Immunobiology Flashcards

1
Q

Cervical LNs

A

Head and Neck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Hilar LNs

A

Lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Mediastinal LNs

A

Trachea/Esophagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Axiallary LNs

A

Breast, Arm, skin above umbilicus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Celiac LNs

A

Liver, stomach, spleen, pancreas, upper duodenum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Superior mesenteric LNs

A

lower duodenum, jejunum, illeum, colon up to splenic flexture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Inferior mesenteric LNs

A

Colon from splenic flexure to upper rectum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Internal illiac LNs

A

lower rectum to anal canal (above pectinate lone), bladder, vagina (middle third), prostate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

para aortic LNs

A

testes, ovaries, kidneys, uterus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Superficial inguinal LNs

A

Anal canal (below pectinate line), skin below umbilicus (Except popliteal), and scrotum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Popliteal LNs

A

Dorsolateral foot, posterior calf

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What part of LN enlarges in viral immune response?

A

Paracortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What part of LN is not well developed in patients with DiGeorge?

A

Paracortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

HLA A3

A

Hemochromatosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

HLA B27

A
Seronegative arthropathies : PAIR
Psoratic arthritis 
Ankalosing spondylitis 
IBS
Reactive arthritis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

HLA DQ2/Q8

A

Celiac disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

HLA DR2

A

Multiple sclerosis, hay fever, SLE, Goodpasture syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

HLA DR3

A

DM 1, SLE, Graves, Hashimotos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

HLA DR4

A

Rheumatoid arthritis , DM 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

HLA DR5

A

Pernicious anemia, Hashimotos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

CD16

A

NK cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

IL1

A

“Osteoclast activating factor”
Fever, acute inflammation
Activates endothelium to express adhesion molecules
TH17 differentiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

IL6

A

Fever

Acute phase proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

IL8

A

Major cheomtatic factor for neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

IL12

A

Secreated by macrophages to activate NK cells

TH1 differentiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

TNFa

A

Activates antiviral response (WBC recruitment)

Mediates septic shock (vascular leak, activates endothelium)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Cytokines secreted by macrophages

A

IL1, IL6, IL12, IL8, TNFa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

IL2

A

Stimulates growth of all types of T cells, NK cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

IL3

A

Supports growth and differentiation of bone marrow stem cells, functions like GM-CSF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

IFN-y

A

Secreted by NK cells in response to IL12
stimulates macrophages to kill phagocytosed pathogens
Also activates NK cells
Increases MHC expression on all cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

IL4

A

Differentiation into Th2
Growth of B cells
Class switching to IgE, IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

IL5

A

Differentiation of B cells
Class switching to IgA
Stimulates growth and differentiation of eosionophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

IL10

A

Modulates inflammatory response

TGF b and IL10 attenuate immune response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Pneuomonic for IL1-6

A
Hot T-bone stEAK
IL1- fever
IL2- T cell activation 
IL3- bone marrow stem cell growth
IL4- IgE class switching
IL5- IgA class switching 
IL6: aKute phase protein production
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

IgG

A

Delayed response
Monomer, most abundant antibody isotope in serum
Crosses placenta
Fixes complement, opsonizes, neutralizes bacteria and viruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

IgA

A

Dimer when secreted (monomer in circulation)
Mucosal immunity (produced in GI tract to protect against gut infections, eg Giardia)
Released in secretions (tear, saliva, breast milk)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

IgM

A

Immediate response
Pentamer (increases avidity)
Fixes complement, antigen receptor (along with IgD),

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

IgD

A

Surface receptor on naive B cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

IgE

A

Binds mast cells and basophils
Cross links when exposed to allergens (type I rxn)
Helmith infections via eosinophils
Lowest concentration in serum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Anti Ach receptor

A

Myasthenia Gravis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Anti basement membrane

A

Goodpasture syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Anticardiolipin, lupus anticoagulant

A

SLE, antiphospholipid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Anti-centromere

A

Limited scleroderma (CREST)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

anti-desmosome/anti-desmoglein

A

pemphigus vulgaris

45
Q

anti-dsDNA, anti Smith

A

SLE

46
Q

anti-glutamic acid decarboxylase

A

GAD-65

Type 1 DM

47
Q

Anti-hemidesomosome

A

bullous pemphigoid

48
Q

anti-histone

A

drug induced lupus

49
Q

anti-Jo1, antiSRP, anti Mi2

A

polymyositis, dermatomyositis

50
Q

antimitochondrial

A

Primary billary cirrohis

51
Q

antinuclear antibodies

A

SLE, non specific

52
Q

anti-microsomal, anti-thyroglobulin

A

Hashimotos thyroiditis

53
Q

antiparietal cell

A

Pernicious anemia

54
Q

anti- Scl 70

A

topoisomerase I

scleroderma (Diffuse)

55
Q

Anti-SSA (rho) and anti-SSB (la)

A

sjogren syndrome

56
Q

anit-smooth muscle

A

autoimmune hepatitis

57
Q

anti-TSH receptor

A

Graves disease

58
Q

anti-U1 RNP

A

ribonucleoprotein

Mixed connective tissue disease

59
Q

IgA anti-endmysial, IgA anti tissue transglutaminase

A

Celiac disease

60
Q

MPO- ANCA, p-ANCA

A

microscopic polyangitis, Churg strauss

61
Q

PR3-ANCA, c-ANCA

A

Wegner’s (granulomatosis with polyangitis)

62
Q

Rheumatoid factor, anti-CCP

A

IgM antibody that targets IgG Fc region
CCP more specific
Rheumatoid arthritis

63
Q

Alemtuzumab

A

Anti-CD52

CLL

64
Q

Bevacizumab

A

anti-VEGF

colorectal cancer, renal cell carcinoma

65
Q

Cetuximab

A

anti-EGFR

Stage IV colerectal cancer, head and neck cancer

66
Q

Rituximab

A

anti-CD20

B cell non hodgkins lymphoma, CLL, rheumatoid artiritis, ITP

67
Q

Traztuzumab

A

anti- HER2 receptor /neu
breast cancer
(herceptin, cardiotoxicity)

68
Q

Adalimumab, infliximab

A

anti soluble TNFa

IBD, rheumatoid arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis, psoriasis

69
Q

Ecluzimab

A

anti C5

PNH

70
Q

Natalizumab

A

a4 integrin (WBC adhesion)
MS, Chrohns,
Risk of PML in patients with JC virus infection

71
Q

Abciximab

A

anti- GpIIb/IIIa

Antiplatelet for patients undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention

72
Q

Denosumab

A

anti-RANKL

Osteoporosis (inhibits osteoclast activation, acts like osteoprotegerin)

73
Q

Digoxin Fab

A

antidote for dig toxicity

74
Q

Omalizumab

A

anti IgE

allergic asthma

75
Q

Palivizumab

A

anti- RSV F protein

RSV prophylaxis for high risk infants

76
Q

Ranibizumab/bevacizumab

A

anti-VEGF

neovascular age related macular degeneration

77
Q

IL7

A

thymus produced interleukin that promotes T cell maturation

78
Q

Major adhesion molecule on T cells and ligand

A

LFA-1 (leukocytes function-associated antigen 1) on T cell with ICAM1 on APC

79
Q

Costimulator receptors and T cell ligand

A

B7-1 (CD80) and B7-2 (CD86) on APC & CD28 on T cell

CD40 on APCs & CD40L on T cell

80
Q

Inhibitory receptors on T cells

A

CTLA-4

PD-1

81
Q

NFAT pathway

A

Lck (CD4/8) –> P- ZAP70 –> PLC –> IP3–> Ca from ER –> calcineurin phosphotase –> NFAT (dephosphorylated by calcineurin) acts as TF for IL2 and IL2R
Cyclosporin blocks calcinuerin phosphotase

82
Q

Cytokines responsible for Th1 differentiation

A

IL12 produced by macrophages

IFN-y produced by NK cells

83
Q

Th1 response

A

“Classical Macrophage Activation” = M1 macrophages

  • Kill phagocytosed bacteria
  • Th1 cells produce IFN-y and CD40L which activate macrophages and transcription factors that increase expression of MHC and B7, secrete cytokines, and enhance killing of phagocytosed bacter
  • Also inhibit the Th2, Th17 response
84
Q

Cytokines responsible for Th2 differentiation

A

IL4

85
Q

Th2 response

A

Helminth response + “Alternative Macrophage Activation”= M2 macrophages

  • Th2 cells produce IL4 which increases IgE production which can bind to mast cells, coat helminths and activate the FcERI receptors on eosinophils to release granules ;
  • IL5 secretion also activates eosinophils
  • IL13 increases mucous secretion and gut peristalsis
  • IL10 inhibits Th1 response
  • IL4, 13 activate macrophages which then activate fibroblasts to increase collagen production /repair mechanism/ fibrosis (M2 pathway)
86
Q

Cytokines for Th17 response

A

IL1, IL6, TGF-b, and IL23

87
Q

Th17 response

A

Alternate/enhanced bacteria and fungal inflammatory response

  • Produces IL17 –> chemokines to attract leukocytes esp PMNs
  • Produces IL22–> improves and repairs epithelial barrier and antimicrobial functions
88
Q

Contents of CD8 T cell granules

A

Released into immune synapse (LFA-1/ICAM binding)
Perforin (holes in plasma membrane)
Granzyme B - cleaves caspases (cysteine protease cleaves after aspartate) that induce apoptosis

89
Q

What type of bacteria does MAC defend against?

A

gram negative

90
Q

Where are complement plasma proteins synthesized?

A

liver

91
Q

What are the three main inhibitors of complement?

A
C1 INH (blocks C1 esterase activation) 
DAF/CD55 - blocks C3b from binding Bb (classical pathway) and C2a from binding C4b (alternative and MBL)
Factor I and cofactor H - cleaves C3b into inactive fragments
92
Q

Steps in the classical pathway of complement

A

antigen binds IgM or IgG; Fc region binds C1 complement protein ; C1 cleaves C4 and C2 into C4b2b which acts as a C3 convertase; C4b2b3b in the C5 convertase
- same a MBL pathways

93
Q

Steps in the alternative pathway of complement

A

C3b binds covalently to microbe ; Factor B also binds C3b and is broken down by plasma protease factor D to Bb; C3bBb is the C3 convertase, C3bBb3b is the C5 convertase

94
Q

What does C3a do?

A

anaphalxis (with C4a, C5a)

95
Q

What does C5a do?

A

chemotaxis of neutrophils

96
Q

What does C3b do?

A

opsonin; CR1 protein binds

97
Q

What does C5b do?

A

joins with C6-C9 to form MAC, esp effective against Neisseria (thus deficiencies lead to issues with Neisseria infections)

98
Q

CD28

A

T cell surface protein
Binds B71/2 = CD80/86 on macrophages
Co-stimulation

99
Q

CD3

A

T cell surface protein

Signal transduction with Zeta

100
Q

CD40L

A
Helper T cell surface protein (mediated class switching on B cells)
Also present on dendridic cells and macrophages to mediate T cell proliferation
101
Q

CD25

A

Regulatory T cell marker

102
Q

CD40

A

B cell surface protein (receptor for CD40L)

103
Q

CD20, CD19

A

B cell surface protein

104
Q

CD21

A

B cell surface protein

EBV receptor

105
Q

CD14

A

Surface protein for Macrophages

106
Q

CD16

A

Surface protein NK cells

Binds Fc portion of IgG

107
Q

CD56

A

Surface protein NK cells

Unique NK cell marker

108
Q

CD34

A

Hemopoetic stem cell marker

109
Q

tachyphylaxis

A

end organ unresponsiveness to a molecule
ex: someone with factor I deficiency that constantly cleaves C3 and then overproduces C3a which activates mast cells can develop tachyphylaxis to histamine so only shows symptoms of histamine release (hives) when histamine increases (e.g. alcohol, change in temp - bath or shower)