Immuno: Immune modulating therapies 2 Flashcards

1
Q

List some approaches to suppressing the immune system.

A
  • Steroids
  • Anti-proliferative agents
  • Plasmapheresis
  • Inhibitors of cell signalling
  • Agents directed against cell surface antigens
  • Agents directed at cytokines
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2
Q

What is the difference between prednisolone and prednisone?

A

Prednisone is mainly used in the US - it is metabolised to prednisolone in the liver

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3
Q

How much endogenous steroid does the body produce per day?

A

Equivalent to 5-7.5 mg of prednisolone

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4
Q

Describe the effects of steroids on:

  1. Prostaglandins
  2. Phagocytes
  3. Lymphocyte Function
A
  1. Prostaglandins
    • Inhibits phospholipase A2
    • Phospholipase A2 is responsible for the conversion of phospholipids into arachidonic acid (which will then be converted to eicosanoids by COX)
    • Inhibiting phospholipase A2 leads to a reduction in arachidonic acid and prostaglandin formation and, hence, a reduction in inflammation
  2. Phagocytes
    • Decrease traffic of phagocytes to inflamed tissue (reduces the expression of adhesion molecules on the endothelium)
    • This leads to a transient increase in neutrophil count
    • Decreased phagocytosis
    • Decreases proteolytic enzymes
  3. Lymphocyte Function
    • Lymphopaenia (sequestration in lymphoid tissue)
    • Blocks cytokine gene expression
    • Decreased antibody production
    • Promotes apoptosis
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5
Q

List some side-effects of corticosteroids.

A
  • Central obesity
  • Moon face
  • Easy bruising
  • Thin skin
  • Osteoporosis
  • Diabetes
  • Cataracts
  • Glaucoma
  • Peptic ulceration
  • Immunosuppression
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6
Q

List some examples of anti-proliferative agents.

A
  • Cycophosphamide
  • Mycophenolate
  • Azathioprine
  • Methotrexate
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7
Q

What is the mechanism of action of cyclophosphamide?

A
  • Alkylates the guanine base of DNA which damages the DNA and prevents replication (affects B cells more than T cells)
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8
Q

List some indications of cycolphosphamide.

A
  • Multisystem connective tissue disease
  • Vasculitis
  • Anti-cancer
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9
Q

List some side-effects of cyclophosphamide.

A
  • Toxic to proliferating cells - bone marrow suppression, sterility (mainly males), hair loss
  • Haemorrhagic cystitis - due to toxic metabolic (acrolein) in the urine
  • Malignancy - bladder cancer, haematological malignancy, non-melanoma skin cancer
  • Teratogenic
  • Infection (e.g. PCP)
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10
Q

Outline the mechanism of action of azathioprine.

A
  • Metabolised by the liver to 6-mercaptopurine
  • Blocks de novo purine synthesis (e.g. adenine and guanine)
  • Prevents DNA replication
  • Preferntially inhibits T cell activation and proliferation
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11
Q

List some indications for azathioprine.

A
  • Transplantation
  • Autoimmune
  • Autoinflammatory (e.g. Crohn’s)
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12
Q

List some side-effects of azathioprine.

A
  • Bone marrow suppression
  • Hepatoxicity
  • Infection
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13
Q

Which precaution must you take before starting a patient on azathioprine?

A

Check TPMT activity - 1 in 300 individuals have TPMT polymorphism which means that they are unable to metabolise azathioprine leading to bone marrow suppression.

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14
Q

Outline the mechanism of action of mycophenolate mofetil.

A
  • Blocking de novo nucleotide synthesis
  • Prevents replication of DNA
  • Affects T cell proliferation more than B cells
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15
Q

List some indications for mycophenolate mofetil.

A
  • Transplantation
  • Autoimmune disease
  • Vasculitis
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16
Q

List some side-effects of mycophenolate mofetil.

A
  • Bone marrow suppression
  • Teratogenic
  • Infection (particularly HSV reactivation and PML (JC virus))
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17
Q

Describe how plasmapheresis works.

A
  • The patient’s blood is passed through a separator where the pathogenic immunoglobulins are removed and the plasma is reinfused
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18
Q

What is the main issue with plasmapheresis?

A
  • Rebound antibody production - although antibodies have been removed, the plasma cells are still there

NOTE: therefore, anti-proliferative agents are often given alongside plasmapheresis

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19
Q

List some indications for plasmapheresis.

A
  • Severe antibody-mediated disease (e.g. Goodpasture’s, acute myasthenia gravis, severe transplant rejection)
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20
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of calcineurin inhibitors.

A
  • Normally, TCR engagement leads to increased cytoplasmic calcium which binds to calmodulin leading to the activation of calcineurin
  • Calcineurin then activates NFATc resulting in the upregulation of IL2
  • Calcineurin inhibitors block this pathway, thereby blocking IL2 production
21
Q

Give two examples of calcineurin inhibitors.

A
  • Ciclosporin
  • Tacrolimus
22
Q

What are the main side-effects of calcineurin inhibitors?

A

Hypertension and nephrotoxicty (also diabetes, neurotoxic and dysmporphic facies)

23
Q

Give an example of a JAK inhibitor.

A

Tofacitinib (JAK1 and JAK2 inhibitor)

24
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of JAK inhibitors.

A
  • Interferes with the JAK-STAT pathway which is important in transducing signals from cytokine binding
  • This influences gene transcription and reduces the production of inflammatory mediators
  • Effective in rheumatoid arthritis
25
Give an example of a PDE4 inhibitor.
Apremilast
26
Describe the mechanism of action of PDE4 inhibitors.
* PDE4 is important in the metabolism of cAMP * PDE4 inhibitors result in increased levels of cAMP which activates PKA and prevents the activation of transcription factors * This leads to a decrease in cytokine production * Effective in psoriasis and psoriatic arthritis
27
For each of the following monoclonal antibodies, state the antigen that they are targeting: 1. Basiliximab 2. Abatacept 3. Rituximab 4. Natalizumab 5. Tocilizumab
1. Basiliximab = anti-CD25 2. Abatacept = CLTA4-Ig 3. Rituximab = anti-CD20 4. Natalizumab = anti-α4 integrin 5. Tocilizumab = anti-IL6 receptor
28
What does the suffix (-cept) mean?
It is made up of a receptor at the end of an IgG Fc portion
29
Describe how anti-thymocyte globulin is made. What is it used for?
* Human thymocytes (lymphocytes from the thymus gland) are sampled and injected into a rabbit which produces a variety of antibodies against thymocytes * This is injected into patients and it is very effective at targeting T cells (but it is not very specific) * This leads to T cell depletion and it is effective in allograft rejection
30
List some side-effects of anti-thymocyte globulin.
* Infusion reactions * Leukopaenia * Infection * Malignancy
31
Describe the mechanism of action and the use of basiliximab.
* Targets IL2 receptors alpha chain (aka CD25) * This part of the receptor is specific for IL2 * Results in inhibition of T cell proliferation
32
Describe the mechanism of action of abatacept.
* It is made from the fusion of CTLA4 and IgG Fc * APCs bind to CTLA4 (inhibitor) and CD28 via CD80 and CD86 receptors * Abatacept binds to CD80 and CD86 receptors and prevents engagement with T cells thereby reducing T cell activation * It is effective in rhumatoid arthritis
33
Describe the mechanism of action of rituximab.
* Targets CD20 which is found on mature B cells * This results in depletion of mature B cells
34
List some indications for rituximab.
* Lymphoma * Rheumatoid arthritis * SLE NOTE: it is given as two IV doses every 6-12 months
35
Describe the mechanism of action of natalizumab.
* Antibody against alpha-4 integrin * Alpha-4 integrin is expressed with beta-1 or beta-7 * This complex binds to VCAM1 or MadCAM1 to mediate rolling and arrest of leukocytes * Blocking this integrin inhibits leukocyte migration
36
What is the main indication of natalizumab?
Multiple sclerosis
37
Describe the mechanism of action of tocilizumab.
* Antibody against IL6 receptor * Results in reduced activation of macrophages, T cells, B cells and neutrophils
38
What are the main indications of tocilizumab?
* Castleman's disease (IL6-producing tumour) * Rheumatoid arthritis
39
List three types of anti-TNFα antibodies.
* Infliximab * Adalimumab * Certolizumab * Golimumab
40
Which antigens are targeted by the following monoclonal antibodies: 1. Ustekinumab 2. Secukinumab 3. Denosumab
1. Ustekinumab * IL12 * IL23 2. Secukinumab * IL17 3. Denosumab * RANKL
41
What is TNF-alpha?
It is a critical molecule in the cytokine cascade responsible for the inflammatory response in inflammatory conditions
42
List some uses of anti-TNFα antibodies.
* Rheumatoid arthritis * Ankylosing spondylitis * Psoriasis * IBD
43
List some side-effects of anti-TNFα antibodies.
* Infusion reactions * Infection * Lupus-like conditions * Demyelination * Malignancy
44
Describe the mechanism of action of etanercept.
* It is a decoy receptor that mops up TNFα thereby inhibiting its action * NOTE: it is given as a SC injection * Used in rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis and ankylosing spondylitis
45
Describe the mechanism of action of ustekinumab.
* Antibody against the p40 subunit that is found in IL12 and IL23 * These cytokines mainly act on NK cells and T cells thereby modulating their activity * Used in psoriasis and Crohn's disease
46
Describe the mechanism of action and uses of secukinumab.
* Antibody to IL17A thereby inhibiting its effect * Indications include psoriasis and ankylosing spondylitis
47
Describe the mechanism of action of denosumab.
* RANKL is produced by osteoblasts and it acts on RANK receptors on osteoclasts * It promotes osteoclast differentiation and function, thereby leading to increased bone resorption * Osteoprotegrin is a natural decoy receptor for RANKL which regulates the system * Denosumab binds to RANKL and reduces osteoclast differentiation and function NOTE: it is used for osetoporosis and is administered as SC injections every 6 months
48
List some side-effects of denosumab.
* Injection site reactions * Infection * Avascular necrosis of the jaw
49
List some types of infusion reaction.
* Urticaria * Hypotension * Tachycardia * Wheeze * Headache * Fever * Myalgia