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MTAP 2 > Immunology > Flashcards

Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

inhalation of dried
powder of smallpox lesions.

a. vaccination
b. Insuffation
c. Variolation
d. inoculation

A

Insuffation

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2
Q
  • Father of Immunology
  • Was also involved in
    microbiology.
  • Created the first live attenuated
    vaccine for chicken cholera
    and anthrax vaccine.
  • Involved in the development of
    the rabies vaccine.

a. Edward Jenner
b.Lady Mary Wortley Montagu
c.Hacckel
d.Louis Pasteur

A

Louis Pasteur

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3
Q

Variolation is the immunization
against smallpox done through
insuffation. Lady Mary Wortley Montagu contributed the variolation.

a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. only 2nd statement is true
d. only 1st statement is true

A

only 2nd statement is true

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4
Q

First person who observed the
process of phagocytosis (cell
eating)

a. Hacckel
b. Edelman and Porter
c. Gallo and Montagier
d. Ellie Metchnikoff

A

Hacckel

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5
Q

Worked on Delayed Type
Hypersensitivity. (Type IV
Hypersensitivity)

a. Portier and Richet
b. Koch
c. Marrack
d. Edelman and Porter

A

Koch

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6
Q

choose the correct pair

a. Hybridoma Technology: Jerne and Burnet
b. Th1 and Th2 Model: Ramsdell
c. Toll Like Receptors: Hoffman and Beutler
d. HPV Vaccine: Allison

A

Toll Like Receptors: Hoffman and Beutler

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7
Q

choose correct pair

a. Portier and Richet; (Type IV
Hypersensitivity)
b. Tonegawa;Antibody Molecule
c. Gallo and Montagier;study of syphilis
d.Marrack;Lattice Theory of Ag-Ab
Binding

A

Marrack;Lattice Theory of Ag-Ab
Binding

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8
Q

choose incorrect pair

a. Variolation;Lady Mary Wortley Montagu
b. TCR;Allison
c. Ramsdell;HPV Vaccine
d.Mossman;Th1 and Th2 Model

A

Ramsdell;HPV Vaccine

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9
Q

True about innate immunity

  1. No immunologic memory
  2. Response is rapid and specific
  3. PAMPs and DAMPs are recognized
  4. does not need prior exposure to activate

a. 1,2,3,4
b. 1,2,3
c. 1,3,4
d. 1,3

A

1,3,4

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10
Q

true about adaptive immune

  1. has immunologic memory
  2. slow but specific response
  3. Anamnestic
  4. No prior exposure is needed to activate

a. 1,2,3,4
b. 1,2,3
c. 1,2
d. 1,2,4

A

1,2,3

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11
Q

prevent the growth of pathogens

a. Lysozymes
b. stomach acidity
c.Normal flora
d. Ciliated cells

A

stomach acidity

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12
Q

true or false
If the innate immunity recognizes an antigen again, the second response would be faster.

A

false; should be acquired immunity

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13
Q

Cellular Component that is called sustained phagocytosis

a. Monocytes
b. Macrophages
c. Lymphocytes
d. Neutrophils

A

Monocytes

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14
Q

They are able to produce cytokines which are chemical signals involved
in the transmission or signaling of other cells

a. Monocytes
b. Macrophages
c. Lymphocytes
d. Neutrophils

A

Macrophages

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15
Q

→ 1
st immune cells that go to the site of injury
→ Coming from the blood vessels, they would go to the tissues then
become phagocytic
→ Short lifespan

a. Monocytes
b. Macrophages
c. Lymphocytes
d. Neutrophils

A

Neutrophils

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16
Q

Receptors needed for NK cells

a. CD16 and CD56
b. CD26 and CD50
c. CD5 and CD 16
d. CD6 and CD5

A

CD16 and CD5

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17
Q

→ They are capable of antigen presentation
→ Professional antigen presenting cells (APC)
→ They are also involved in the adaptive immune response
→ Have a large amount of MHC Class II molecules

a. Mast cells
b. T cells
c. NK cells
d. Dendritic cells

A

Dendritic cells

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18
Q

Humoral Components

  1. Complement
  2. Interferon
  3. Phagosome
  4. Lysozyme

a. 1,2,3,4
b. 2,3,4
c. 1,3,4
d. 1,2,4

A

1,2,4

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19
Q

true or false
Macrophages and Dendritic cells are involved in innate and adaptive immune
response

A

true

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20
Q

TLR2 for

a. gram neg bacteria
b. gram pos bacteria
c. dsRNA
d. ssRNA

A

gram pos bacteria

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21
Q

TLR3

a. gram neg bacteria
b. gram pos bacteria
c. dsRNA
d. ssRNA

A

dsRNA

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22
Q

TLR7
a. gram neg bacteria
b. gram pos bacteria
c. dsRNA
d. ssRNA

A

ssRNA

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23
Q

LPS (endotoxin)
a.TLR1
b. TLR4
c. TLR2
d. TLR3

A

TLR4

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24
Q

lipopeptides of Mycobacteria

a.TLR1
b. TLR4
c. TLR2
d. TLR3

A

TLR1

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25
Q

dsDNA

a. TLR3
b. TLR7
c. TLR8
d. TLR9

A

TLR9

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26
Q

Phagocytosis step wherein Microorganism is completely surrounded by a part of the cell
membrane

a. granule contact
b. adherence
c. engulfment
d. formation of phagosome

A

formation of phagosome

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27
Q

Outflowing of cytoplasm to surround the microorganism
a. granule contact
b. adherence
c. engulfment
d. formation of phagosome

A

engulfment

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28
Q

Physical contact between the phagocytic cell and the microorganism
occurs, aided by opsonins

a. granule contact
b. adherence
c. engulfment
d. formation of phagosome

A

adherence

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29
Q

Chemotaxins:

a. C3b, C4b, C5b
b. C2b, C3b, C4b
c. C5a, C5b, C6, C7
d. C5a, C3b, C6, C5b

A

C5a, C5b, C6, C7

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30
Q

Opsonins:

a. C3b, C4b, C5b
b. C2b, C3b, C4b
c. C5a, C5b, C6, C7
d. C5a, C3b, C6, C5b

A

C3b, C4b, C5b

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31
Q

Buckley Syndrome has presence of stomatitis. Lazy Leukocyte Syndrome is seen in patients with atopic dermatitis

a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. only 2nd statement is true
d. only 1st statement is true

A

both statements are false

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32
Q

true about Job’s Syndrome

  1. also known as Buckley Syndrome
  2. Hyper IgE syndrome
  3. increased production of IFN-gamma by T
    cells
    4.seen in patients with recurrent infections (stomatitis)

a. 1,3
b. 2,3
c. 1,2
d. 3, 4

A

1,2

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33
Q

Plasma proteins that are increased rapidly in response to innate inflammation

a. IFN
b. APR
c. TLR
d. DAMPs

A

APR

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34
Q

B lymphocytes is part of the cell mediated immunity. Cell Mediated Immunity is involved in cell lysis and apoptosis

a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. only 2nd statement is true
d. only 1st statement is true

A

only 2nd statement is true

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35
Q

Humoral Immunity

  1. B lymphocytes
  2. Extracellular
    pathogens
  3. Antibodies
  4. MOA: Opsonization,
    Neutralization, phagocytose pathogen

a. 1,2,3
b. 1,2,4
c. 1,3,4
d. 1,2,3,4

A

1,2,3,4

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36
Q

Immune cells
involved in Humoral Immunity

a. B lymphocytes
b. T lymphocytes

A

B lymphocytes

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37
Q

Percentage of T lymphocytes in the blood

a. 10-15%
b. 75-85%
c. 85-95%
d. 20-55%

A

75-85%

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38
Q

Percentage of B lymphocytes in the blood

a. 10-15%
b. 75-85%
c. 85-95%
d. 20-55%

A

10-15%

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39
Q

Surface markers
present in T lymphocytes

a. CD5,CD3,CD4,CD6
b.CD1,CD3,CD6,CD8
c. CD2,CD3,CD4,CD8
d. CD3,CD2,CD4,CD8

A

CD2,CD3,CD4,CD8

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40
Q

B lymphocytes is identified by

a. Rosette formation
b. Antibodies
c. Extracellular microbes
d. Surface IgM and IgD

A

Surface IgM and IgD

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41
Q

Found on all T cells;
associated with T-cell
antigen receptor. Has 20-28KD

a. CD4
b. CD5
c. CD3
d. CD8

A

CD3

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42
Q

Identifies T helper cells;
also found on most T
regulatory cells. Has 55KD

a. CD4
b. CD5
c. CD3
d. CD8

A

CD4

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43
Q

Low affinity Fc receptor
for antibody; mediates
phagocytosis

CD16
CD6
CD8
CD18

A

CD16

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44
Q

Part of B-cell coreceptor;
regulates B-cell
development and
activation

CD21
CD19
CD16
CD56

A

CD19

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45
Q

Receptor for complement
component C3d; part of
B-cell coreceptor with
CD19

CD15
CD19
CD16
CD56

A

CD21

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46
Q

crucial for differentiation and
growth of T cell

a.Pro-T/Double Negative
Thymocytes
b. Pre-T/ Double Positive
Thymocytes
c. Pre-T/ Double Positive
Thymocytes

A

Pro-T/Double Negative
Thymocytes

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47
Q

Able to recognize
Peptides complexed with
MHC-1 molecules
Capable of direct killing

a. T regulatory
b. T helper
c. T cytotoxic

A

T cytotoxic

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48
Q

Suppressor/Regulatory,
maintains tolerance to
self-antigens.
Inhibits Th and Tc
activation

a. T regulatory
b. T helper
c. T cytotoxic

A

a. T regulatory

49
Q

Enhance functions of
other cells by secretion
cytokines

a. T regulatory
b. T helper
c. T cytotoxic

A

T helper

50
Q

Pro-B cells

a. CD19, CD45R
b. CD25
c. CD19+ , CD45R
d. CD27, CD138, CD38

A

CD19+ , CD45R

51
Q

Plasma cells

a. CD19, CD45R
b. CD25
c. CD19+ , CD45R
d. CD27, CD138, CD38

A

d. CD27, CD138, CD38

52
Q

Activated B cells

a. CD19, CD45R
b. CD25
c. CD19+ , CD45R
d. CD27, CD138, CD38

A

CD25

53
Q

Pre- B cells
a. CD19, CD45R
b. CD25
c. CD19+ , CD45R
d. CD27, CD138, CD38

A

CD19, CD45R

54
Q

true or false
Phytohaemagglutinin and Concanavalin A both acts upon
T cells only

A

true

55
Q

true or false
Lipopolyssacharide acts upon
T cells only

A

false

56
Q

true or false
Pokeweed mitigen acts upon
T and B cells

A

true

57
Q

Forward LS assess the cells size
Side LS assess the cells granularity

a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. only 2nd statement is true
d. only 1st statement is true

A

both statements are true

58
Q

Sheep RBC would surround the T- cells forming rosette shape. T-cell has the CD4 marker that would bind to the receptor of the sheep RBC

a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. only 2nd statement is true
d. only 1st statement is true

A

only 1st statement is true

59
Q

Used for washing, suspending, and diluting the fluid for the procedure

a. Nylon Wool
b. RPMI- 1640
c. Ficoll Hypaque
d. Hanks PBS

A

Hanks PBS

60
Q

Culture medium
a. Nylon Wool
b. RPMI- 1640
c. Ficoll Hypaque
d. Hanks PBS

A

RPMI- 1640

61
Q

Filters blood
Places where contact
between T cells,
antigens, and B cells
occur

a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary

A

secondary

62
Q

Produces hematopoietic
stem cells; maturation
of B and NK cells

a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary

A

a. primary

63
Q

Histologic marker for thymus

a. Hassall’s corpuscles
b. Wagon wheel
appearance
c. Alexin
d. Germinal
Center of Fleming

A

Hassall’s corpuscles

64
Q

→ PALS (Periarteriolar Lymphoid Sheath)-contains T cells.
→ Primary follicle
→ Marginal Zone

a. medulla
b. cortex
c. red pulp
d. white pulp

A

white pulp

65
Q

Inflammatory, can induce fever, pyrogenic.

a. TNF-a
b. TGF-B
c. IL-6:
d. IL-1B

A

IL-1B

66
Q

Involved in Inflammation, initiation of acute-phase response,
and death of the tumor cells.

a. TNF-a
b. TGF-B
c. IL-6:
d. IL-1B

A

TNF-a

67
Q

involved in the activation of T CELLS AND B CELLS. Involved
in the CRP.

a. TNF-a
b. TGF-B
c. IL-6
d. IL-1B

A

IL-6

68
Q

Anti-inflammatory. This inhibits T cells and B cells
proliferation. It would also inhibit macrophages

a. TNF-a
b. TGF-B
c. IL-6
d. IL-1B

A

TGF-B

69
Q

Promotes the proliferation of your T and B Cells

a. IL-1
b. IL-2
c. IL-4
d. IL-10

A

IL-2

70
Q

Anti-inflammatory since it can inhibit interferon-gamma

a. IL-1
b. IL-2
c. IL-4
d. IL-10

A

IL-10

71
Q

Involves the promotion of TH2 response and class switching to
IgE.

a. IL-1
b. IL-2
c. IL-4
d. IL-10

A

IL-4

72
Q

Promotes Recruitment of Immune cells such as
neutrophils towards the injured area.

a. Opsonization
b. Chemotaxins
c. Phagocytosis
d. Lysis

A

Chemotaxins

73
Q

Complement For Immune adherence

a. C2b and C3b
b. C3b only
c. C2b only

A

C3b only

74
Q

Complement For Kinin activator

a. C2b and C3b
b. C3b only
c. C2b only

A

C2b only

75
Q

Complement For Anaphylatoxins

a. C3b, C4b, C5b
b. C4b, C1
c. C5b-C9
d. C3a, C4a, C5a

A

C3a, C4a, C5a

76
Q

Opsonins
a. C3b, C4b, C5b
b. C4b, C1
c. C5b-C9
d. C3a, C4a, C5a

A

C3b, C4b, C5b

77
Q

virus neutralization

a. C3b, C4b, C5b
b. C4b, C1
c. C5b-C9
d. C3a, C4a, C5a

A

C4b, C1

78
Q

cell lysis

a. C3b, C4b, C5b
b. C4b, C1
c. C5b-C9
d. C3a, C4a, C5a

A

C5b-C9

79
Q

RECOGNITION
UNITS for Classical complement pathway

a.C3, Factor B,
Factor D
b. C1q, C1r, C1s
c. MBP, MASP-1,
MASP-2

A

C1q, C1r, C1s

80
Q

TRUE OR FALSE
Presence of mannose groups present on the microbial cell activate lectin
pathway

A

TRUE

81
Q

C5
CONVERTASE FOR CLASSICAL PATHWAY

a. C4B2a3b
b. C4b2a3b
c. C4A2Bb3a
d. C4b2B3a

A

C4b2a3b

82
Q

C5
CONVERTASE alternative p
pathway

a. C3bBb3b
b. C4b2a3b

A

C3bBb3b

83
Q

MOLECULAR
WEIGHT - 84
CONCENTRATION
(mg/mL) - 500
Prevents
attachment
of C5b67
complex to
cell
membranes

a. C4BP
b. Factor H
c. C1-inhibitor
d. S protein

A

S protein

84
Q

Cofactor with
I to inactivate
C3b;
prevents
binding of B
to C3b

a. C4BP
b. Factor H
c. C1-inhibitor
d. S protein

A

Factor H

85
Q

Cleaves C3b
and C4b

a. C4BP
b. Factor H
c. Factor I
d. S protein

A

Factor I

86
Q

Graves’ disease and DM type 1

a. HLA- DR4
b. HLA- DR3
c. HLA- B8
d. HLA- B27

A

HLA- B8

87
Q

Rheumatoid Arthritis, DM type 1, pemphigus vulgaris
a. HLA- DR4
b. HLA- DR3
c. HLA- B8
d. HLA- B27

A

HLA- DR4

88
Q

Ankylosing Spondylitis; Reiter’
syndrome
a. HLA- DR4
b. HLA- DR3
c. HLA- B8
d. HLA- B27

A

HLA- B27

89
Q

SLE, Multiple Sclerosis,
Myasthenia Gravis, Sjorgen
syndrome, DM type 1

a. HLA- DR4
b. HLA- DR3
c. HLA- B8
d. HLA- B27

A

HLA- DR3

90
Q

Chronic Lymphatic Leukemia;
Kaposi’s sarcoma

a. HLA- DR5
b. HLA- DR3
c. HLA- B8
d. HLA- B27

A

HLA- DR5

91
Q

SLE, Multiple Sclerosis,
Hashimoto Disease, Myasthenia
Gravis

a. HLA- DR1
b. HLA- DR3
c. HLA- DR2
d. HLA- DR4

A

HLA- DR2

92
Q

Domains on the constant regions FOR attachment to phagocyte

a. CH3
b. CH2
c. CH1
d. Fab

A

CH3

93
Q

Domains on the constant regions for the binding site of C1q

a. CH3
b. CH2
c. CH1
d. Fab

A

CH2

94
Q

true about Pepsin
1. cut Ig into 3 fragments
2. Cuts above the hinge region
3. 2 Fab and 1 Fc

a. All of the above
b. 1,2
c. 2,3
d. None of the above

A

None of the above

95
Q

Molecular
weight IgM

a. 160,000
b. 900,000
c. 180,000
d.150,000

A

900,000

96
Q

Molecular
weight IgA

a. 160,000
b. 900,000
c. 180,000
d.150,000

A

160,000

97
Q

Molecular
weight IgE

a. 160,000
b. 900,000
c. 190,000
d.150,000

A

190,000

98
Q

Molecular
weight IgG

a. 160,000
b. 900,000
c. 190,000
d.150,000

A

150,000

99
Q

Molecular
weight IgD

a. 180,000
b. 900,000
c. 190,000
d.150,000

A

180,000

100
Q

Sedimentation
coefficient for IgG, IgA, IgD

a. 6S
b. 7S
c. 8S
d. 9S

A

7S

101
Q

has longest half life

a. IgA
b. IgM
c. IgG
d. IgE

A

IgG

102
Q

Number of constant
domains (H
chain) for IgG, IgA, IgD

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5

A

3

103
Q

can cross placenta

a. IgA
b. IgM
c. IgG
d. IgE

A

IgG

104
Q

can complement fixation

a. IgA and IgG
b. IgM and IgE
c. IgG and IgM
d. IgE and IgD

A

IgG and IgM

105
Q

least Percent of total
immunoglobulin
a. IgA
b. IgD
c. IgG
d. IgE

A

IgD

106
Q

The most abundant antibody in the serum

a. IgA
b. IgD
c. IgG
d. IgE

A

IgG

107
Q

IgG subclass that cannot cross placenta

a. IgG1
b. IgG2
c. IgG3
d. IgG4

A

IgG2

108
Q

IgG subclass that cannot fix complement

a. IgG1
b. IgG2
c. IgG3
d. IgG4

A

IgG4

109
Q

Immunoregulator Membrane Ig

a. IgA
b. IgD
c. IgG
d. IgE

A

IgD

110
Q

Heat-labile ; involved in atopic/allergic
reactions

a. IgA
b. IgD
c. IgG
d. IgE

A

IgE

111
Q

Provides immunity to newborn. Opsonization
of toxins and viruses

a. IgA
b. IgD
c. IgG
d. IgE

A

IgG

112
Q

Most primitive
Monomer – surface Ig Pentamer
Agglutination Opsonization and Neutralization

a. IgM
b. IgD
c. IgG
d. IgE

A

IgM

113
Q

Immuno-competent cells have surface receptors that are capable of
reacting with antigens, which have complementary side chains to which
the specific antigen fit complementarily.

A. Side chain theory
B. Clonal Selection Theory

A

Side chain theory

114
Q

Lymphocytes are preprogrammed to produce one type of Ig, and that a
particular cell capable of responding to it, causing them to proliferate.

A. Side chain theory
B. Clonal Selection Theory

A

Clonal Selection Theory

115
Q

TRUE OR FALSE
There is no class switching in T-cell receptor.

A

TRUE

116
Q

true or false
T-cell receptor has a ligand called Native epitope

A

false

117
Q

Signaling
peptide for T-cell receptor.

a. CD3
b. CD4
c. CD5
d. CD8

A

CD3

118
Q

T-cell receptor is monovalent. B-cell receptor is bivalent

a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. only 2nd statement is true
d. only 1st statement is true

A

both statements are true

119
Q

IgG subclass Most effective C’ activation

A

MTAP 2 (1 decks)

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