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Lab Tech 2 > Immunology > Flashcards

Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

non specific/innate immunity

A

the body fights the invader the same way regardless of what is causing the problem, hence the term “non-specific”

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2
Q

Commensal bacteria

A

good bacteria

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3
Q

5 signs inflammation

A 
Redness
Swelling
Pain
Heat
Loss of function
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4
Q

monocytes and macrophages

A

Monocytes - Follow neutrophils; ingest and destroy antigens
Monocytes in blood → Macrophages in tissue
Macrophages - Make up the mononuclear phagocytic system

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5
Q

natural killer cells and interferons

A

NK Cells - Lymphocytes that recognize and destroy host cells infected with viruses; tumors w/o antibodies
Interferons - Prevent viral replication

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6
Q

complement and opsonization

A

Complement system - Complement cascade with three pathways, all three pathways catalyze a series of reactions that have numerous effects
Opsonization - Binding of complement to the antigen-antibody complex, a mechanism of the adaptive immune system

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7
Q

specific immunity

A

These two branches of immunity work to respond specifically based on the type of pathogen present. With specific immunity, we use the term
antigen-a toxin or other foreign substance that induces an immune response in the body, especially the production of antibodies.

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8
Q

B lymphocytes

A

mature in the: Bone marrow

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9
Q

T lymphocytes

A

mature in the: Thymus gland

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10
Q

humoral immune system

A

An immune response that involves the production of specific antibodies. B-lymphocytes differentiate into Plasma cells → produce antibodies

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11
Q

helper T cells

A

Help the phagocytes (antigen presenting cells)

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12
Q

antigen

A

any substance that are capable of generating a response from the immune system (shapes are called epitopes)

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13
Q

antibody

A

(Immunoglobulins) are protein molecules that consist of two pairs of polypeptide chains configured in a Y shape. 2 variable regions and 1 constant region. Variable regions bind to antigen. Constant region: unique function of different antibody classes.

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14
Q

effector cells

A

cell of immune system that performs specific functions to destroy foreign antigens.

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15
Q

lymphocyte maturation

A
  1. Lymphoblast
  2. Prolymphocyte
  3. Mature Lymphocyte
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16
Q

IgM

A

first antibody type produced, large molecule - (5% of circulating immunoglobulins); high-titer, low-avidity

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17
Q

IgG

A

most abundant (75% of circulating immunoglobulins) -> second and subsequent infections - neutralize microbes and toxins, mark for phagocytosis, activate complement, maternal antibodies; low-titer, high-avidity

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18
Q

IgE

A

allergies, anaphylaxis, eosinophils, and parasites.

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19
Q

IgA

A

(20% of circulating immunoglobulins) mucosal antibodies.

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20
Q

IgD

A

B-lymphocytes surface antigen receptor (some species)

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21
Q

Immunologic tolerence

A

The ability of the immune system to discriminate between self and non-self (when it gets out of control → autoimmune diseases)

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22
Q

negative selection

A

When naive lymphocytes are destroyed by apoptosis, the immune system is in effect selecting for the beneficial lymphocytes that have receptors for foreign antigens and eliminating the self lymphocytes that would cause self-destruction. It takes place in the bone marrow, thymus, and peripheral lymphoid tissues.

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23
Q

active immunity

A

Animals become resistant by developing antibodies either from exposure to the disease or by immunization

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24
Q

immunization

A

Animals become actively resistant to disease by having the disease and developing antibodies or by being vaccinated or immunized, in which case they also develop their own antibodies

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25
Q

attenuated

A

(weakened but still alive). Attenuated vaccines normally cause a longer-lasting and more potent immune response. In very rare cases, they have caused the disease

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26
Q

inactivated

A

(killed) Generally safer and have less ability to cause disease, although vaccine-associated sarcomas in cats have been an issue.

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27
Q

DNA vaccines

A

Involve the direct introduction into the body tissues of a sequence of DNA representing an antigen to which an immune system response is desired.
Attenuated vaccines normally cause a longer-lasting and more potent immune response. Inactivated vaccines are generally safer and have less ability to cause disease, although vaccine-associated sarcomas in cats have been an issue.

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28
Q

sample handling and collection

A

Immunoassays require which samples? Serum

What is the most practical method of collection? Vacutainer system

How long is the clot allowed to sit on the blood sample? 20 to 30 minutes

At what speed and for how long do you centrifuge a serum sample? 1500 rpm for 10 minutes

What can be done if there is little serum that has separated? “Rimming” the tube with a wooden applicator stick to loosen the clot

Can serum and plasma be frozen? Yes

29
Q

sensitivity

A

Ability to correctly identify all animals that are truly positive for a given reaction procedure (how much protein (antigen/antibody) needs to be present for the test to show positive)

30
Q

specificity

A

Measures the number of false positives produced with a given reaction procedure (are there any other antigens/antibodies that have cross-reactivity because they are so similar)

31
Q

ELISA

A

Accurate way to detect antigen in the body OR antibodies in serum

ANTIGEN test contains monoclonal antibodies
ANTIBODY test contains the antigen
IF antigen-antibody complexes form - color change = positive

32
Q

CELISA

A

Equine Infectious Anemia (EIA) test

ANTIGEN test only
The more antigen present, the more color change you’ll see

33
Q

Latex Agglutination

A

Bovine brucellosis

If serum contains corresponding antibody, the formation of antibody-antigen complexes causes agglutination
If no antibody is present , the mixture of latex and serum will remain evenly dispersed

34
Q

Rapid Immunomigration (RIM) and Immunochromatography

A

Similar to ELISA that if antigen-antibody complexes form, you see a color change

Heartworm and other tests

Different from ELISA - no diluent needed - just the sample
Instead of an (only an) enzyme, the method of color change is either:
Colloidal gold
Enzyme
Agglutinated latex particles

As antigen-antibody complexes pass over, the color changes

35
Q

antigen-antibody reaction

A

A mismatched transfusion given to an animal results in antibodies forming against the RBC antigen in the transfused sample.

36
Q

blood group antigens

A

The specific red blood cell markers in an individual animal

37
Q

crossmatch cats

A

Neonatal isoerythrolysis can occur in type A or AB kittens if the queen is type B. If breeding a type A cat with a B queen, is it important to test blood types, and A and AB kittens will have to be bottle fed if the queen is type B.

38
Q

clinically significant DEA groups

A

DEA 1 and DEA 7

39
Q

DEA+ DEA- blood transfusion

A

If a DEA-1.1- dog has previously received a transfusion from a DEA-1.1+ dog and receives another a severe reaction can occur. This is because mismatched DEA-1 elicits the greatest antigen response of all DEA types

40
Q

cat blood types

A

A blood – Found in the majority of cats in the U.S.; Have weak anti-B antibodies.
B blood – Found in certain purebred breeds; Have strong anti-A antibodies.
AB blood – Few cats have this blood type.

41
Q

neonatal isoerythrolysis

A

Type A and type AB kittens have naturally occuring anti-A antibodies from type B queen

42
Q

horse crossmatching

A

Transfusion reactions are commonly fatal

43
Q

mare-foal incompatability

A

Test that detects the presence of antibodies in mare serum (or colostrum) to foal erythrocytes to confirm or prevent neonatal isoerythrolysis.

44
Q

tube method

A

Requires many steps
Use whole blood sample (EDTA, heparin, or acid-citrate-dextrose)
Needs antibodies for each type of potential reaction
Observed macro/microscopically for evidence of hemolysis or agglutination
Brief description - Centrifuge blood; remove plasma and buffy coat; wash RBCs 3x in saline solution, centrifuge, resuspend; distribute RBC suspension into as many tubes needed for the number of blood type antisera being tested; Add 0.1mL antisera into tube; Incubate tubes (15 min room temp); Centrifuge (15 sec, 1000 g); Examine micro/macroscopically

45
Q

card agglutination test

A

Available for many species; rapid, accurate
Uses whole blood sample (EDTA)
Tests DEA 1 +/-, or A, B, and AB (no mixing patient/recipient)

46
Q

Immunochromatographic Assay

A

color change for antigen type

47
Q

crossmatching

A

Mix 2 samples together for compatibility
Major - Serum from recipient is added to RBCs from donor
Minor - Serum from donor is added to RBCs from recipient

48
Q

grading crossmatch reactions

A

Grade 0: No evidence of agglutination or hemolysis
Grade 1: Many small agglutinates and some free cells
Grade 2: Large agglutinates and smaller clumps of cells
Grade 3: Many large agglutinates
Grade 4: Solid aggregate of cells

49
Q

allergic reactions

A

Allergens – Substance that causes an allergic reaction
Urticaria – Hives
Wheals – Swelling on the surface of the skin - red welts.
Angioedema – Edema of the dermis and subcutaneous tissues

50
Q

antibodies during allergic reactions

A

IgE, basophils, and mast cells

51
Q

intradermal testing

A

Hair is shaved on the lateral thorax - 2cm spacing use felt-tip marker to mark injection sites - 26g needle to inject 0.05mL of specifically selected antigens (based on patient Hx and location) - evaluate sites at 15 and 30 minutes

Positive control: histamine
Negative control: saline

52
Q

positive and hypersensitive reactions

A

Positive reaction? A raised welt that indicates the animal is allergic to the antigen

Hypersensitivity reactions? Why? Urticaria (hives), wheals, or angioedema may be present if the dog has allergies to more than one allergen

53
Q

false negative reactions

A
  • Subq injections
  • Too little allergen
  • Drug interference (glucocorticoids, antihistamines, tranquilizers, progestational compounds, any drugs that lower blood pressure)
  • Anergy (testing during peak hypersensitivity reaction)
  • Inherent host factors
  • Endoparasitism or ectoparasitism
  • Off-season testing (testing more than 1-2 months after clinical signs have disappeared
  • Histamine “hyporeactivity”
54
Q

false positive reactions

A
  • Irritant test allergens (especially those that contain glycerin; house dust, feathers, wool, old, and all food preparations)
  • Contaminated test allergens (bacteria; fungi)
  • Skin-sensitizing antibody only
  • Poor technique (traumatic placement of the needle, dull or burred needle, too large a volume injected, air injected)
  • Substances that cause nonimmunologic histamine release (narcotics)
  • ”Irritable” skin (large reactions seen to all infected substances)
  • Dermatographism
  • Mitogenic allergen
55
Q

allercept

A

An ELISA test for the determination of allergen specific IgE antibodies in dogs, cats, and horses. Tests for grasses, trees, weeds, mites, insects, and fungi

56
Q

TB skin test

A

Inject tuberculin intradermally at a site in the cervical region or skin fold at the base of the tail in large animals.

57
Q

Mycobacterium spp

A

A delayed local inflammatory reaction is observed if the animal has been exposed to Mycobacterium. It is a delayed reaction because the T lymphocytes must migrate to the foreign antigen injected

58
Q

Coombs Testing

A

Detects the presence of autoantibodies (antibodies against the body) - IMHA

Direct Coombs test – Detects antibodies that attack RBCs
Positive test? Immune-mediated hemolytic disease
Indirect Coombs Testing – Detects antibodies that are already attached to red blood cells

59
Q

Immunodiffusion

A

Antigen in test kit and patient serum are placed in separate wells on a agar plate
Sample used – Serum
Band of precipitation? Diffusion of antigen and serum through agar plate

    	No band? No antibody present
60
Q

Radioimmuno assay

A

Similar to CELISA but a radioisotope is used in place of the enzyme
Most Similar to? CELISA technique
Sample used – Serum
Patient antigen vs. labeled antigen. How do they affect the other?
With increasing amounts of patient antigen, more labeled antigen is displaced from the antibody
Measure remaining radioactivity amount – Measured and compared with a standard curve to determine the concentration of antigen in the patient’s serum

61
Q

IFA = Immunofluorescence assay

A

IFA - Fluorescent Antibody Testing - detect the presence of a specific antibody in a sample
Direct antibody testing – Patient sample is added to a slide that has been precoated with a fluorescent dye conjugated antigen. Slide is examined with a microscope
Dye? Fluorescent dye
IFA testing – The patient sample is incubated on a slide that contains a specific test antigen. The slide is then washed to remove any unbound antibody. Fluorescent-labeled antibody is added to the system, and the slide is microscopically examined

62
Q

Antibody titers

A

Describe the test –Antibody titers are performed to differentiate active infection from prior exposure and to evaluate the need for revaccination.

The test is performed by making serial dilutions of each sample. Each dilution is then examined for the presence of the antibody. The reciprocal of the greatest dilution that still elicits a positive test result is the titer

    	Distinguishes between? Active infection and prior exposure to certain antigens 

    	High titer means –Often indicates active infection

    	Low Titer means –Usually indicates previous exposure to the specific antigen
63
Q

molecular testing

A

Advantages of molecular diagnostics: Increased sensitivity and specificity, many factors that influence other procedures are not as crucial, and they have faster turnaround times
Disadvantages of molecular diagnostics: Contamination that leads to false positive results, the high level of expertise needed to run the tests, the need for more than one room in which to perform tests, and high costs
Reverse transcriptase polymerase chain reaction: Similar to PCR, but the single-stranded RNA must first be converted to a double-stranded DNA before the PCR process can continue
Real-time polymerase chain reaction: Decreases the risk of contamination.More easily automated and is faster to run.

64
Q

Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) “Amplification Assay”

A

Amplification: PCR is called an amplification assay because a small amount of a DNA segment detected in the sample is amplified to run the test better and to determine the results. Consists of 3 basic steps:
Denaturation: The sample is heated to break apart the double-stranded DNA molecule into two separate strands. Each strand serves as a template to which new nucleotides will attach.
Annealing The temperature is lowered to cause the primers to bind (anneal) to the separated strands. Primers mark the beginning and the end of the section of DNA to be copied. This will only happen if DNA is present in the sample that is complementary to the primers.
Extension: The temperature is raised once more, and the Taq DNA polymerase (the enzyme that can read the DNA code and assemble the nucleotide bases to form new complementary strands) causes new DNA segments to be produced (extended).

65
Q

type 1 hypersensitivity

A

Immediate hypersensitivity, occurs when mast cells release chemical mediators.
Atopy- Allergies
Anaphylactic Shock- Severe reaction to antigens in circulation

66
Q

type 2 hypersensitivity

A

Antibodies are directed against animals own cells (Antibody-mediated diseases)

Immune mediated hemolytic anemia (IMHA)- Causes red blood cell destruction by the host.

67
Q

type 3 hypersensitivity

A

Occurs when antibodies and antigens form complexes deposited in various blood vessels.

Immune complex disease- Example: Glomerulonephritis caused by antibody-antigen deposits in the kidney.

68
Q

type 4 hypersensitivity

A

T-cell mediated disease caused by the reaction of T lymphocytes against self-antigens in tissues.

69
Q

Lymphoma

A

Tumor characterized by the uncontrolled growth of lymphocytes.

Lab Tech 2 (25 decks)

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