Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

What is thymic hyperplasia?

A

1) The presence of B cell germinal centers within the thymus (not normal)
2) Commonly observed in Myasthenia gravis

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2
Q

Absence of thymus due to a deletion in chromsome 22q11

A

DiGeorge syndrome- results in defective cell mediated immunity

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3
Q

What is a thymoma?

A

1) Tumor of thymic epithelial cells
2) Occurs in adults over 40
3) Three types

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4
Q

What are the three types of thymomas?

A

1) Noninvasive (consists of medullary type epithelial cells)
2) Invasive (consists of cortical type epithelial cells)
3) Thymic carcinoma (squamous cell carcinomas)

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5
Q

Name the antibodies found in the body.

A

1) IgM (pentamer, activates complement)
2) IgG (most abundant, crosses placenta)
3) IgA (dimers, found on mucosa)
4) IgE (involved with allergic reactions)
5) IgD

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6
Q

What is the antibody that presents naturally against ABO antigens? What antibody is involved with an immune response?

A

1) IgM

2) IgG

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7
Q

How do you know when there is an immune response to exposure of allogenic blood antigens?

A

1) When there is IgG present

2) Can occur during pregnancy or transfusion

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8
Q

What do you give to a pregnant mother who is Rh negative?

A

1) RhoGam

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9
Q

What chromosome are the ABO genes located on?

A

1) Chromosome 9
2) A= N acetyl galactosamine
3) B = D galactose
4) O= nothing added

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10
Q

What antibody recognizes Rh antigen? Do antibodies for Rh antigen naturally occur?

A

1) IgG

2) No

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11
Q

What blood group antigen is associated with intravascular hemolysis when an incorrect transfusion is given?

A

ABO

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12
Q

What blood group antigens are associated with extravascular hemolysis when an incorrect transfusion is given?

A

All others

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13
Q

What commonly occurs in IgA deficient pt. who receive a blood transfusion?

A

1) Allergic reaction to transfused blood

2) Due to the presence of IgA in the transfused blood which are recognized by anti-IgA antibodies

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14
Q

What is the separation of whole blood into components known as?

A

Apheresis

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15
Q

How does hemolytic disease of the newborn occur?

A

1) It is an immunological reaction that occurs when maternal IgG antibodies cross over the placenta and target antigens of the baby
2) Common in Rh negative moms

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16
Q

Intravascular hemolysis due to blood transfusion.

A

ABO mismatch

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17
Q

Describe the steps of inflammation to acquire leukocytes

A

1) Marginization
2) Rolling
3) Activation
4) Crawling
4) Migration

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18
Q

Describe the function of each:

1) IL-3
2) IL-10
3) IL-8

A

1) stimulates growth of stem cells in bone marrow; produced by activated T cells
2) anti-inflammatory cytokine; produced by macrophages
3) Trigger neutrophils to enter site of infection; produced by macrophages

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19
Q

Recurrent sinopulmonary and GI tract infections due to an immune defect; Increased amounts of IgG selective for IgA

A

Selective IgA deficiency

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20
Q

What is the result when a pt. with IgA deficiency is given blood with IgA

A

Fatal anaphylactic reaction

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21
Q

Combined defect of both humoral and cell mediated immunity

A

Severe combined immune deficiency

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22
Q

Immunodeficiency due to a deletion in chromosome 22 leading to the maldevelopment of the 3rd and 4th pouch. What other findings will occur?

A

1) DiGeorge syndrome

2) Hypoparathyroidism

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23
Q

Defect in the formation of CD18 or integrin; delayed separation of the umbilical cord, recurrent cutaneous infections without pus and poor wound healing

A

Leukocyte adhesion deficiency

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24
Q

7 month old boy with oral candidasis, loose stools, broncholitis, low serum gamma-globulin level, and absent thymic shadow

A

Severe combined immunodeficiency

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25
Q

Immunodeficiency caused by insufficient production of mature B cells

A

X-linked (Bruton’s) agammaglobulinemia

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26
Q

Deficiency of immunoglobuins secondary to failed B cell differentiation

A

Common variable immunodeficiency

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27
Q

Impaired B and T cell functioning that presents as SCID but also has thrombocytopenic purpura and eczema; low IgM levels

A

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

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28
Q

What MHC molecule is found on all nucleated cells?

A

MHC class I

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29
Q

What is the structure of an MHC class I receptor?

A

1) Heavy chain

2) B2 microglboulin

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30
Q

What MHC molecule is found on antigen presenting cells?

A

MHC class II

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31
Q

What is the structure of an MHC class II receptor?

A

Consists of alpha and beta polypeptide chains

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32
Q

What is the function of MHC class I receptors

A

Present antigens to CD8 T cells

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33
Q

What is the function of MHC class II receptors?

A

Present antigen to CD4 T helper cells

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34
Q

What antigens does MHC class I present? Class II?

A

1) Virus and tumor protein; antigens processed in the cytoplasm
2) Bacterial, antigens digested by lysosomes

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35
Q

What opportunistic infx. in HIV may occur if CD4 count <200

A

Pneumocystitis jirovecii

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36
Q

What opportunistic infx. in HIV may occur if CD4 count <100

A

Toxoplasma gondii and Histoplasmosis

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37
Q

What opportunistic infx. in HIV may occur if CD4 count <50

A

Myobacterium avium and CMV

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38
Q

What cytokine is produced exclusively by lymphocytes?

A

1) IL-2

2) Produced exclusively by antigen-stimulated T lymphocytes

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39
Q

What is required for a leukocyte to undergo rolling?

A

1) P and E selectin on endothelial cells

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40
Q

What is required for tight binding of the leukocyte to the vessel wall?

A

1) ICAM on the vasculature

2) LFA-1 (integrin)

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41
Q

Leukocyte travels inbetween endothelial cells and exits blood vessel

A

Diapedesis

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42
Q

General Causes of a dry tap bone marrow aspiration

A

Fibrosis and/or hypercellularity

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43
Q

Common findings associated with a dry tap

A

ThrombocytopeniaPeripheral bloodNucleated rbcsTear drop rbcs

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44
Q

Variant of multiple myeloma in which the malignant population produces free monoclonal light chains with no associated heavy chains; light chains are small enough to be filtered by the kidneys

A

Light Chain Disease

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45
Q

What do the light chains in Light Chain disease become once they have been filtered by the kidney?

A

Bence-Jones proteins (eventually combined with Tamm-Horsfall proteins and cause cast nephropathy)

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46
Q

Most common cause of agranulocytosis

A

drug toxicity

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47
Q

What are the general causes of leukocytosis (4 total)

A
  1. Increased production in bone marrow
  2. Increased release from marrow and storages
  3. Decreased marginization
  4. Decreased extravasation into tissues
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48
Q

Common diagnoses of a dry tap aspiration

A

Metastatic carcinoma (most common)
Chronic myelogenous leukemia
Primary myelofibrosis
Hairy cell leukemia

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49
Q

Common findings associated with a dry tap

A

Thrombocytopenia
Peripheral blood
Nucleated rbcsTear drop rbcs

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50
Q

Cytological findings in Neutrophilic leukocytosis

A

Dohle bodies- blue bodies of dilated endoplasmic reticulumToxic granules (abnormal azurophilic granules)- coarse, darker than normal granules

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51
Q

What is a tingible-body macrophage

A

It is a macrophage found in chronic nonspecific lymphadenitis that is filled with nuclear debris

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52
Q

Causes of follicular hyperplasia

A

HIV, Toxoplasmosis, and Rheumatoid arthritis

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53
Q

What are features of a reactive follicular hyperplasia rather than a neoplastic cause?

A

1) Preservation of lymph node structure
2) Marked variation in the shape and size of follicles
3) Presence of mitotic figures
4) Tingible macrophages in germinal centers
5) Lack of BCL-2 expression6) Poly clonal

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54
Q

What are the different presentations of chronic lymphadenitis

A

Reticular hyperplasia- increase in the number and size of the lymphatic sinusoidsFolicular hyperplasia- increase in size of the germinal centersParacortical hyperplasia

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55
Q

What are causes of hypersegmented neutrophils (>3-4 lobes) and macro-ovalocytes

A

Megaloblastic anemia (deficiency in B12 or folate) and myelodysplastic disorder

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56
Q

Cytological findings in Neutrophilic leukocytosis

A
Dohle bodies- blue bodies of dilated endoplasmic reticulum
Toxic granules (abnormal azurophilic granules)- coarse, darker than normal granules
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57
Q

Autosomal dominant anomaly that consists of enlarged pale basophilic inclusions within neutrophils; also associated with giant platelets and thrombocytopenia

A

May-Hegglin anomaly

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58
Q

Autosomal recessive disorder that has abnormally large leuckocytic granules due to lysozyme fusion

A

Chediak-Higashi syndrome

59
Q

What are features of a reactive follicular hyperplasia rather than a neoplastic cause?

A

1) Preservation of lymph node structure
2) Marked variation in the shape and size of follicles
3) Presence of mitotic figures
4) Tingible macrophages in germinal centers
5) Lack of BCL-2 expression
6) Poly clonal

60
Q

What are the different presentations of chronic lymphadenitis

A

Reticular hyperplasia- increase in the number and size of the lymphatic sinusoids
Folicular hyperplasia- increase in size of the germinal centers
Paracortical hyperplasia

61
Q

Disease associated with genetic mucopolysaccharideoses; leukocytes appear to have azurophilic granules (resembles toxic granulation)

A

Alder-Reilly anomaly

62
Q

Disease caused by a lack of lysozomal enzymes to breakdown mucopolysaccharides

A

Mucopolysaccharideoses

63
Q

What does a Dohle body consist of?

A

It consists of remnants of free ribosomes and rough ER

64
Q

What are the reactive changes in neutrophils?

A

Toxic granules and dohle bodies

65
Q

What disease is associated with Auer rods?

A

Acute myelogenous leukemia - leukocytosis with immature cells that do not mature; assoc. with promyelocytes

66
Q

At what point is agranulocytosis a serious risk for infection?

A

<500 cells

67
Q

What is an Auer rod?

A

It is a pink/red rod shaped cytoplasmic inclusion consisting of fused lysosomal (peroxidase) granules

68
Q

How can you differentiate a Dohle body from a May- Hegglin anomaly?

A

Dohle body = toxic granulations and left shiftMay-Hegglen anomaly = thrombocytopenia and giant platelets

69
Q

Reaction of immature red and white blood cells due to abnormal infiltrates in the bone marrow

A

Leukoerythroblastic reaction

70
Q

What is the difference between a leukemoid reaction and a leukoerythroblastic recation?

A

Leukemoid = major left shift of just WBC; due to infectionLeukoerythroblastic = major left shift and immature rbcs; due to bone marrow infiltrate

71
Q

Causes of basophilic leukocytosis

A

myeloproliferative diseases (chronic myeloid leukemia)

72
Q

Causes of eosinophilic leukocytosis

A

Allergies, parasitic infection, drug reactions, Hodgkin lymphoma (increased IL-5)

73
Q

Causes of Monocytosis

A

Chronic infections, bacterial endocarditis, malaria, rickettsiosis, SLE (positive ANA) and myelodysplastic syndrome

74
Q

How can you differentiate a Dohle body from a May- Hegglin anomaly?

A

Dohle body = toxic granulations and left shift

May-Hegglen anomaly = thrombocytopenia and giant platelets

75
Q

When is pseudo- Pelger Huet anomaly observed

A

Myelodysplastic disorders and drug therapy

76
Q

What is the difference between a leukemoid reaction and a leukoerythroblastic recation?

A

Leukemoid = major left shift of just WBC; due to infection

Leukoerythroblastic = major left shift and immature rbcs; due to bone marrow infiltrate

77
Q

Lymphocytes with fine, hair-like cytoplasmic projections or irregular pseudopods and a round/folded nucleus

A

Hairy cells (found only in hairy cell leukemia)

78
Q

Fragile lymphocytes tat are disrupted in the process of making a smear; NOT DIAGNOSTIC, associated with chronic lymphocytic leukemia

A

Smudge cells

79
Q

What is the differential diagnosis for lymphadenopathy?

A

1) Infection (common, HIV, EBV, Bartonella)
2) Sarcoidosis
3) Cancer
4) Lymphoma
5) Leukemia

80
Q

When are reactive neutrophils observed

A

Leukemoid reaction and neutrophilia

81
Q

What treatment is used for pt. that suffer neutropenia due to a myelosuppressive chemotherapy?

A

CSF-GM and CSF-G

82
Q

Causes of lymphopenia?

A

1) immunodeficiency
2) high cortisol state
3) autoimmune destruction (lupus)
4) whole body radiation (lymphocytes are most sensitive)

83
Q

What are the pathologic features of infection mononucleosis

A

1) Lymphocytosis of CD8 T-cells (atypical cells)
2) Splenomegaly (increased in the periarterial lymphatic sheath (PALS)
3) Hyperplasia of the paracortex of lymph nodes

84
Q

What is T-cell acute lymphoblastic lymphoma associated with?

A

Teenagers and a thymic mass

85
Q

Common inherited aplastic anemia that has assoicated findings in the skin, skeleton, CNS, or genituourinary tract; Increased MCV

A

Fanconi anemia

86
Q

Disease due to a congenital deletion of chromosome 22 that results in failure to develop 3rd and 4th pharyngeal pouches

A

DiGeorge syndrome

87
Q

What are pt. with DiGeorge syndrome at risk for?

A

1) Viral and fungal infections due to decreased T cells
2) Hypocalcemia leading to seizures
3) Cardiac defects

88
Q

Disease that has the development of obliterative marrow fibrosis

A

Primary myelofibrosis

89
Q

What is the result of C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency?

A

1) Hereditary angioedema

90
Q

What is the result of C3 deficiency?

A

1) Severe recurrent pyogenic sinus and respiratory infections; increased susceptibility to Type III hypersensitivity reactions

91
Q

What infection is at an increased risk due to C5-C9 (MAC complex) deficiency?

A

Neisseria bacteremia

92
Q

Type I hypersensitivity reaction against plasma proteins in transfused blood

A

Allergic reactions

93
Q

Blood had a blood transfusion and now has urticaria, pruritus, wheezing, fever. What type of blood transfusion reaction is this?

A

Allergic reaction

94
Q

Type II hypersensitivty reaction where host’s antibodies against donor HLA antigens and leukocytes occurs. Pt has fever, headache, chills and flushing

A

Febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reaction

95
Q

Type II hypersensitivity reaction with intravascular hemolysis has occurred due to ABO blood group incompatibility

A

Acute hemolytic transfusion reaction

96
Q

+ANA, Anti dsDNA, Anti-smith indicates

97
Q

+ ANA and Antihistone

A

Drug induced Lupus

98
Q

+ anti CCP

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

99
Q

+ anticentromere

A

CREST syndrome

100
Q

+ Anti-Scl-70

A

Diffuse scleroderma

101
Q

+ AMA

A

Primary biliary cholangitis

102
Q

+ Anti-Ro and Anti-La

A

Sjogren’s syndorme

103
Q

+ Anti-Jo1-1

A

Polymyositis

104
Q

What is the result of no Tcells?

A

1) Sepsis
2) Increased viral infection
3) Candida and PCP
More fungal and viral

105
Q

What is the result of no Bcells?

A

1) Infection with encapsulated organisms

2) Increased risk of Giardia

106
Q

What is the results of no complement system?

A

Increased risk for Neisseria

107
Q

X linked disease of the BTK gene; no B cell maturation

A

Bruton’s Agammaglobulinemia

108
Q

Most common pirmary immunodefieicny

A

Selective IgA deficiency

109
Q

Pt presents with recurrent bacterial infections after 6 months from birth; decreased number of B cells and antiboides of all classes

A

Bruton’s Agammaglobulinemia (x-linked)

110
Q

What type of infections are more common in Bruton’s Agammaglobulinemia?

A

1) Infections by capsular organisms (Strep. pneumo, H. influenzae, Neisseria, E. coli, Salmonella, Klebsiela, S. agalactae)

111
Q

What are common finidngs of a pt. with selective IgA deficiency?

A

1) Majority asymptomatic
2) Sinopulmonary infections
3) GI infections
4) Anaphylaxis to IgA containg blood products

112
Q

What disease is associated with an anaphylactic response normal blood transfusion

A

IgA deficiency

113
Q

Disease caused by a defect in B cell maturation; normal B cells, decreased plasma cells

A

Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID)

114
Q

What is the result of a IL-12 receptor deficiency

A

Decreased TH1 response; disseminated myobacterial infection

115
Q

Pt. presents with coarse facies, cold staphylococcal abscesses, retained primary teeth, Increased IgE, and dermatologic problems

A

Job’s syndrome (Hyper IgE syndrome)

116
Q

What is the presentation of Hyper IgE syndrome

A

think: FATED
1) Facies are coarse
2) Abscessess on skin
3) Teeth from childhood retained
4) increased IgE
5) Dermatologic findings

117
Q

What is the result of an adenosine deaminase deficiency

118
Q

What is the results of a defective IL-2 receptor?

119
Q

Pt. presents with failure to thrive, chronic diarrhea, thrush, recurrent viral, fungal and protozoal infections; absence of thymic shadow, germinal centers, and B cells

A

Severe combined immunodeficiency

120
Q

Defect in ATM

A

Ataxia-telangiectasia

121
Q

Pt. presents with cerebellar defects, spider angiomas, and IgA deficiency

A

Ataxia-telangiectasia

122
Q

Defective CD40L on helper T cells

A

Hyper IgM syndrome

remember: CD40L on T cell is important in the process of isotype switching

123
Q

What are complications of a pt. with Hyper IgM syndrome

A

Severe pyogenic infections early in life

124
Q

Pt. presents with Thrombocytipenic purpura, Infections, and eczema

A

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome (x-linked)

125
Q

What are immunoglobulin levels in Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

A

Increased IgE and IgA, Decreased IgM

126
Q

Giant granules in neutrophils

A

Chediak-Higashi syndrome

127
Q

What are the findings of a hyperacute transplant rejection?

A

1) Occlusion of graft vessicles, causing ischemia and necrosis

128
Q

What type of hypersensitivity is hyper acute transplant rejection?

A

1) Type II

129
Q

What are the findings of an acute transplant rejection?

A

1) Vasculitis of graft vessels with dense intersitital lymphocytic infiltrate

130
Q

What are the findings of a chronic transplant rejection?

A

1) Obliterative vascular fibrosis

2) Fibrosis of the graft tissue and blood vessels

131
Q

What are the findings of a graft versus host transplant rejection?

A

1) Maculopapular rash
2) Jaundice
3) Hepatosplenomegally
4) Diarrhea

132
Q

What do you have to be aware of when a pt. is given several transfusions of blood?

A

1) hypocalcemia

2) Caused by citrate in blood that chelates with calcium and magnesium

133
Q

What cytokine is a major factor in the manifestation of the paraneoplastic disorder of cachexia

134
Q

Immune complex disease in which antibodies to the foreign proteins are produced. Immune complexes form and are deposited in membranes, where they fix complement.

A

Serum Sickness

135
Q

How long does it take to get serum sickness

A

5-10 days after antigen exposure

136
Q

Local subacute reaction that occurs with intradermal injection of antigen; characterized by edema necrosis, and activation of complement

A

Arthus reaction

137
Q

How does a pt. who has serum sickness present?

A

Fever, urticaria, arthalgias, proteinuria, and lypmphadenopathy 5-10 days after antigen exposure

138
Q

What causes serum sickness?

139
Q

What is the results of serum sickness and arthus reaction?

A

Decreased complement (serum C3 level)

140
Q

What type of hypersensitivity reaction is serum sickness?

141
Q

Treatment for Hairy cell leukemia?

A

Cladribine (adenosine analog resistant to adensoine deaminase)

142
Q

What is a marker used to determine anaphylaxis?

A

Tryptase (released from degranulated mast cells)

143
Q

How does degranulation of mast cells occur?

A

Results from IgE bound to its antigen that forms an aggregation; mast cells bind to the Fc portion on the mast cell surface which produces granulation