Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

19 year old male presents to A&E with severe respiratory difficulty, light-headedness and a red itchy rash. On examination he has laryngeal oedema, bilateral wheezing across the lung fields and is hypotensive. He has recently been taking antibiotics for a chest infection.

A

Anaphylaxis

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2
Q

A 3 year old girl is brought into A&E by her parents. She has had vomiting and diarrhoea since early yesterday evening when she was at a birthday party. On examination she has urticaria.

A

Food allergy

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3
Q

A 40 year old man presents to his GP complaining of loss smell and nasal itching and discharge. On examination his nasal mucosa are swollen and have a bluish tinge. His symptoms improve with a corticosteroid spray

A

Allergic rhinitis

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4
Q

A 25 year old woman presents to her GP complaining of itchy, red wheals on her torso which have been present for 7 weeks. She can not remember how they started but has noticed they are worse in the heat and when she exercises.

A

Chronic urticaria

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5
Q

A 30 year old women presents to her GP with a red, itchy, oozing rash around her neck and fingers

A

Contact dermatitis

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6
Q

A 55 year old man with history of angina was advised to take a tablet before a long flight. After taking the pill, he suddenly finds that he has difficulty breathing, feels nauseous and is itching.

A

Mast cell degranulation

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7
Q

A 24 year old medical student develops worsening swelling of the hands and feet and abdominal pain before her final year medical exams. She says that similar milder episodes have occurred preciously.

A

C1 inhibitor deficiency

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8
Q

A 50 year old Irish woman presents to her GP with episodes of diarrhoea, which is difficult to flush, abdominal pain, weight loss and fatigue. She also describes a blistering itchy rash on her knees.

A

Coeliac disease

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9
Q

A 26 year old male who has been suffering from ‘flu-like’ symptoms with fever presents to the GP after developing skin rash in the last few days.

A

Acute urticaria

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10
Q

A 35 year old woman presents with persistent itchy wheels for the last 2 months. She noticed that when this is at its worst, she also has a fever and feels generally unwell. After an acute attack, she has bruising and post-inflammatory residual pigmentation at the site of the itching.

A

Urticarial vasculitis

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11
Q

A 19 year old male presents to A&E with increasing breathlessness. On examination his blood pressure is 90/55 mmHg and his respiratory rate is 28/min. He shows you a generalised red itchy skin rash, and examination of his chest reveals bilateral inspiratory and expiratory wheezes throughout.
Diagnosis and management?

A

Anaphylaxis

IM adrenaline 1mL of 1:1000

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12
Q

A 35 year old woman presents with a two day history of a red itchy skin rash which started soon after her first scuba-diving lesson. She is otherwise well.
Dx and mgmt?

A

Acute urticaria

PO antihistamines

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13
Q

A 22 year old woman presents with an intermittently itchy and desquamating skin rash on her abdomen which is unresponsive to antihistamines

A

Contact hypersensitivity

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14
Q

A 40 year old man complains of loss of smell with nasal itching and discharge over 4 weeks. He also describes morning sneezing. He is otherwise in good health. On examination his nasal mucosa are swollen and hyperaemic.
Dx and mgmt?

A

Allergic rhinitis

PO antihistamines

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15
Q

This 45 year old woman presents to A&E with tongue swelling and acute respiratory tract obstruction. She has longstanding hypertension and received a renal transplant two years previously. She has no history of allergic disease. On examination her blood pressure is stable, and examination of her lung fields reveal normal breath sounds. Her current medication includes cyclosporine, azathioprine, captopril and nifedipine.
Dx and mgmt?

A

Acute angioedema

IM adrenaline 0.5 mL of 1:1000

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16
Q

Cytokines exerting an anti-viral effect

A

Interferons

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17
Q

Immunoglobulin dimer

A

IgA

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18
Q

MHC associated with Th1 cells

A

MHC II

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19
Q

Acts on hepatocytes to induce synthesis of acute phase proteins in response to bacterial infection

A

IL-6

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20
Q

Arise in the first few days after infection and are important in defence against viruses and tumors

A

NKCs

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21
Q

MHC associated with Th2 cells

A

MHC II

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22
Q

MHC associated with cytotoxic T cells

A

MHC I

23
Q

Along with IgD, is one of the first immunoglobulins expressed on B cells before they undergo antibody class switching

A

IgM

24
Q

The most abundant (in terms of g/L) immunoglobulin in normal plasma

A

IgG

25
Q

Deficiencies in this predispose to SLE

A

Classical complement pathway

26
Q

Kostmanns syndrome is a congenital deficiency of which component of the immune system?

A

Neutrophils

27
Q

Which component of the innate immune system is usually one of the first to respond to infection through a cut?

A

Neutrophils

28
Q

Which infection is most common as a consequence of B cell deficiency?

A

Bacterial

29
Q

Meningococcal infections are quite common as a result of which deficiency of the component of the immune system?

A

Complement

30
Q

Produced by the liver, when triggered, enzymatically activate other proteins in a biological cascade and are important in innate and antibody mediated immune response?

A

Complement

31
Q

A complete deficiency in this molecule is associated with recurrent respiratory and gastrointestinal infections.

A

IgA

32
Q

Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency is characterised by a very high count in what cell?

A

Neutrophils

33
Q

Which crucial enzyme is vital for the oxidative killing of intracellular micro-organisms?

A

NADPH oxidase

34
Q

Which complement factor is an important chemotaxic agent?

A

C3a

35
Q

What is the functional complement test used to investigate the classical pathway?

A

CH50

36
Q
A. Type IV – Complement mediated
B. Type III – Immune complex mediated
C. Type III – T-cell mediated
D. Not an autoimmune disease
E. Type IV – T-cell mediated
F. Type II – Antigen mediated
G. Type II – Antibody mediated
H. Type III – complement mediated

Graves Disease

A

Type II – Antibody mediated

37
Q
A. Type IV – Complement mediated
B. Type III – Immune complex mediated
C. Type III – T-cell mediated
D. Not an autoimmune disease
E. Type IV – T-cell mediated
F. Type II – Antigen mediated
G. Type II – Antibody mediated
H. Type III – complement mediated

SLE

A

. Type III – Immune complex mediated

38
Q
A. Type IV – Complement mediated
B. Type III – Immune complex mediated
C. Type III – T-cell mediated
D. Not an autoimmune disease
E. Type IV – T-cell mediated
F. Type II – Antigen mediated
G. Type II – Antibody mediated
H. Type III – complement mediated

Rheumatoid arthritis

A

E. Type IV – T-cell mediated

39
Q
A. Type IV – Complement mediated
B. Type III – Immune complex mediated
C. Type III – T-cell mediated
D. Not an autoimmune disease
E. Type IV – T-cell mediated
F. Type II – Antigen mediated
G. Type II – Antibody mediated
H. Type III – complement mediated

Asthma

A

D. Not an autoimmune disease

40
Q
A. Type IV – Complement mediated
B. Type III – Immune complex mediated
C. Type III – T-cell mediated
D. Not an autoimmune disease
E. Type IV – T-cell mediated
F. Type II – Antigen mediated
G. Type II – Antibody mediated
H. Type III – complement mediated

Type 1 diabetes

A

E. Type IV – T-cell mediated

41
Q
A. Type IV – Complement mediated
B. Type III – Immune complex mediated
C. Type III – T-cell mediated
D. Not an autoimmune disease
E. Type IV – T-cell mediated
F. Type II – Antigen mediated
G. Type II – Antibody mediated
H. Type III – complement mediated

Immune thrombocytopaenic purpura

A

G. Type II – Antibody mediated

42
Q
A. Type IV – Complement mediated
B. Type III – Immune complex mediated
C. Type III – T-cell mediated
D. Not an autoimmune disease
E. Type IV – T-cell mediated
F. Type II – Antigen mediated
G. Type II – Antibody mediated
H. Type III – complement mediated

ABO hemolytic transfusion reaction

A

G. Type II – Antibody mediated

43
Q
A. Type IV – Complement mediated
B. Type III – Immune complex mediated
C. Type III – T-cell mediated
D. Not an autoimmune disease
E. Type IV – T-cell mediated
F. Type II – Antigen mediated
G. Type II – Antibody mediated
H. Type III – complement mediated

Hepatitis C associated membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis type I

A

B. Type III – Immune complex mediated

44
Q
A. Type IV – Complement mediated
B. Type III – Immune complex mediated
C. Type III – T-cell mediated
D. Not an autoimmune disease
E. Type IV – T-cell mediated
F. Type II – Antigen mediated
G. Type II – Antibody mediated
H. Type III – complement mediated

Goodpastures syndrome

A

G. Type II – Antibody mediated

45
Q
A. Type IV – Complement mediated
B. Type III – Immune complex mediated
C. Type III – T-cell mediated
D. Not an autoimmune disease
E. Type IV – T-cell mediated
F. Type II – Antigen mediated
G. Type II – Antibody mediated
H. Type III – complement mediated

Myasthenia gravis

A

G. Type II – Antibody mediated

46
Q

Most useful diagnostic antibody - SLE

A

Anti-DNA antibody

47
Q

Most useful diagnostic antibody - Wegener’s granulomatosis

A

c-ANCA

48
Q

Most useful diagnostic antibody - Rheumatoid arthritis

A

Anti-CCP

49
Q

Most useful diagnostic antibody - Auto-immune haemolytic anaemia

A

Coombs test

50
Q

Most useful diagnostic antibody - primary biliary cirrhosis

A

Anti-mitochondrial antibody

51
Q

Goodpastures syndrome - What is the specific auto-antigen that is the target of the immune system?

A

Type IV collagen

52
Q

Goodpastures syndrome - The pattern of the antibody deposition in the glomerular basement membrane is typically described as what?

A

Smooth linear

53
Q

Goodpastures syndrome - Name the drug most likely to be used in the treatment of this disease.

A

Prednisolone

54
Q

Goodpastures syndrome - Immune damage may be associated with the kidney and commonly which other tissue?

A

Lung