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Block 5 > Immunology > Flashcards

Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

What are the phagocytes of the myeloid cells?

A

netrophils and macrophages/monocytes

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2
Q

What do neutrophils granules contain?

A

lysozyme, collagenase and elastase

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3
Q

Neutrophils arise from a hematoppoietic precursor cell stimulated with what cytokine?

A

G-CSF

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4
Q

What are teh two main APCs that are myeloids?

A

monocytes/macrophages and dendritic cells

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5
Q

What are mast cells?

A

Bone-marrow derived cells within mucosal and dermal tissue that are a rich source of histamine and heparin

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6
Q

What are basophils?

A

bone-marrow derieved, common hematopoietic precursor with mast cell. highly acidic granophils, not much known about function

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7
Q

What are the role of eosinophils

A

large granules died by acidic dyes, granules contain heparin, cytokines, heparina dn hydrolytic enzymes produced in response to parasitic infection

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8
Q

What are the two main types of dendritic cells?

A

Conventional dentridtic cells and plasmacytoid

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9
Q

What is the role of conventional dendritic cells?

A

Primary effector cell linking innate and adaptive immune arms, activating naive t cells

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10
Q

What is the role of plasmacytoid dendritic cells?

A

Plays an important role in antiviral immune rsponse and produce the anti-viral cytokines IFNalpha and IFNBeta

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11
Q

What are follicular denddritic cells?

A

Characterized by numerous membranous projections and are localized within specilaized collecteions of activated b cells within lymph nodes etc.,

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12
Q

What are the roles of follicles for?

A

Cell rich zones, for activating b cells, with germinal center of the folicle being the locaiton for majority of it

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13
Q

How are natural killer cells distinct from t and b cells?

A

Mediate effector functions without first recognizing antigen, (natural killer t cells are a rare and little understood cell with characterisitcs of t and nk cells)

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14
Q

What surface protein is on all t cell subclasses?

A

CD3

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15
Q

What surface proteins are typical of almost all b cells?

A

CD19 and CD20

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16
Q

What are the surface rpoteins indicative of NK cells?

A

CD16 and FcRgamma

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17
Q

What cells are indicated by CD34 surface protein and c-kit surface marker proteins?

A

Pluripotent self-renewing cells within bonemarrow, heatopoietic

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18
Q

What are the two portions of the spleen?

A

red pulp and white pulp

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19
Q

What is MALT?

A

Muscosal associated lympoid tissue, a collection of myeloid nad lympoid cells that specifically traffic into anatomical close proximity to epithelial surfacee

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20
Q

What is intraepithelial lymphocytes?

A

tend to be gammadelta TCR T cells that specifically recognize and respond to lipid antigens

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21
Q

What are langerhans cells?

A

Specialized immature dendritic cell resident to the most interior layer of squamous epithelium, fucntion as sentinel

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22
Q

What is the major histocompatibilty complex?

A

Series of genes and its products involved in determining compatibility of self and foreing bodies

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23
Q

MHC I samples waht?

A

MHC I samples the cytoplasm/proteosome of the cell

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24
Q

What is MHC 2 sample?

A

THings phagocytosed and lysed in the lysozome

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25
Q

What does IFN-gamma do in relation to peptide generation?

A

Protective cytokine, associated with viral infection, induces expression of 3 replacement beta proteasome subunits called LMPs

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26
Q

What is TAP?

A

Transporter assocated with antigen processing, transports peptides into ER to bind MHC1
6-15 AA peptides ending with L,I,V,M

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27
Q

What size peptide to class 1 MHC molecules bind?

A

Only 8-10 amino acids with an LIVM anchor resideu

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28
Q

What is tapasin?

A

Thought to tether newly synthesized class I MHC moleucles to TAP to keep them in close proximity

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29
Q

What type of cells do MHC I display their peptides to?

A

Cytotoxic CD8 T cells

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30
Q

What type of cells do MHC II display their peptides to?

A

Helper CD4 T cells

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31
Q

WHat protein prevents protein loading of MHCII in the ER lumen?

A

Invariant Chain

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32
Q

What is CLIP?

A

THe portion of the invariant chain left within hte MHC II binding groove once the rest of it has been removed

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33
Q

What protein removes CLIP from binding groove?

A

HLA-DM

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34
Q

What is cross presetation?

A

Where specialized antigen presenting cells are able to present antigens that were phagocytosed on both MHC II as well as MHC I

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35
Q

What is CD1?

A

Not encoded in MHC, presents lipid antigents to NK-Tcells, also travels with invariant chain

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36
Q

What is the Major Histocompatibility complex?

A

the genetic locus responsible for tissue rejection, the genes are codominant

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37
Q

How many MHC genes are there in the human genome?

A

6 MHC genes, 3 of each class

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38
Q

Where is the MHC complex located?

A

on chromosome 6

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39
Q

WHat chance is there that MHC matchs at all 10 products between siblings?

A

1 in 4

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40
Q

What is the structure of class 1 MHC?

A

The alpha chain is the heavy chain, spans the membrane, Beta 2 is a light chain and doesnt span and then alpha 1 and 2 contain the polymorphic residue that bind the peptide

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41
Q

What gene is related to ankylosing spondilitis?

A

93% of patients with ankylosing spondilitis have HLA-B27, increases risk by 100 fold

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42
Q

What are the three parts of teh T cell receptor?

A

Variable, Joining, and diversity

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43
Q

Are TCR high or low affinity binding? BCR ?

A

TCR are low, and BCR are high

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44
Q

What type of chains are T cell antigen receptors composed of?

A

alpha and beta chains, sometimes gamma/delta

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45
Q

What cytokine causes lymphocytes to proliferate?

A

IL-7 produced by bone marrow stromal cells provides mitogenic signal for devolping lymphocytes to proliferate

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46
Q

What are alphabeta T cells?

A

The most abundant type of T cell, MHC restricted

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47
Q

What are the gammadelta T cells?

A

Common only in gut mucosa, and are not MHC restricted

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48
Q

The variable TCRbeta chain is composed of what?

A

Three segments, V, D and J as well as the constant region

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49
Q

The TCRalpha chain is composed of what?

A

Only V and J segments and the addition of the constant region

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50
Q

What needs to be expressed by T cells to get past the first checkpoint?

A

The beta chain, with a surrogate light chain on the surface

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51
Q

What needs to be expressed by the T cell to get past the second checkpoint?

A

Both the alpha and beta chain need to be expressed on teh surface

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52
Q

Each variable region of TCRBeta and alpha have what?

A

3 regions of hypervariability known as CDR1, 2 and 3, which are amino acid differnces

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53
Q

How is antigenic diversity created junctionally in TCR cells?

A

Removal of nucleotides, addition of nucleotides by TdT and strand repair during recombination process

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54
Q

What is TdT enzyme?

A

adds nucleotides to junction, to create antigenic diveristy

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55
Q

What is LFA1?

A

T cell integrin, that allows binding of naive T cell to an APC, that is presenting an antigen the T cell recognizes

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56
Q

Gammadelta TCR recognize waht?

A

lipids instead of peptides

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57
Q

Ciriculating naive T cell require what two signals to become active?

A

MHC antigen peptide complex and CD 28 interaction with co-stim molcule on APC

58
Q

CD28 interacts with what?

A

B7-1/B7-2 on the APC, CD28 is on the t cell

59
Q

CTLA4 is waht?

A

A co-stimulator receptor ona t cell that also interacts with B7, late in response, ITIM inhibits it

60
Q

ICAM1 is what on t cells?

A

AN adhesion molecules

61
Q

When macrophages ingest an antigen what occurs?

A

Secretion of IL12
Increase levels of MHC
upregulate costim molecule B7

62
Q

IL-2 does what?

A

produced by an activated t cell, and causes T cell proliferation. Daughter cells are clones of the t cell

63
Q

What costimulatory molecule on t cell, binds to an amplilfication signal to maintain an immune response inside the APC?

A

CD40L on tcell binds CD40 on APC, used by helper t cells to activate macrophages and B lymphocytes

64
Q

How are CD4+ t cells idffreentaited into Th1 helper t cells

A

BY IFNgamma, IL12

65
Q

Th1 helper t cells are involved in what type of immune response

A

phagocyte mediated killing of intracellular bactera, stimulate antibody production to bind APC Fc receptors, activate complement production, stimulates costim molecules. produce IFNgamma

66
Q

What cytokines drive T cells to a Th2 cell?

A

IL4

67
Q

What is the role of Th2 helper t cells

A

isotype switching, involved in parasite dfense, and allergy, produce IL4,, IL5 and IL10

68
Q

What cytokines and chemokines are involved in driving T cells to Th17 cells?

A

TGFbeta IL6 IL23

69
Q

What are Th17 cells involved in?

A

neutrophil inflmmation, combatting extracellular bacteria and fungi, produce IL17

70
Q

What chemokines are involved in the activationo f endothelial cells, at the site of infection?

A

TNF and IL1

71
Q

What is the role fo L-selectin?

A

Involved in trafficking of t cells back to lymphoid tissue

72
Q

E-and P-selectin are involved in what?

A

trafficking to site of infection

73
Q

Integrins LFA1 and VLA4 are involved in what?

A

enhances tighter adhesion of t cells to endothelium at site of ifection

74
Q

VLA4 on Effector t cells adheeres to what protei on endothelial cells?

A

VCAM1

75
Q

What signals are involved in trafficking to lmphatic tissue?

A

CCR7(chemokine receptor) and L-selectin

76
Q

What signals are involved int rafficking to peripheral tissues for effector t cells?

A

CXCR10 and E or P selectin

77
Q

What cytokines does CD4 Th2 effector cells produce?

A

IL4, IL10, IL 5 ad IL13, inducing eosinophil inflammation and causing humoral responses

78
Q

What cytokines does Th17 cells produce?

A

IL17 and IL22, leading to recruitment of PMN and monocytes

79
Q

What do CD8 cells use to kill target cells?

A

Perforins– to form a pore in target cell
granzymes–serine proteases which activate apopotsis
Fas ligand which induces apoptosis by Fas Receptor

80
Q

What is an epitope?

A

Part of a native protein, lipid, or lipoprotein antigeen that is recognized by B lymphocyte antigen receptors.

81
Q

Antigen is presented to membrane bound what for antigen recognition on a b cell?

A

Antigen is presented to membrne bound IgM on Naive b cells

82
Q

Naive B cell requires 2 signals for activation?

A

BCR binds antigen

CR2/CD21(complement receptor) activated by C3d complement protein or TLR activated microbial PAMP

83
Q

Two or more BCRs must be cross linked by what to become activated?

A

Antigen

84
Q

What is ITAM?

A

immunoreceptor tyrosine-based activation motif

85
Q

What are the two types of stintigens with stmulation to make an effector b cell and what is the differnce?

A

T independent and T dependent
independent localize to spleen, bone marrow, peritoneal cavity and mucosal tissue typically lipid or antigens with repetivtive structure
Dependent requires a T cell and is typically a protein antigen

86
Q

What is the ligand needed for T cell mediated activation of B cells?

A

CD40 and CD40L

87
Q

What is the role of each different isotype of Ig?

A

IgM–Complement activation
IgG– Fc receptor depndent phagocyte response; complement activation; neonatal immunity
IgE–Immunity against helminths; Mast Cell degranulation(immediate hypersensitivity)
IgA–Mucosal immunity

88
Q

What cytokine causes the production of the IgG subclass?

A

IFN-gamma

89
Q

What cytokine causes the production of IgE?

A

IL4

90
Q

What cytokine causes the production of IgA?

A

TGFBeta or BAFF

91
Q

What causes the production of IgM

A

T independent activation

92
Q

Folicular helper T cells do what?

A

Provide survival signal to maturing B cells

93
Q

What is the source of TNFalpha?

A 
Comes from macrophages, downstream of pathogen encounter and NFkappaB. Endothelial cells activation
neutrophils activation
hypothalamus fever
liver synthesis of acute phase
muscle fat metabolism
cells apoptosis
94
Q

What is the source of IL1?

A

Macrophages, endothelial cells, epithelial cells

95
Q

What is the prinicpal target of IL1?

A

ENdothelailal cell activation
hypothalamus fever
liver synthesis of acute phase proteins

96
Q

What is the principal target of IL6?

A

Liver synthesis of acute phase proteins

b cells: proliferation of antibody-producing cells

97
Q

What are involved in neutrophil influx?

A

G-CSF+GM-CSF(proliferation in bone marrow and egress of PMNs), IL-8(chemotatic) and Chemokine(leukocytes and PMNs;
downstream of pathogen encounter and NFkappaB actiavtion

98
Q

What are the four stages of PMN extravasation?

A

Rolling, integrin actiavtion by chemokines, stable adhesion, and migration through endothelium

99
Q

What does APC expression of CTLA-4 serve to do negatively regulate what response?

A

Competes B7 to stop signal through CD28. CD28 is an inflammatory cell

100
Q

IL2 and IL2R, do what?

A

Provide cell-contact independent, pro-proliferative; are targets of several important medications

101
Q

IL12 promotes what?

A

Th expression of IFNgamma (TH1 pathway)

102
Q

TGFBeta drives Thelper cells to wha?

A

Treg by supressing TH1 and Th2

103
Q

What is teh default pathway, when there are no APC cytokines?

A

TH2 is the default

104
Q

IL10 promotes what sort fo T celledevelopment?

A

Treg development

105
Q

IL4 and IL5 cause what sort of drive?

A 
TH2 helper cells
IL-4 class swithces to IgG, IgE; supresses Th1
IL-5 causs class switch to IgA; promote eosinophilia
106
Q

Overabundance of Th17 is associated with what?

A

autoimmunity

107
Q

TH17 is made by what combination fo cytokines?

A

IL-6 IL23 and TGFBeta acting as a group

108
Q

What ligands are involved in B cell activation?

A

CD40 and CD40L

109
Q

IFNgamma causes class switching to what?

A

IgG1 and IgG3

110
Q

IL4 causes class switching to what?

A

IgE

111
Q

TGFBeta causes class switching to what?

A

IgA

112
Q

FcEpsilonR1 regulates what?

A

Granulocyte degranulation

113
Q

Histamine does what?

A

A vasooactive amine stored in granules of mast cells

Binds to specific receptors

114
Q

Prostaglandin does what?

A

lipid inflammatory mediators
activae G protein coupled receptors on smooth muscle as a vasodilator
promotes PMN chemotaxis

115
Q

Leukotrienes does what?

A

Inflammatory mediators that are derivd from arachidonic acid.
Mast cells make leukotriene C4

116
Q

What cytokines cause CD8 T cell cytotoxicity

A

IFNalpha

IFNBeta

117
Q

What cytokines are associated with NK cell lysis?

A

IL15 and IL18, targets NK cells and T cells

118
Q

What is the cause of Amebiasis?

A

Entamoeba histolytica,

119
Q

Where is Entamoeba histolytica located in the human?

A

lumenal, intestine leads to invasion of tissues

120
Q

What is the lifecycle of Entameoba histolytica?

A

Infective-acid resistant cyst ingested, excystation in small intestine, attach to colonic mucosa divide and form cysts that are shed

121
Q

What is the pathology of Entamoeba histolytica?

A

can be mild or asymptomatic, or dysentery, and occasionally invade through mucosa invade the liver and liver damage

122
Q

How is entamoeba histolytica diagnosed?

A

travel history
cysts in stool
antigea dn PCR more accurate

123
Q

How is Giardia lamblia transmitted?

A

Ingestive, fecal/oral

124
Q

What si teh life cycle of Giardia lamblia?

A

Trophozoites excyst in uper intestine, adhere to lumenal instestine, excretion of cysts, requires only 50-100 cysts for infection

125
Q

What is the pathology of Giardia lamblia?

A

onset at 2 weeks, non-bloody diarrhea, flatus, acute usually self cure in 1-4 weeks, reinfection possible

126
Q

How is Giardia diagnosed?

A

ELISA antigen test

127
Q

What are the characterssitics of apicomplexan parasites?

A

obligate intracellular parasites
apical organelles that utilized for host invasion
comlex lifecycle, sexual cycle in intestinal epithealial cells of definitive hosts

128
Q

What is cryptosporidiosis?

A

C. hominis, intracellular but extracytoplasmic parasite, high infection rate in developing countries, common secondary infection associated with AIDS outreak 1993 milwaukee due to crappy water filtration

129
Q

What is teh treatment for cryptosporidiosis?

A

No truly effective treatment

130
Q

What is teh pathology with cryptosporidiosis?

A

3 or more loose watery bowel movments 24 hrs
shedding of oocysts
similar to giardia but selflimiting in non-immunocompromised

131
Q

Toxoplasmosis is what?

A

toxoplasma gondii, infects tissue/blood, cats as a definitve host
associated wtih cats feces adn undercooked meats

132
Q

What ist he pathology of Toxoplasmosis?

A

Initial acute infection often asymptomatic
immunodeficient cannot control infection and can lead to encephalitis
in-utero infection can lead from miscarriage or mental retardation to chorioretinitis

133
Q

How is toxoplasmosis diagnosed?

A

Serology, indirect immunofluoresence

134
Q

What is Babesiosis?

A

Babesia microti, located in red blood cells, deer tick definitve host, humans accidental host

135
Q

What is the babesia lifecycle?

A

Mouse and deertick, exchange blood meal and different gametes and trophocyte, however human accident life cycle

136
Q

HOw is Babesia diagnosed?

A

Seen inside red blood cells,

137
Q

What is the pathology of Babesia?

A

Usually nothing, but hemolytic anemia and non-specific flu like sumtoms, some have splenomegaly, hepatomegaly or jaundice

138
Q

What is malaria?

A

one of 5 plasmodium species, whose definitive host is the mosquito and humans are the intermediate host, greatest risk to children and women prima gravida

139
Q

What is the lifecycle of plasmodium?

A

mosquito bites human, sporozoites goes to liver, in liver infects hepatocyte and makes meroxoites which then infect red blood cells, producing more merozoites and gametocytes. Gametocytes enter mosquito after it bites again. Where the gametocytes produce sexual reproduction

140
Q

What is the pathology of malaria?

A

Plasmodium causes fever cycle with bursts of merozoites, anemia from erythrocyte destruction, chills fever, splenomegaly, myalgia, cerebral malaria results from P. flaciparum
latent hepatic form in P. vivax and P. ovale

Block 5 (5 decks)

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