Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

19 year old male presents to A&E with severe respiratory difficulty, light-headedness and a red itchy rash. On examination he has laryngeal oedema, bilateral wheezing across the lung fields and is hypotensive. He has recently been taking antibiotics for a chest infection.

A

Anaphylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A 3 year old girl is brought into A&E by her parents. She has had vomiting and diarrhoea since early yesterday evening when she was at a birthday party. On examination she has urticaria.

A

Food allergy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A 40 year old man presents to his GP complaining of loss smell and nasal itching and discharge. On examination his nasal mucosa are swollen and have a bluish tinge. His symptoms improve with a corticosteroid spray

A

Allergic rhinitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A 25 year old woman presents to her GP complaining of itchy, red wheals on her torso which have been present for 7 weeks. She can not remember how they started but has noticed they are worse in the heat and when she exercises.

A

Chronic urticaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A 30 year old women presents to her GP with a red, itchy, oozing rash around her neck and fingers

A

Contact dermatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A 55 year old man with history of angina was advised to take a tablet before a long flight. After taking the pill, he suddenly finds that he has difficulty breathing, feels nauseous and is itching.

A

Mast cell degranulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A 24 year old medical student develops worsening swelling of the hands and feet and abdominal pain before her final year medical exams. She says that similar milder episodes have occurred preciously.

A

C1 inhibitor deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A 50 year old Irish woman presents to her GP with episodes of diarrhoea, which is difficult to flush, abdominal pain, weight loss and fatigue. She also describes a blistering itchy rash on her knees.

A

Coeliac disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A 26 year old male who has been suffering from ‘flu-like’ symptoms with fever presents to the GP after developing skin rash in the last few days.

A

Acute urticaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A 35 year old woman presents with persistent itchy wheels for the last 2 months. She noticed that when this is at its worst, she also has a fever and feels generally unwell. After an acute attack, she has bruising and post-inflammatory residual pigmentation at the site of the itching.

A

Urticarial vasculitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A 19 year old male presents to A&E with increasing breathlessness. On examination his blood pressure is 90/55 mmHg and his respiratory rate is 28/min. He shows you a generalised red itchy skin rash, and examination of his chest reveals bilateral inspiratory and expiratory wheezes throughout.
Diagnosis and management?

A

Anaphylaxis

IM adrenaline 1mL of 1:1000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A 35 year old woman presents with a two day history of a red itchy skin rash which started soon after her first scuba-diving lesson. She is otherwise well.
Dx and mgmt?

A

Acute urticaria

PO antihistamines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A 22 year old woman presents with an intermittently itchy and desquamating skin rash on her abdomen which is unresponsive to antihistamines

A

Contact hypersensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A 40 year old man complains of loss of smell with nasal itching and discharge over 4 weeks. He also describes morning sneezing. He is otherwise in good health. On examination his nasal mucosa are swollen and hyperaemic.
Dx and mgmt?

A

Allergic rhinitis

PO antihistamines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

This 45 year old woman presents to A&E with tongue swelling and acute respiratory tract obstruction. She has longstanding hypertension and received a renal transplant two years previously. She has no history of allergic disease. On examination her blood pressure is stable, and examination of her lung fields reveal normal breath sounds. Her current medication includes cyclosporine, azathioprine, captopril and nifedipine.
Dx and mgmt?

A

Acute angioedema

IM adrenaline 0.5 mL of 1:1000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Cytokines exerting an anti-viral effect

A

Interferons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Immunoglobulin dimer

A

IgA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

MHC associated with Th1 cells

A

MHC II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Acts on hepatocytes to induce synthesis of acute phase proteins in response to bacterial infection

A

IL-6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Arise in the first few days after infection and are important in defence against viruses and tumors

A

NKCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

MHC associated with Th2 cells

A

MHC II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

MHC associated with cytotoxic T cells

23
Q

Along with IgD, is one of the first immunoglobulins expressed on B cells before they undergo antibody class switching

24
Q

The most abundant (in terms of g/L) immunoglobulin in normal plasma

25
Deficiencies in this predispose to SLE
Classical complement pathway
26
Kostmanns syndrome is a congenital deficiency of which component of the immune system?
Neutrophils
27
Which component of the innate immune system is usually one of the first to respond to infection through a cut?
Neutrophils
28
Which infection is most common as a consequence of B cell deficiency?
Bacterial
29
Meningococcal infections are quite common as a result of which deficiency of the component of the immune system?
Complement
30
Produced by the liver, when triggered, enzymatically activate other proteins in a biological cascade and are important in innate and antibody mediated immune response?
Complement
31
A complete deficiency in this molecule is associated with recurrent respiratory and gastrointestinal infections.
IgA
32
Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency is characterised by a very high count in what cell?
Neutrophils
33
Which crucial enzyme is vital for the oxidative killing of intracellular micro-organisms?
NADPH oxidase
34
Which complement factor is an important chemotaxic agent?
C3a
35
What is the functional complement test used to investigate the classical pathway?
CH50
36
``` A. Type IV – Complement mediated B. Type III – Immune complex mediated C. Type III – T-cell mediated D. Not an autoimmune disease E. Type IV – T-cell mediated F. Type II – Antigen mediated G. Type II – Antibody mediated H. Type III – complement mediated ``` Graves Disease
Type II – Antibody mediated
37
``` A. Type IV – Complement mediated B. Type III – Immune complex mediated C. Type III – T-cell mediated D. Not an autoimmune disease E. Type IV – T-cell mediated F. Type II – Antigen mediated G. Type II – Antibody mediated H. Type III – complement mediated ``` SLE
. Type III – Immune complex mediated
38
``` A. Type IV – Complement mediated B. Type III – Immune complex mediated C. Type III – T-cell mediated D. Not an autoimmune disease E. Type IV – T-cell mediated F. Type II – Antigen mediated G. Type II – Antibody mediated H. Type III – complement mediated ``` Rheumatoid arthritis
E. Type IV – T-cell mediated
39
``` A. Type IV – Complement mediated B. Type III – Immune complex mediated C. Type III – T-cell mediated D. Not an autoimmune disease E. Type IV – T-cell mediated F. Type II – Antigen mediated G. Type II – Antibody mediated H. Type III – complement mediated ``` Asthma
D. Not an autoimmune disease
40
``` A. Type IV – Complement mediated B. Type III – Immune complex mediated C. Type III – T-cell mediated D. Not an autoimmune disease E. Type IV – T-cell mediated F. Type II – Antigen mediated G. Type II – Antibody mediated H. Type III – complement mediated ``` Type 1 diabetes
E. Type IV – T-cell mediated
41
``` A. Type IV – Complement mediated B. Type III – Immune complex mediated C. Type III – T-cell mediated D. Not an autoimmune disease E. Type IV – T-cell mediated F. Type II – Antigen mediated G. Type II – Antibody mediated H. Type III – complement mediated ``` Immune thrombocytopaenic purpura
G. Type II – Antibody mediated
42
``` A. Type IV – Complement mediated B. Type III – Immune complex mediated C. Type III – T-cell mediated D. Not an autoimmune disease E. Type IV – T-cell mediated F. Type II – Antigen mediated G. Type II – Antibody mediated H. Type III – complement mediated ``` ABO hemolytic transfusion reaction
G. Type II – Antibody mediated
43
``` A. Type IV – Complement mediated B. Type III – Immune complex mediated C. Type III – T-cell mediated D. Not an autoimmune disease E. Type IV – T-cell mediated F. Type II – Antigen mediated G. Type II – Antibody mediated H. Type III – complement mediated ``` Hepatitis C associated membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis type I
B. Type III – Immune complex mediated
44
``` A. Type IV – Complement mediated B. Type III – Immune complex mediated C. Type III – T-cell mediated D. Not an autoimmune disease E. Type IV – T-cell mediated F. Type II – Antigen mediated G. Type II – Antibody mediated H. Type III – complement mediated ``` Goodpastures syndrome
G. Type II – Antibody mediated
45
``` A. Type IV – Complement mediated B. Type III – Immune complex mediated C. Type III – T-cell mediated D. Not an autoimmune disease E. Type IV – T-cell mediated F. Type II – Antigen mediated G. Type II – Antibody mediated H. Type III – complement mediated ``` Myasthenia gravis
G. Type II – Antibody mediated
46
Most useful diagnostic antibody - SLE
Anti-DNA antibody
47
Most useful diagnostic antibody - Wegener's granulomatosis
c-ANCA
48
Most useful diagnostic antibody - Rheumatoid arthritis
Anti-CCP
49
Most useful diagnostic antibody - Auto-immune haemolytic anaemia
Coombs test
50
Most useful diagnostic antibody - primary biliary cirrhosis
Anti-mitochondrial antibody
51
Goodpastures syndrome - What is the specific auto-antigen that is the target of the immune system?
Type IV collagen
52
Goodpastures syndrome - The pattern of the antibody deposition in the glomerular basement membrane is typically described as what?
Smooth linear
53
Goodpastures syndrome - Name the drug most likely to be used in the treatment of this disease.
Prednisolone
54
Goodpastures syndrome - Immune damage may be associated with the kidney and commonly which other tissue?
Lung