolitis

150
Q

What happens when farmers inhale mouldy hay?

A

They have an acute reaction with antibody-mediated activation of the immune system

151
Q

What are the symptoms of Type 3 reactions?

A

Fever, cough, flu-like illness

152
Q

What is the management for type 3 reactions?

A
  1. Make diagnosis
  2. Avoid cause
  3. Treat progressive disease with steroids
153
Q

What happens in type 4 reactions?

A

Granuloma of T cells and macrophages forms

154
Q

What disease is commonly associated with type 4 reactions?

A

Tuberculosis

155
Q

What are the symptoms of drug reactions?

A

Breathlessness, cough, fever, chest pain

156
Q

What tests can be done to test for drug reactions?

A

Lung function, CXR, CT

157
Q

What is involved in host defence against parasites?

A

Basophils and eosinophils

158
Q

What do basophils and eosinophils express?

A

High affinity IgE receptor

159
Q

What are the main effector cells in IgE mediated immunity?

A

Mast cells

160
Q

What is the main mast cell mediator?

A

Histamine

161
Q

What do mast cell chemotactic factors typically lead to?

A

Eosinophil attraction and activation

162
Q

What do mast cell derived cytokines promote?

A

TH2 response and can lead to B cell class switching - IgE production

163
Q

What does local mast cell activation by cross-linkage of IgE lead to?

A

Recruitment of eosinophils, macrophages and neutrophils

164
Q

What other cells types are involved in allergy?

A

Lymphocytes, dendritic cells, neurons, other non-immune cells

165
Q

What determines the nature of adaptive immune response?

A

T cell polarisation as a result of the threat detected

166
Q

What are the slow effects of anaphylaxis?

A

Pain, vomiting

167
Q

What is the long term treatment for asthma?

A

Immune suppression with inhaled corticosteroids

168
Q

What are the early and late responses of bronchoconstriction due to?

A

Early - IgE/mast cells

Late - T cell response

169
Q

What is passive immunisation?

A

Transfer of preformed antibodies to circulation

170
Q

What is natural passive immunisation?

A

Transfer of maternal antibodies across placenta to developing foetus/breast milk

171
Q

What is artificial passive immunity?

A

Treatment with pooled normal human IgG or immunoserum against pathogens or toxins

172
Q

When might artificial passive immunisation be given?

A
  1. Pt. with agammaglobulinaemias
  2. Exposure to disease that could cause complications
  3. If no time for active immunisation to give protection
173
Q

What are the disadvantages of passive immunisation?

A
  1. Doesn’t activate immunological memory
  2. No long-term prognosis
  3. Possibility of reaction to antisera
174
Q

What drugs types work by passive immunisation?

A

Anti-toxins and antivenins

175
Q

What is the key feature of active immunisation?

A

Production of high affinity antibodies against immunogen

176
Q

What is the goal of active immunisation?

A

To achieve initial exposure without risks of an infection

177
Q

What 5 types of vaccine are there?

A
  1. Whole organism
  2. Subunit
  3. Peptides
  4. DNA vaccines
  5. Recombinant vector vaccine
178
Q

What are the types of whole organism vaccine?

A
  1. Live attenuated pathogen

2. Killed, inactivated pathogen

179
Q

What are the types of subunit vaccine?

A
  1. Toxoids
  2. Antigenic extracts
  3. Recombinant proteins
180
Q

What are the stages of active immunisation?

A
  1. Engage innate immune system
  2. Elicit danger signals that activate immune system
  3. Engage TLR receptors
  4. Activate specialist antigen presenting cells
  5. Engage adaptive immune system
  6. Generate memory T and B cells
  7. Activate T cell help
181
Q

What are the goals of the perfect vaccine?

A
  1. Achieves long term protection from a small no. of vaccines
  2. Stimulates B cells and T cells
  3. Induces memory B cells and T cells
  4. Stimulates high affinity IgG production
  5. Memory B cell response depends on nature of pathogen
182
Q

What are the advantages of live attenuated vaccines?

A
  1. Activates all phases of immune system
  2. Stimulates antibodies against multiple epitopes
  3. Cheap and fast immunity
  4. Attenuated pathogens set up transient infection
  5. Prolonged contact with immune system
  6. Fewer boosters required
183
Q

What are the disadvantages of live attenuated vaccines?

A
  1. If mutation of virus fails it will revert to its virulent form
  2. Can’t give to immunosuppressed or in tropical areas
  3. Must be refrigerated for stable storage
184
Q

What are the advantages of whole killed vaccines?

A
  1. No risk of infection

2. Storage less critical

185
Q

What are the disadvantages of whole killed vaccines?

A
  1. Just activate humoral response
  2. Lack of T cell involvement
  3. Response can be quite weak
  4. Usually needs 2 boosters
186
Q

What are the advantages of recombinant protein vaccines?

A
  1. Safer than handling live/inactivated pathogens
  2. No risk of infection
  3. Easier to store and preserve
187
Q

What are the disadvantages of recombinant protein vaccines?

A
  1. Requires boosters and adjuvants

2. Response less powerful

188
Q

What are the advantages of DNA vaccines?

A
  1. No live organism involved
  2. Cheap and easily manufactured
  3. Stable and resists extremes
  4. Don’t require complex storage
  5. Delivery is simple and acceptable to widespread programmes
189
Q

What are the disadvantages of DNA vaccines?

A
  1. Can lead to poor immunogenicity
  2. Immunological tolerance
  3. Can become host genome
  4. No transient infection
  5. Can cause mild immune response
  6. Requires boosters
190
Q

What is the aim of DNA vaccines?

A

To transiently express genes from pathogens in host cells

191
Q

How do recombinant vector vaccines work?

A

Imitate transient infection with pathogen using a non-pathogenic organism

192
Q

What are the advantages of recombinant vector vaccines?

A
  1. Produce immunological memory

2. Safe

193
Q

What are the disadvantages of recombinant vector vaccines?

A
  1. Requires refrigeration

2. Immune response to virus can negate effectiveness

194
Q

What are the advantages of passive inactivated vaccines?

A
  1. Sufficient humeral immunity if boosts given
  2. Good for immunocompromised and in tropical areas
  3. No mutations of virus
  4. Gives immediate protection
195
Q

What are the disadvantages of passive inactivated vaccines?

A
  1. Potential failure of inactivation process
  2. Transfer of pathogens between animals
  3. Expensive
  4. Little local immunity
  5. Some do not increase immunity
  6. Short lived so boosters required
  7. Antibody mediated

Phase 2a Medicine (15 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions