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Immunology exam 1 review > immunology > Flashcards

immunology Flashcards

0
Q

C-reactive protein is a/an:

A

acute phase response protein

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1
Q

effectors of the humoral immune system are known as:

A

antibodies, immunoglobulin, complement, and B cells

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2
Q

a mixture of S. aureus and the E. coli bacteria are placed onto the skin of the fingertips of a volunteer. the volunteer immediately touched one of their inoculated fingertips to the nutrient agar plate #1 and then waited 30 mins and touched a diff. inoculated finger to inoculated agar plate #2. after incubating the plates overnight, what pattern of growth would you expect to see on the plates?

A

plate #1 grew both, while plate #2 grew only S. aureus

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3
Q

which of the following, when activated itself, acts as a protease that converts soluble C3 into C3a and C3b in the alternative pathway?

A

factor B

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4
Q

how does binding of complement-opsonized microbes to CR1 facilitate clearing of the microbe from the host?

A
  • promotion of phagocytosis of opsonized microbes by leukocytes
  • secretion of pro inflammatory cytokines
  • mediating phagocytosis of C3b-opsonized pathogen by B cell
  • all of the above are correct as a result of CR1 binding of complement-opsonized microbes
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5
Q

Ka, the association constant, is a measure of which of the following?

A

the affinity of receptor for ligand

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6
Q

activation of B cells with TLR rather than with T cell help would result in the overall antibody response being…

A

more polyclonal

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7
Q

which of the following descendants of the CLP act in the innate immune response?

A

NK cells

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8
Q

a pluripotent stem cell can do what

A

differentiate into a finite number of diff. cell types

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9
Q

which of the following types of bond would be LEAST likely in a receptor-ligand interaction

A

covalent bond

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10
Q

what determines if a particular cell will be acted up on by a cytokine

A

presence or absence of cytokine receptor

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11
Q

which of the following does not appear to utilize the FRCC system as its primary means for trafficking through the lymph node?

A

B cells

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12
Q

which of the following stem cells are helper T cells derived

A

CLP

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13
Q

Epstein-Barr virus produces an IL-10 homologue, what is the purpose of the IL-10 homologue?

A

the IL-10 homologue binds to the cell receptor to prevent cytokines from triggering an inflammatory response.

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14
Q

which of these characteristics are innate?

A
  • found in all multicellular plants and animals
  • receptors are encoded in the germline
  • recognize broad classes of pathogens
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15
Q

which of the following is NOT a property of cytokines?

A

induce cell motility

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16
Q

list properties of cytokines:

A
  • membrane bound signaling molecule
  • soluble signaling molecule
  • upregulate transcription
  • induce apoptosis (programmed cell death)
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17
Q

from which of the following stem cells are NK cells dervied?

A

CLP

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18
Q

which of the following characteristics are adaptive

A
  • response takes several days to develop
  • responds more quickly upon secondary exposure to pathogens
  • pathogen receptors are extremely varied
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19
Q

members of type I and III interferon are responsible for controlling..

A
  • viral replication within host cells

- proliferation of viral infected host cells

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20
Q

dendritic cells present _________ antigens on class I MHC through a process known as cross presentation

21
Q

which of the following types of effector T lymphocytes is capable of inhibiting an immune response to an antigen recognized with its T cell receptor (TCR)

22
Q

which of the following cell types secretes IL-17 and may play a role in anti-fungal responses

23
Q

what types of cells are good targets for NK cells and why

A

virally infected cells bc they have high levels of class I MHC

24
a cytokine storm, or cytokinemia, is a condition where cytokines are released that trigger the release of other cytokines to develop a positive feedback loop. it is thought that the 1917-1918 influenza pandemic induced a cytokine storm in its victims. which of the following mechanisms would be best to stop the positive feedback loop created by a cytokine storm?
the use of soluble antagonists to bind membrane-bound cytokine receptors
25
concentration of which of the following types of muscles is responsible for population of lymph through the lymphatic system?
cardiac and smooth
26
which lineage of immune cells constitues the first line of defense against and infection?
myeloid
27
variola virus, the causative agent of small pox, produces soluble TNF receptors. what advantage does the production of a TNF receptor have for avoiding immune response?
TNF represents a family of soluble cytokines. by producing soluble receptor that bind cytokines, then the cytokine effector response is eliminated and only a limited immune response will occur.
28
the activity of most cytokines is best described as....
autocrine and paracrine
29
a --------- is a molecule that is used by immune cells for communication
chemoattractant, chemokine, cytokine, and interleukin
30
which of the following is an example of antagoism?
IL-4 and IL-5 cause class switching of immunoglobulins secreted by plasma cells
31
which of the following cell types is responsible for regulating responses against intracellular pathogens
TH1
32
which of the following is TRUE about antigens
they are recognized by T cells or B cells
33
which of the following cells types is responsible for activating B cells in germinal centers
TFH
34
all of the following reasons contribute to the current low usage of cytokine therapy in medicine...
- cytokines may result in an unexpected or overly powerful immune res. - cytokines must be given multiple times on a specific schedule - cytokines may be bound by soluble receptors and never reach their target cell - cytokines have a short half-life usually less than 10 mins
35
activation of dendritic cells with TLR4 or TLR5 results in the production of _____ that induces differentiation of CD4 Tcells into _______
IL-12; TH1
36
which of the following classes of cell surfaces receptors are directly encoded in the germline?
PRR
37
large amounts of monoclonal antibodies in the serum of an individual might be and indicator of
myeloma
38
which of the following is true about the C5 convertase?
- C5 convertase can consist of the mem. bound components C3b2Bb - C5 convertase cleaves C5 into C5a and C5b with the b chain attached to the pathogen surface and the chain dissociating away to serve as a potent pro-inflammatory - C5 convertase is an important player in the production of the MAC
39
which of the following would be best for depleting an entire class of antibodies
andit-isotype antibodies
40
CD4 binds to..
MHC class II
41
what level of gene expression is regulated by such factors as Notch1, GATA-2, and Bmi-1
Transcription
42
which of the following provides serine protease activity in the classical complement activation pathway?
C1r and C1s
43
which of the following facillates dissociation of both the C4bBb and C3bBb C3 convertase?
DAF (CD55)
44
which of the following is an effect of C3a and C5a binding their receptors on leukocytes
- increases vascular permeability via induction of TNF-sigma and IL-6 secretion - introduction of degranulation by granulocytes - increases smooth muscle contraction to aid in delivering immune cells and molecules to the site of infection
45
how do NK cells kill their targets
by inducing apoptosis
46
which of the following best explains the timing of the classical pathway of complement fixation, relative to the other pathways of complement fixation, against a pathogen in an individual who has never exposed to said pathogen
no target for C1qrs exists on the surface of the pathogen in the earliest stages of the response to it
47
which of the following is considered primary lymphoid tissue
thymus | peyer's patch
48
which of the following effector T lymphocyte populations is produced via the activation of a naive T cell through antigen presented in MHC class I
CTL
49
as thumocytes develop, they are classified on the basis of the state of their T cell receptors and which of the following
the presence of coreceptor proteins CD4 and CD8 on their surface
50
which of the following contains the most ITAMs
CD3

Immunology exam 1 review (1 decks)

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