Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

non specific/innate immunity

A

the body fights the invader the same way regardless of what is causing the problem, hence the term “non-specific”

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2
Q

Commensal bacteria

A

good bacteria

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3
Q

5 signs inflammation

A
Redness
Swelling
Pain
Heat
Loss of function
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4
Q

monocytes and macrophages

A

Monocytes - Follow neutrophils; ingest and destroy antigens
Monocytes in blood → Macrophages in tissue
Macrophages - Make up the mononuclear phagocytic system

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5
Q

natural killer cells and interferons

A

NK Cells - Lymphocytes that recognize and destroy host cells infected with viruses; tumors w/o antibodies
Interferons - Prevent viral replication

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6
Q

complement and opsonization

A

Complement system - Complement cascade with three pathways, all three pathways catalyze a series of reactions that have numerous effects
Opsonization - Binding of complement to the antigen-antibody complex, a mechanism of the adaptive immune system

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7
Q

specific immunity

A

These two branches of immunity work to respond specifically based on the type of pathogen present. With specific immunity, we use the term
antigen-a toxin or other foreign substance that induces an immune response in the body, especially the production of antibodies.

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8
Q

B lymphocytes

A

mature in the: Bone marrow

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9
Q

T lymphocytes

A

mature in the: Thymus gland

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10
Q

humoral immune system

A

An immune response that involves the production of specific antibodies. B-lymphocytes differentiate into Plasma cells → produce antibodies

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11
Q

helper T cells

A

Help the phagocytes (antigen presenting cells)

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12
Q

antigen

A

any substance that are capable of generating a response from the immune system (shapes are called epitopes)

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13
Q

antibody

A

(Immunoglobulins) are protein molecules that consist of two pairs of polypeptide chains configured in a Y shape. 2 variable regions and 1 constant region. Variable regions bind to antigen. Constant region: unique function of different antibody classes.

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14
Q

effector cells

A

cell of immune system that performs specific functions to destroy foreign antigens.

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15
Q

lymphocyte maturation

A
  1. Lymphoblast
  2. Prolymphocyte
  3. Mature Lymphocyte
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16
Q

IgM

A

first antibody type produced, large molecule - (5% of circulating immunoglobulins); high-titer, low-avidity

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17
Q

IgG

A

most abundant (75% of circulating immunoglobulins) -> second and subsequent infections - neutralize microbes and toxins, mark for phagocytosis, activate complement, maternal antibodies; low-titer, high-avidity

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18
Q

IgE

A

allergies, anaphylaxis, eosinophils, and parasites.

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19
Q

IgA

A

(20% of circulating immunoglobulins) mucosal antibodies.

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20
Q

IgD

A

B-lymphocytes surface antigen receptor (some species)

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21
Q

Immunologic tolerence

A

The ability of the immune system to discriminate between self and non-self (when it gets out of control → autoimmune diseases)

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22
Q

negative selection

A

When naive lymphocytes are destroyed by apoptosis, the immune system is in effect selecting for the beneficial lymphocytes that have receptors for foreign antigens and eliminating the self lymphocytes that would cause self-destruction. It takes place in the bone marrow, thymus, and peripheral lymphoid tissues.

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23
Q

active immunity

A

Animals become resistant by developing antibodies either from exposure to the disease or by immunization

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24
Q

immunization

A

Animals become actively resistant to disease by having the disease and developing antibodies or by being vaccinated or immunized, in which case they also develop their own antibodies

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25
attenuated
(weakened but still alive). Attenuated vaccines normally cause a longer-lasting and more potent immune response. In very rare cases, they have caused the disease
26
inactivated
(killed) Generally safer and have less ability to cause disease, although vaccine-associated sarcomas in cats have been an issue.
27
DNA vaccines
Involve the direct introduction into the body tissues of a sequence of DNA representing an antigen to which an immune system response is desired. Attenuated vaccines normally cause a longer-lasting and more potent immune response. Inactivated vaccines are generally safer and have less ability to cause disease, although vaccine-associated sarcomas in cats have been an issue.
28
sample handling and collection
Immunoassays require which samples? Serum What is the most practical method of collection? Vacutainer system How long is the clot allowed to sit on the blood sample? 20 to 30 minutes At what speed and for how long do you centrifuge a serum sample? 1500 rpm for 10 minutes What can be done if there is little serum that has separated? “Rimming” the tube with a wooden applicator stick to loosen the clot Can serum and plasma be frozen? Yes
29
sensitivity
Ability to correctly identify all animals that are truly positive for a given reaction procedure (how much protein (antigen/antibody) needs to be present for the test to show positive)
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specificity
Measures the number of false positives produced with a given reaction procedure (are there any other antigens/antibodies that have cross-reactivity because they are so similar)
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ELISA
Accurate way to detect antigen in the body OR antibodies in serum ANTIGEN test contains monoclonal antibodies ANTIBODY test contains the antigen IF antigen-antibody complexes form - color change = positive
32
CELISA
Equine Infectious Anemia (EIA) test ANTIGEN test only The more antigen present, the more color change you’ll see
33
Latex Agglutination
Bovine brucellosis If serum contains corresponding antibody, the formation of antibody-antigen complexes causes agglutination If no antibody is present , the mixture of latex and serum will remain evenly dispersed
34
Rapid Immunomigration (RIM) and Immunochromatography
Similar to ELISA that if antigen-antibody complexes form, you see a color change Heartworm and other tests Different from ELISA - no diluent needed - just the sample Instead of an (only an) enzyme, the method of color change is either: Colloidal gold Enzyme Agglutinated latex particles As antigen-antibody complexes pass over, the color changes
35
antigen-antibody reaction
A mismatched transfusion given to an animal results in antibodies forming against the RBC antigen in the transfused sample.
36
blood group antigens
The specific red blood cell markers in an individual animal
37
crossmatch cats
Neonatal isoerythrolysis can occur in type A or AB kittens if the queen is type B. If breeding a type A cat with a B queen, is it important to test blood types, and A and AB kittens will have to be bottle fed if the queen is type B.
38
clinically significant DEA groups
DEA 1 and DEA 7
39
DEA+ DEA- blood transfusion
If a DEA-1.1- dog has previously received a transfusion from a DEA-1.1+ dog and receives another a severe reaction can occur. This is because mismatched DEA-1 elicits the greatest antigen response of all DEA types
40
cat blood types
A blood – Found in the majority of cats in the U.S.; Have weak anti-B antibodies. B blood – Found in certain purebred breeds; Have strong anti-A antibodies. AB blood – Few cats have this blood type.
41
neonatal isoerythrolysis
Type A and type AB kittens have naturally occuring anti-A antibodies from type B queen
42
horse crossmatching
Transfusion reactions are commonly fatal
43
mare-foal incompatability
Test that detects the presence of antibodies in mare serum (or colostrum) to foal erythrocytes to confirm or prevent neonatal isoerythrolysis.
44
tube method
Requires many steps Use whole blood sample (EDTA, heparin, or acid-citrate-dextrose) Needs antibodies for each type of potential reaction Observed macro/microscopically for evidence of hemolysis or agglutination Brief description - Centrifuge blood; remove plasma and buffy coat; wash RBCs 3x in saline solution, centrifuge, resuspend; distribute RBC suspension into as many tubes needed for the number of blood type antisera being tested; Add 0.1mL antisera into tube; Incubate tubes (15 min room temp); Centrifuge (15 sec, 1000 g); Examine micro/macroscopically
45
card agglutination test
Available for many species; rapid, accurate Uses whole blood sample (EDTA) Tests DEA 1 +/-, or A, B, and AB (no mixing patient/recipient)
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Immunochromatographic Assay
color change for antigen type
47
crossmatching
Mix 2 samples together for compatibility Major - Serum from recipient is added to RBCs from donor Minor - Serum from donor is added to RBCs from recipient
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grading crossmatch reactions
Grade 0: No evidence of agglutination or hemolysis Grade 1: Many small agglutinates and some free cells Grade 2: Large agglutinates and smaller clumps of cells Grade 3: Many large agglutinates Grade 4: Solid aggregate of cells
49
allergic reactions
Allergens – Substance that causes an allergic reaction Urticaria – Hives Wheals – Swelling on the surface of the skin - red welts. Angioedema – Edema of the dermis and subcutaneous tissues
50
antibodies during allergic reactions
IgE, basophils, and mast cells
51
intradermal testing
Hair is shaved on the lateral thorax - 2cm spacing use felt-tip marker to mark injection sites - 26g needle to inject 0.05mL of specifically selected antigens (based on patient Hx and location) - evaluate sites at 15 and 30 minutes Positive control: histamine Negative control: saline
52
positive and hypersensitive reactions
Positive reaction? A raised welt that indicates the animal is allergic to the antigen Hypersensitivity reactions? Why? Urticaria (hives), wheals, or angioedema may be present if the dog has allergies to more than one allergen
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false negative reactions
- Subq injections - Too little allergen - Drug interference (glucocorticoids, antihistamines, tranquilizers, progestational compounds, any drugs that lower blood pressure) - Anergy (testing during peak hypersensitivity reaction) - Inherent host factors - Endoparasitism or ectoparasitism - Off-season testing (testing more than 1-2 months after clinical signs have disappeared - Histamine “hyporeactivity”
54
false positive reactions
- Irritant test allergens (especially those that contain glycerin; house dust, feathers, wool, old, and all food preparations) - Contaminated test allergens (bacteria; fungi) - Skin-sensitizing antibody only - Poor technique (traumatic placement of the needle, dull or burred needle, too large a volume injected, air injected) - Substances that cause nonimmunologic histamine release (narcotics) - ”Irritable” skin (large reactions seen to all infected substances) - Dermatographism - Mitogenic allergen
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allercept
An ELISA test for the determination of allergen specific IgE antibodies in dogs, cats, and horses. Tests for grasses, trees, weeds, mites, insects, and fungi
56
TB skin test
Inject tuberculin intradermally at a site in the cervical region or skin fold at the base of the tail in large animals.
57
Mycobacterium spp
A delayed local inflammatory reaction is observed if the animal has been exposed to Mycobacterium. It is a delayed reaction because the T lymphocytes must migrate to the foreign antigen injected
58
Coombs Testing
Detects the presence of autoantibodies (antibodies against the body) - IMHA Direct Coombs test – Detects antibodies that attack RBCs Positive test? Immune-mediated hemolytic disease Indirect Coombs Testing – Detects antibodies that are already attached to red blood cells
59
Immunodiffusion
Antigen in test kit and patient serum are placed in separate wells on a agar plate Sample used – Serum Band of precipitation? Diffusion of antigen and serum through agar plate No band? No antibody present
60
Radioimmuno assay
Similar to CELISA but a radioisotope is used in place of the enzyme Most Similar to? CELISA technique Sample used – Serum Patient antigen vs. labeled antigen. How do they affect the other? With increasing amounts of patient antigen, more labeled antigen is displaced from the antibody Measure remaining radioactivity amount – Measured and compared with a standard curve to determine the concentration of antigen in the patient’s serum
61
IFA = Immunofluorescence assay
IFA - Fluorescent Antibody Testing - detect the presence of a specific antibody in a sample Direct antibody testing – Patient sample is added to a slide that has been precoated with a fluorescent dye conjugated antigen. Slide is examined with a microscope Dye? Fluorescent dye IFA testing – The patient sample is incubated on a slide that contains a specific test antigen. The slide is then washed to remove any unbound antibody. Fluorescent-labeled antibody is added to the system, and the slide is microscopically examined
62
Antibody titers
Describe the test –Antibody titers are performed to differentiate active infection from prior exposure and to evaluate the need for revaccination. The test is performed by making serial dilutions of each sample. Each dilution is then examined for the presence of the antibody. The reciprocal of the greatest dilution that still elicits a positive test result is the titer Distinguishes between? Active infection and prior exposure to certain antigens High titer means –Often indicates active infection Low Titer means –Usually indicates previous exposure to the specific antigen
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molecular testing
Advantages of molecular diagnostics: Increased sensitivity and specificity, many factors that influence other procedures are not as crucial, and they have faster turnaround times Disadvantages of molecular diagnostics: Contamination that leads to false positive results, the high level of expertise needed to run the tests, the need for more than one room in which to perform tests, and high costs Reverse transcriptase polymerase chain reaction: Similar to PCR, but the single-stranded RNA must first be converted to a double-stranded DNA before the PCR process can continue Real-time polymerase chain reaction: Decreases the risk of contamination.More easily automated and is faster to run.
64
Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) “Amplification Assay”
Amplification: PCR is called an amplification assay because a small amount of a DNA segment detected in the sample is amplified to run the test better and to determine the results. Consists of 3 basic steps: Denaturation: The sample is heated to break apart the double-stranded DNA molecule into two separate strands. Each strand serves as a template to which new nucleotides will attach. Annealing The temperature is lowered to cause the primers to bind (anneal) to the separated strands. Primers mark the beginning and the end of the section of DNA to be copied. This will only happen if DNA is present in the sample that is complementary to the primers. Extension: The temperature is raised once more, and the Taq DNA polymerase (the enzyme that can read the DNA code and assemble the nucleotide bases to form new complementary strands) causes new DNA segments to be produced (extended).
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type 1 hypersensitivity
Immediate hypersensitivity, occurs when mast cells release chemical mediators. Atopy- Allergies Anaphylactic Shock- Severe reaction to antigens in circulation
66
type 2 hypersensitivity
Antibodies are directed against animals own cells (Antibody-mediated diseases) Immune mediated hemolytic anemia (IMHA)- Causes red blood cell destruction by the host.
67
type 3 hypersensitivity
Occurs when antibodies and antigens form complexes deposited in various blood vessels. Immune complex disease- Example: Glomerulonephritis caused by antibody-antigen deposits in the kidney.
68
type 4 hypersensitivity
T-cell mediated disease caused by the reaction of T lymphocytes against self-antigens in tissues.
69
Lymphoma
Tumor characterized by the uncontrolled growth of lymphocytes.