Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is primarily responsible for the recognition of pathogens during the innate immune response?
A) B cells
B) T cells
C) Pattern recognition receptors (PRRs)
D) Dendritic cells

A

Pattern recognition receptors (PRRs)

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2
Q

Which of the following is NOT a function of the complement system?
A) Lysis of pathogens
B) Opsonisation of pathogens
C) Activation of T cells
D) Inflammation induction

A

Activation of T cells

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3
Q

The major histocompatibility complex (MHC) class I molecules are recognized by which of the following?
A) CD4+ T cells
B) CD8+ T cells
C) B cells
D) Neutrophils

A

CD8+ T cells

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4
Q

What is the primary role of helper T cells (Th cells) in adaptive immunity?
A) Directly killing infected cells
B) Stimulating B cells to produce antibodies
C) Releasing cytokines to activate other immune cells
D) Phagocytosis of pathogens

A

Releasing cytokines to activate other immune cells

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5
Q

Which type of hypersensitivity reaction involves the formation of immune complexes that can deposit in tissues and lead to inflammation?
A) Type I
B) Type II
C) Type III
D) Type IV

A

Type III

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6
Q

The primary immune response differs from the secondary immune response in which of the following ways?
A) The primary response has a quicker onset and greater magnitude.
B) The primary response involves the activation of memory B cells.
C) The secondary response has a quicker onset and greater magnitude.
D) The primary response involves only T cell activation.

A

The secondary response has a quicker onset and greater magnitude.

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7
Q

What is the role of regulatory T cells (Tregs) in maintaining immune homeostasis?
A) They directly kill infected cells.
B) They produce antibodies to neutralize pathogens.
C) They suppress overactive immune responses and prevent autoimmunity.
D) They activate macrophages to phagocytose pathogens.

A

They suppress overactive immune responses and prevent autoimmunity.

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8
Q

The process of phagocytosis involves which of the following steps?
A) Antigen presentation to T cells
B) Antibody binding to pathogens
C) Engulfment of pathogens and intracellular killing
D) Production of inflammatory cytokines by T cells

A

Engulfment of pathogens and intracellular killing

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9
Q

Which of the following immunoglobulins is the first to be produced during a primary immune response?
A) IgA
B) IgE
C) IgM
D) IgG

A

IgM

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10
Q

Which of the following is NOT typically associated with a Type I hypersensitivity reaction?
A) Immediate response
B) Mast cell degranulation
C) IgG-mediated response
D) Release of histamine

A

IgG-mediated response

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11
Q

Which of the following best describes the function of the T-cell receptor (TCR)?
A) It binds to free-floating antigens in circulation.
B) It recognises processed antigen presented on MHC molecules.
C) It secretes cytokines to activate other immune cells.
D) It directly kills infected cells through cytotoxic activity.

A

It recognises processed antigen presented on MHC molecules.

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12
Q

Which of the following cells is the main effector cell in the humoral immune response?
A) Cytotoxic T cell
B) Helper T cell
C) Plasma cell
D) Macrophage

A

Plasma cell

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13
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding the use of adjuvants in veterinary vaccines?
A) Adjuvants are used to directly kill pathogens in the vaccine.
B) Adjuvants increase the duration and intensity of the immune response to the vaccine.
C) Adjuvants are used to decrease the immune response to the vaccine.
D) Adjuvants are unnecessary in vaccines for viral pathogens.

A

Adjuvants increase the duration and intensity of the immune response to the vaccine.

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14
Q

Which of the following immunoglobulins is predominantly found in mucosal areas, such as the intestines and respiratory tract?
A) IgM
B) IgG
C) IgE
D) IgA

A

IgA

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15
Q

Which of the following is the primary function of the complement system in the immune response?
A) To enhance phagocytosis
B) To produce antibodies
C) To promote T cell activation
D) To suppress inflammatory responses

A

To enhance phagocytosis

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16
Q

What is the mechanism by which vaccines confer immunity?
A) They introduce live pathogens that stimulate a full immune response.
B) They stimulate the production of memory cells without causing disease.
C) They provide pre-formed antibodies to the animal.
D) They eliminate all antigens from the body.

A

They stimulate the production of memory cells without causing disease.

17
Q

What is the mechanism of action for ciclosporine?

A

Calcineurin inhibitor

18
Q

What is the mechanism of action of chlorambucil?

A

Alkylating antineoplastic agent (aromatic nitrogen mustard derivative)

19
Q

What are some adverse effects of chlorambucil?

A

Myelosuppression
Vomiting/diarrhoea
Hepatotoxicity
Alopecia (poodles, terriers, Afghan hounds)
Fanconi syndrome

20
Q

What is the mechanism of action of azathioprine?

A

Purine antagonist
Metabolised to 6-mercaptopurine and incorporated into nucleic acids

21
Q

Why can azathioprine not be administered to cats?

A

Low thiopurine methyltransferase activity

22
Q

What breed of dpg has low TMPT activity for metabolism of azathioprine? And which breed of dog has elevated levels?

A

Giant Schnauzer
Alaskan Malamute

23
Q

What are the adverse effects of azathioprine?

A

Hepatotoxicity (14days)
Myelotoxicity (53 days)
Vomiting/diarrhoea
Pancreatitis

24
Q

What is the mechanism of action of mycophenolate mofetil?

A

Non-competitive, reversible inhibitor of inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase (IMPDH). Rate limiting enzyme in de novo synthesis of guanosine nucleotides. 5-fold higher concentration in lymphocytes.

25
What are the adverse effects of mycophenolate?
Diarrhoea, vomiting, anorexia, papillomatosis
26
What is the mechanism of action of leflunomide?
Pyrimidine synthesis inhibitor (T cell proliferation and antibody production by B cells). Active metabolite teriflunomide. Reversibly inhibits mitochondrial enzyme dihydroorotate dehydrogenase. G1 cycle arrest in lymphocytes
27
What are the adverse effects of leflunomide?
Diarrhoea, hyporexia, teratogenic disease, increased liver enzyme activity
28