Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MICI > Immunology > Flashcards

Immunology Flashcards

Lect 15 onwards

1
Q

components of first line of defense

A

chem barriers, mech barriers and reflexes: skin, mucous membranes, secretions, normal microbiota

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

components of second line of defense

A
  1. Innate immune cells: macrophages, neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, NKC, DC, Mast cells
  2. Antimicrobial mediators: cytokines like interferons, TNF, IL-6, Chemokines, complement cascade
  3. processes: phagocytosis, PRR activation (toll-like receptors), inflammation, fever
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

components of third line of defense

A

Adaptive immunity: T cells, B cells and antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

which lines of defense are specific vs non-specific?

A

non-specific: first and second line of defense
specific: third line of defense

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When and what was the first vaccine attempt

A

15th century, smallpox crust inhaled or inserted in skin cuts (called variolation), then Jenner realized cowpox made people resistant to smallpox

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what do you call it when you reduce pathogenicity of pathogen for vaccination?

A

attenuation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Humoral vs Cell mediated immunity

A

Humoral: B cells and antibodies, complement proteins and certain antimicrobial peptides
Cell-mediated: delayed, T cells and macrophages and NKC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what animal was used as model for phagocytosis via macrophages?

A

starfish larvae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

_____ is one of the few vaccines thats efficient even after host has already been infected with pathogen.

A

anti-rabies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

how does immunotherapy work?

A

blocks tumour cells from deactivating T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

describe defensins

A
  • small
  • cysteine rich
  • catatonic (positively charged)
  • in plants, vertebrates and invertebrates
  • disrupts cell membranes
  • found in many compartments of body
  • secreted by innate immune cells and epithelial cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

components of skin as first line of defense.

A
  • defensins secreted by dermal cells
  • lysozymes destroy cell wall
  • sweat makes low skin pH
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

components of respiratory system as first line of defense.

A
  1. mucosilary blanket: mucins and defensins reduce bacterial/viral contact with cells
  2. alveolar macrophages
  3. coughing and sneezing reflex
  4. cilia help move pathogen along
  5. nitric oxide produced by lungs destroys surface of pathogens
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Components of digestive epithelia as first/second line of defense.

A

FIRST LINE
1. cells replaced often and quickly healed if damaged (important because tissue damage is high)
2. Paneth cells make defensins
3. goblet cells make mucous

SECOND LINE:
1. patrolled by macrophages (engulf invades) and dendritic cells (alert other parts of immune system)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what are defensins?

A

anti-microbial peptides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what cells make mucous in first line of defense

A

goblet cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

how does phagocytosis kill pathogen

A
  1. membrane envaginated (pseudopod) with bacteria to make phagosome.
  2. phagosome fuses with lysosome (lysosomal enzymes digest bacteria) and get acidified by mitochondria and peroxisome
  3. digested products released to recruit more immune cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

top 3 cells that do phagocytosis

A

neutrophils, dendritic cells and macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

TLR4 is/does what?

A

TLR4 (toll-like receptor 4) is a PRR on the surface of innate immune cells which detects the presence of LPS (exclusive to gram neg cell wall), then initiates second messenger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what does MHC stand for

A

Major Histocompatability Complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

types of T lymphocytes

A
  1. CD4+ - secretes cytokines to promote/regulate immune response
  2. CD8+ - kills target cells
  3. T regulartory cells - regulates immune response and prevents harmful response to self-antigens
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

where do T cells mature

A

thymus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

CD4 TCR binds to ____

A

MHC II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

difference between MHC I and MHC II

A

MHC I: present in every cell in the body but only goes to surface of cell is infected, bind to CD8 cells

MHC II: present on surface of every antigen presenting cell (macrophage, DC, NKC), bind to CD4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

red and white blood cells develop from ____

A

hematopoietic stem cells (HSC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

describe how hematoxylin and eosin staining works

A

hematoxylin binds basophilic nucleic acids = blue = WBC because has nucleus

acidic eosin dye binds eosinophilic proteins in granules and cytoplasm = pink = RBC because no nucleus (makes room for O2 transport in cell)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

white blood cells are also called ___

A

leukocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

neutrophils, eosinophils and basophils are all ______

A

granulocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what portion of the blood contains no cells nor clotting proteins?

A

the serum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

___% of blood cells are leukocytes

A

1%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Whole blood is made of :

A

plasma, WBC and RBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

____ and ____ are agranulocytes

A

lymphocytes (T/B cells) and monocytes (become macrophages)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

____% - ____% of WBC in blood are lymphocytes

A

20% - 40%

  1. T cells: 7%- 24%
  2. B cells: 1% - 10%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

monocytes make up what % of WBC in human blood?

A

2% - 12%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

neutrophils make up what % of WBC in human blood?

A

50% - 70%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what types of cells each make up less than 1% of WBC in human blood?

A

basophils and mast cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what are the first cells to arrive at an infection site

A

neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

neutrophil function

A

Phagocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

how do neutrophils kill ingested bacteria?

A

Granule contents
- reactive oxygen intermediate (prim gran)
- reactive nitrogen intermediate (prim gran)
- antimicrobial peptide (defensin) (sec gran)
- lysozyme (prim. gran.)
- hydrolytic enzymes (prim gran)
- cytokines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Describe netosis

A

when neutrophil overwhelmed by pathogen, it releases its large DNA strands into environment (and granule content) which forms a net to trap pathogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what cell coordinates defense against multicellular parasite?

A

eosinophil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

name of non-phagocytic granulocytes

A

basophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

name of rare but strong innate responder?

A

basophils
- histamine increases blood vessel permeability which aids immune cells accessing infection site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what type of immune cells are released into blood are immature precursors? where do they differentiate”

A

mast cells ; epidermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what innate immune cell has a horseshoe nucleus?

A

monocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what are the best APC and why?

A

dendridic cells, dont need activation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

platelets come from what type of cell (precursor)?

A

megakaryocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

_____ are derived from lymphoid precursor, have granules containing _____ and ______, and are a part of innate immunity

A

NKC ; perforin ; granzyme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

“CD” in CD4 stands for ____?

A

cluster of differentiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

3 functions of APC (macrophages and dendritic cells)?

A
  1. secrete chemokines and cytokines to attract and activate other immune cells
  2. phagocytosis and present antigens on MHC II molecules
  3. upregulate co-stimulatory molecules needed for optimal activaton of CD4+ (like cytokines)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Which cells express the following: CD3, CD4, CD8, CD19, CD45?

A

CD3: Th and Tc
CD4: Th
CD8: Tc
CD19: B cells
CD45: B, Th, Tc and NKC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

plasma cells have an enlarged organelle. which one is it and why?

A

Enlarged ER because that’s where proteins are made, and plasma cells make lots and lots of soluble antibodies (which are proteins), so enlarged ER allows more to be made quicker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What are the primary, secondary and tertiary lymphoid tissues? What are their purposes?

A

primary: thymus and bone marrow
- maturation of lymphocytes

Secondary: lymph nodes, spleen and mucosal-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT) and gut-associated lymph tissue (GALT)
- location of trapped antigen, allows mature lymphocytes to interact (and antigen-dependent maturation of T and B cells to occur). Resevoir of lymphocytes

Tertiary: cutaneous-associated lymphoid tissue (CALT)
- has less lymphoids than secondary, but can import during inflammatory response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

most important hematopoietic site before vs after birth.

A

fetal liver vs bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

cells and fluid move through lymphatic vessels by ____ movement of ______ ____ surrounding the vessels. _______ prevents backflow.

A

peristaltic ; smooth muscle ; valves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

efferent lymphatic vessels take lymph fluid from lymph nodes via _______ into _______ circulation.

A

thoracic duct ; venous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

in the lymph node, the B cell zone is called ___ and the T cell zone is called _____

A

B cell zone: Follicle
T cell zone: Paracortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

what prevents microorganisms that enter lymph nodes from entering blood stream?

A

phagocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

purpose of lymph nodes

A

where T and B cells can interact with antigens, mature, and produce antibodies

60
Q

where is spleen in abdominal cavity?

A

upper left quandrant.

61
Q

purpose of spleen and different components.

A

purpose: where immune responses are mounted against antigens in the blood, and old/defective RBC are phagocytosed and recycled.

White Pulp: generation of T and B cell responses against blood-borne antigen. made up of marginal zone and PALS (T cell zone)

Red Pulp: Macrophages phagocytose bad RBC and pathogens

Marginal Zone: DC trap blood-borne antigens and transport them to white pulp

62
Q

What’s PALS? What does it stand for?

A

Periarteriolar lymphoid sheath is the T cell zone of white pulp in the spleen (secondary lymph tissue)

63
Q

cytokines were originally called _____

A

interleukins

64
Q

chemokines vs cytokines: which one is bigger, which one is older, and which one has more receptors?

A

cytokine: bigger, newer, each fam has own receptor

chemokine: smaller, older, 1 type of receptor for all

65
Q

whats the response once a cytokine binds to a receptor?

A
  1. causes changes in expression of adhesion molecules and chemokine receptors on target membrane
  2. induce cell proliferation or differentiation
  3. tells cell to survive or die
  4. can modulate cell effector functions
66
Q

3 ways cytokines can act

A
  1. endocrine
  2. paracrine
  3. autocrine
67
Q

example of membrane bound cytokine family

A

TNF (tumor necrosis factor) family - lead to necrosis or apoptosis

68
Q

4 types of cytokine based on their effects

A
  1. pleiotropy - 1 cyto, multiple effects
  2. redundancy - many cyto, same effect
  3. synergy - 2+ cyto work together to produce effect
  4. antagonism - 1 cyto inactivates effects of another
69
Q

chemokine function and receptor type.

A

function: direct leukocyte migration
receptor: GPCR

70
Q

first MS drug to reduce inflammation

A

IFN-beta (class 2 cytokine fam)

71
Q

are all antigens immunogens?

A

non

72
Q

intrinsic and extrinsic factors that determine immunogenicity of antigen

A

Intrinsic
1. size: bigger is better (hapten too small) EXCEPT for TCRs… they only recognize small that are bound to MHC
2. complexity: more complex is better (dna too simple)
3. physical form: insoluble is better bc aggregates

extrinsic
1. dose (mg to g)
2. route (injection more effective than oral)

73
Q

bivalent ligand causes :

A

faster and stronger B cell activation

74
Q

3 major parameters that affect avidity.

A
  1. affinity of antibody for epitope
  2. valency of antibody and antigen (more binding sites means greater avidity)
  3. structural arrangement of the parts that interact (do they allow benifical conformational changes?)
75
Q

what’d different between BCR and antibody?

A

C terminus of heavy chain is different (membrane bound BCR has hydrophobic region there, whereas soluble antibody cannot have free hydrophobic end)

76
Q

antibody functions

A
  1. opsonization for phagocytosis
  2. fix complement to enhance pathogen death via lysis (MAC attack)
  3. block attachment
  4. neutralize toxins via precipitation
77
Q

Which antibody passes through the placenta to give foetus immunity?

A

IgG

78
Q

IgG is _____% of total Ig pool, whereas IgM is _____% and IgA is ____%

A

70-75% ; 10% ; 15%

79
Q

IgG functions

A
  1. fix complement
  2. opsonization for phagocytosis
  3. block attachment
80
Q

IgM function

A
  1. blocking attachment
  2. fixing complement

BAD at opsonization because all constant regions (Fc) that would bind to macrophage are bound to each other to make pentamer

81
Q

primary IgA function

A

blocking attachment to protect mucous membranes (in saliva, tears and milk)

82
Q

what antibody causes allergic reaction? how?

A

IgE binds Fc(epsilon)R on mast cells after binding to allergen to cause reaction

83
Q

what mechanisms ensure the high diversity of Ig?

A
  1. somatic recombination
  2. somatic hypermutation (D genes have high mutation probability, only in B cells)
  3. secondary diversification: gene conversion in variable region, or class switch in constant region
84
Q

where are complement proteins made

A

liver

85
Q

what class are complements

A

class A, C1-9 and D

86
Q

what does MAC stand for

A

membrane attack complex

87
Q

C3a and C5a dont only work as complement proteins to induce _____, they also function as ________

A

inflammation ; chemokines to created a gradient

88
Q

what draws WBC to inflammation site?

A
  • cytokines (TNF alpha, IL-1beta, IL-6)
  • lipids (protaglandins
  • histamine
  • chemokines (like C3a and C5a)
89
Q

4 characteristics of inflammation

A
  • redness
  • swelling
  • pain
  • heat
90
Q

which cytokines cause fever? (hint: same cytokines that cause inflammation)

A

TNF-alpha
IL-1beta
IL-6

91
Q

what are fever causing cytokines called?

A

pyrogens

92
Q

how does fever help infection?

A
  • increases circulation rate (more WBC to infection site)
  • some pathogens can’t tolerate the heat so damaged or die
  • increases transferrins, which isolate iron away from pathogens to limit growth
93
Q

_____, found in gram ____ bacteria, can be dangerous as they trigger release of pyrogens which can lead to cytokine storm

A

LPS ; negative (-)

94
Q

does systemic inflammation increase or decrease blood pressure? what is the result?

A

decreases blood pressure because increased vascular permeability. causes low levels O2 to go to organs, which can lead to organ failure (kidneys go first)

95
Q

PRR recognise _____

A

PAMPs - Pathogen-associated molecular patterns

96
Q

PRRs are found in ____ and _____, but not in _______

A

higher plants ; vertebrates ; invertebrates

97
Q

what are the extracellular domains of TLR made of?

A

leucine-rich repeats (LRR) in the shape of a C (hetero or homo dimers)

98
Q

Name of transcription factor activated in response to TLR binding? where is it located?

A

NFKB in nucleus

99
Q

there is viral dsRNA mediated activation of which TLR? this leads to activation of what?

A

TLR 3/3

IRF3 and IRF7 activated

100
Q

there is viral ssRNA mediated activation of which TLRs? this leads to activation of what?

A

TLR 7/7 and TLR 8/8

IRF7 activated

101
Q

result of pathogen binding to TLR?

A

Phagocytosis

102
Q

give an example of a soluble intracellular PRR

A

NOD-like receptor (NLR).

floats in cytoplasm, identifies pathogen, activates NFkB transcription factor

NLRP1, NLRP3, NLRC4 form inflammasome, activates caspase-1, cleaves IL-1beta precursor, mature IL-1beta released

103
Q

where are vesicles containing class II MHC found??

A

in cytoplasms of APC

104
Q

follicle light zone vs dark zone

A

light zone - Th cells and B cells interact, there is class switching
dark zone - Proliferation of B cells and somatic hypermutation of antibodies

105
Q

Extracellular bacteria is fought via ___ and ____ immunities, whereas intracellular bacterial is fought via ____ immunity

A

innate ; humoral (antibody-mediated) ; cell-mediated

106
Q

the _____ is the site of response to blood-borne pathogens because of ____________

A

spleen ; exchange of blood in red pulp area

107
Q

what disease prevents phagosome lysosome fusion

A

tuberculosis

108
Q

what is a mature granuloma made of?

A

macrophages, T helper cells, infected cells, and bacteria

109
Q

Describe inducible protection against viral infection

A

virally infected cell produces interferons: IFN alpha and IFN beta. these diffuse to nearby cells to stimulate expression of antiviral genes. this way, once virus enters cell, it is immediately attacked and degraded by antiviral proteins

110
Q

describe cell-mediated protection against viral infection

A

NKC detects lack of MHC I on infected cell, as well as stress protein (via stress protein receptor). Its like okay you’re sus, so then it causes apoptosis via perforins/granzymes

111
Q

what is perforin and granzyme?

A

both secreted by NKC and induce apoptosis in infected cell from inside out (enter cell via endocytosis)

perforin
- pore forming protein

granzyme
- serine protease

112
Q

what does cross-presentation via DC mean?

A

DC sees antigen, presents it on MHC I cell. DC cell also phags antigen and presents it on MHC II for CD4 cells

113
Q

how do CTL kill cells?

A

same way as NKC, via perforin and granzyme from granule after TCR binding

alternative pathway: Fas/FasL pathway
- does same thing as perforin and granzyme

114
Q

Human MHC alleles are highly ______, and their expression is _______

A

polymorphic (many different alleles) ; co-dominant / polygenic (and its rare both alleles are the exact same)

115
Q

why is it important that MHC molecules are diverse?

A
  1. pathogens adapt fast, so we need receptors that adapt equally as fast to stop them from evading immune system.
  2. No MHC presentation = no adaptive immune response
116
Q

antibodies cause aggregation for phagocytosis. where and by who are these aggregated cells removed?

A

monocytes and myeloid cells in liver phag aggregated cells

117
Q

what two viruses kill/inhibit T cell activity?

A
  • Human T lymphotropic virus 1 and 2
  • HIV
118
Q

An indirect ELISA is used to assess presence of HIV in a person. what are bound to the microtiter plate as antigens?

A
  1. recombinant enveloppe
  2. core proteins
119
Q

what type of ELISA is used to quantify cytokine concentration in a tissue?

A

Sandwhich ELISA

120
Q

what are two diseases that were wiped out in canada after vaccines became available?

A

polio and diphtheria

121
Q

does smallpox have an RNA or DNA genome?

A

DNA

122
Q

passive vs active vaccines

A

active: stimulate immune system by giving attentuated pathogen, or part of pathogen, to patient

passive: giving antibodies from a previous natural or synthetic infection, thought to lessen the disease of the patient (not formally approve, trump did this when he got covid-19)

123
Q

prophylactic vs therapeutic vaccines

A

prophylactic: build immunity to repel infection, “preparing” immune system for battle

therapeutic: treatment and prevention (like anti-cancer drugs)

124
Q

What’s the mathematical calculation for transmission potential?

A

Ro = # of people a sick person will infect

Ro<1 - infection can disappear
Ro=1 - infection is endemic (maintained)
Ro>1 - infection can be epidemic

125
Q

criteria for viral eradication

A
  1. no animal reservoir
  2. easy to detect - makes it easy to contain
126
Q

smallpox route of transmission

A
  1. aerosols
  2. direct contact
127
Q

poliovirus route of transmission

A
  1. water-borne
  2. fecal-oral route
  3. respiratory droplets
128
Q

why was polio so hard to eradicate?

A

95% of people were asymptomatic

129
Q

What are the two types of polio vaccines? what are their names? where are they grown?

A
  1. Inactivated - IPV or Salk vaccine
    - grown in monkey kidney cells, then inactivated via formalin and administered intradermally
    - SAFER
  2. Attenuated - OPV or Sabin vaccine
    - grown at sub-physiological temp in cell culture, causes mutations, delivered orally, virus replicates in gut but doesn’t affect nervous system
    - STRONGER IMMUNE RESPONSE, EASIER DELIVERY (no needles)
    - HARDER TO MAKE
130
Q

What’s HPV? what type of dna does it have? What’s its shape?

A

Human papilloma virus - causes genital warts and sometimes cervical cancer

small circular dsDNA

icosahedral symmetry

131
Q

3 HPV vaccine names and how many strains they protect from

A
  1. Cervarix (bivalent, protects from 2)
  2. Gardasil (quadrivalent, protect from 4)
  3. Gardasil-9 (nonavalent, protects from 9)
132
Q

How are HPV vaccines made?

A

They are VLP vaccines.
1. the L1 protein coding region of HPV genome is transfered into yeast plasmid
2. yeast makes L1 proteins, which self-assemble into virus outer shell
3. empty VLP administered and elicits high # of antibodies

133
Q

what’s the covid-19 vaccine made of?

A
  • spike mRNA in a vesicle
  • lipids to keep mRNA intact and stable
    3. pH regulators
134
Q

most deadly species of malaria

A

plasmodium falciparum

135
Q

two drugs to prevent malaria

A

Doxycycline and Malarone

136
Q

how do we diagnose malaria?

A

but looking for ring structure an infected RBC makes. If found, treatment should be immediate because patient could be dead in 48horus

137
Q

2 types of malaria (plasmodium falciparum)

A
  1. cerebral malaria
    - decreased deformability and increased attachment motifs of RBC to cerebral endothelium causes clots and neurological damage
  2. blackwater fever
    - kidney damage (hemorrhage), inflammation, tubular necrosis
138
Q

how is the malaria parasite able to evade immune system so well?

A

antigenic shift. has 60+ alleles for sticky antigen protein, but only expresses one, and expresses a different one after each round of replication, so newly made antibodies with previous sticky antigen don’t work

139
Q

protozoans vs metazoans

A

protozoans - unicellular eukaryotes
metazoans - helminths or worms

140
Q

what are the 2 biggest challenges posed to immune system by parasites?

A
  1. antigenic structure (antigenic shift, or parasite at different stage in life cycle so looks different)
  2. location over time (moves in the body)
141
Q

How do Trypanosomes escape the immune system?

A

by changing surface glycoproteins: VSG group

142
Q

what type of parasites influence activation and induce cell death in T cells?

A

helminths (metazoan parasites). they induce switch to IgE and non-protective IgG

143
Q

Th0 to Th1 mediated by ____. Th1 produces what cytokines, and is what type of immune response?

A

IL-12
Cytokines: IL-2 and IFN gamma
Cell mediated response

144
Q

Th0 to Th2 mediated by ____. Th2 produces what cytokines, and is what type of immune response?

A

IL-4
Cytokines: IL-4, IL-5, IL10
Humoral Immunity

145
Q

tapeworms are also called ____

A

cestodes

146
Q

what causes liver inflammation similar to alcoholics?

A

trematodes. eggs in intestines, adult in liver. no effective immunity against them

147
Q

the African sleeping sickness is caused by the bite of the ____ fly

A

tsetse

MICI (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions