immuno exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

which type of T cell regulates the immune response

A

helper T cell

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2
Q

which type of T cell destroys cells expressing endogenous Ags

A

cytotoxic T cell

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3
Q

which type of T cell controls everything

A

regulatory T cell

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4
Q

3 aspects of the immune response of activated helper T cells

A

cell division
producing cytokines
cell differentiation

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5
Q

what are the main receptors able to bind Ags

A

TCR
BCR
MHC I
MHC II

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6
Q

which region of a lymphocyte receptor binds and recognizes different Ag

A

variable domain

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7
Q

___ is always beside TCR and is composed of five protein chains in dimers

A

CD3 complex

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8
Q

what type of Ag is presented by MHC II to a helper cell;
what accessory molecule binds to MHC II

A

exogenous Ag;
CD4

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9
Q

what type of Ag is presented by MHC I to a cytotoxic T cell;
what accessory molecule binds to MHC I

A

endogenous Ag;
CD8

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10
Q

what is the importance of CD4/CD8 linking the T cell to the APC

A

ensures an effective signal is transmitted between them

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11
Q

which part of the TCR-CD3 complex functions as a signal transducer

A

CD3

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12
Q

CD154 (CD40L) on the lymphocyte is a costimulatory molecule with ___ on the APC

A

CD40

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13
Q

the interaction of these two co-stimulatory molecules will cause the T cell to produce IL-1, IL-2, IL-8, IL-12, TNF-a and CCL3

A

CD154-CD40

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14
Q

CD28 on the lymphocyte is costimulatory with ___ on the APC or ___ on the B cell

A

CD80 APC
CD86 B cell

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15
Q

CD28-CD80/86 interaction induces production of ___

A

IL-2

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16
Q

effects of IL-2 production

A

upregulate cell survival genes
increase energy metabolism
promote T cell division

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17
Q

what co-stimulatory interaction regulates T cells

A

CD152-CD80/86

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18
Q

CD152 makes the T cell produce __ which destroys ___

A

indoleamine dioxygenase;
tryptophan

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19
Q

what is the effect of the absence of tryptophan

A

T cells cannot respond to Ag

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20
Q

how long does it take to produce co-stimulatory signals

A

3 days

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21
Q

DCs and macrophages secrete ___ when stimulated by TLR2

A

IL-23

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22
Q

result of IL-23, IL-6 and TGF-B interaction

A

differentiating Th0 to Th17

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23
Q

Th17 produces

A

IL-17

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24
Q

IL-17 produces chemokines, GM-CSF, IL-6 and ICAM-1; the production of these cytokines by IL-17 is associated with

A

neutrophil accumulation and activation; inflammation

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25
Q

supramolecular structure generated by the interaction between a T cell and APC

A

immunological synapse

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26
Q

function of immunological synapse

A

send signals inside T cell or APC

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27
Q

which molecules interact inside the cSMAC

A

TCR-CD3
CD28-CD80

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28
Q

which molecules interact in the inner pSMAC

A

CD2-CD48

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29
Q

which molecules interact in the outer pSMAC

A

LFA-1, ICAM-1, talin

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30
Q

transcription factors generated by immunological synapse include

A

NF-kB
NF-AT
AP-1

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31
Q

function of transcription factors

A

gene expression and production of cytokines

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32
Q

CD8 T cells can be activated by

A

1 MHC and Ag

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33
Q

how does the presence of CD28 (co-stimulatory molecule) affect T cell activation

A

requires less Ag to activate

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34
Q

superantigens do not require

A

MHC Ag presentation

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35
Q

superantigens bind in part to both MHC and TCR; which TCR chain does it bind to

A

beta

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36
Q

superantigens stimulate a:
powerful T cell response
____
toxic shock syndrome

A

high cytokine production (TNF-a, IL-1)

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37
Q

this helper T cell is apart of the cellular immune response

A

Th1

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38
Q

this helper T cell is apart of the humoral immune response

A

Th2

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39
Q

all helper T cells are

A

CD4+

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40
Q

Th1 is activated by the interaction between

A

CD80 and IL-12

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41
Q

Th1 produces

A

IL-2
IFN-y
TNF-B

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42
Q

Th2 produces

A

IL-4
IL-5
IL-10
IL-13

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43
Q

Th2 is inhibited by

A

IFN-y

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44
Q

IFN-y is produced by:
Th1 cells
___
CD8 T cells

A

NK cells

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45
Q

effects of IFN-y

A

activate NK cells
antiviral
activate macrophages - inc IL-12

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46
Q

effects of IL-2:
control Tregs
enhance NK cells
activate macrophages
______
______

A

promote B cell proliferation
promote Th1 activation

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47
Q

what type of T cell is more common in ruminants

A

gamma/delta

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48
Q

innate gamma/delta T cells are found in

A

uterus and skin

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49
Q

adaptive gamma/delta T cells are found in

A

GIT and secondary lymphoid organs

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50
Q

after the T cell-DC interaction, the T cell divides asymmetrically; the cell at the opposite pole becomes __

A

memory T cell

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51
Q

the cellular immune response provides immunity against:
intracellular bacteria
intracellular virus
fungi
protozoa
____

A

tumors

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52
Q

T cells only recognize Ag when

A

on surface of APC by MHC

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53
Q

the mechanism of cell death is activated by ___

A

caspases

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54
Q

initiator caspases are activated by

A

multimolecular death complexes

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55
Q

which type of caspase breaks down cellular structures

A

effector caspases

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56
Q

inflammatory caspases are activated by

A

multimolecular inflammasomes

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57
Q

morphological changes of apoptosis

A

clumping of chromatin, blebbing, loss of organelles –> nuclear fragmentation, apoptotic bodies

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58
Q

DCs and Ag on MHC I produce IL-12, which activates __

A

CD8 T cell

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59
Q

CD4 T cell produces ___ and ___ which activates CD8 T cell

A

IL-2 and IFN-y

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60
Q

CD4 T cells produce __ and ___

A

IL-12 and CCL22 (chemokine)

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61
Q

the immunological synapse forms a gasket of outer adhesive proteins, what is the function of this

A

prevents leakage of cytotoxic molecules into tissue fluid

62
Q

the cSMAC associated with cytotoxic mechanisms contains

A

Fas-ligand
perforins

63
Q

the cSMAC associated with signaling contains

A

TCR-CD3
CD28-CD80

64
Q

what molecules are necessary for the “lethal hit” intrinsic pathway

A

granzymes
perforins
caspase 3

65
Q

function of perforins in the intrinsic pathway

A

produce an opening on target cell membrane which allows granzymes to get into cell, which then produce caspase 3

66
Q

function of caspase 3 in the intrinsic pathway of the cytotoxic response

A

DNA fragmentation to apoptosis

67
Q

molecules needed for extrinsic pathway of cytotoxic response

A

CD95L-CD95
caspase 8
caspase 3

68
Q

extrinsic pathway is activated by

A

ligation of death receptors CD95
formation of DISC

69
Q

in the intrinsic pathway, the injection of granzymes leads to the release of ___ from the mitochondria

A

cytochrome c

70
Q

cytochrome c releases __ which activates caspase 9 to activate the effector caspases

A

apoptosome

71
Q

IFN-y and IL-2 released by Th1 cells can activate and enable ____ to kill intracellular bacteria

A

macrophages

72
Q

in the innate pathway of macrophage activation, IFN-y is produced by

A

NK cells

73
Q

in the adaptive pathway and macrophage activation, IFN-y is produced by

A

Th1 cells

74
Q

classical (M1) activation of macrophages is activated by Th1 production of IFN-y and TNF-a and results in ___

A

inflammation

75
Q

alternative (M2) activation of macrophages is activated by Th2 and Treg cell production of IL-4, IL-10 and IL-13; M2 results in:
ECM production
cell proliferation
angiogenesis
_____
_____

A

antiinflammatory
wound repair

76
Q

antibodies are ___ BCRs

A

soluble; free

77
Q

which part of Ab contains the Ag binding site

A

light chain

78
Q

purpose of hinge region of Ab

A

provides mobility for interaction

79
Q

what is the effect of treating an immunoglobulin with papain

A

molecule cleaved into three large fragments (2 Fab 1 Fc)

80
Q

what is the effect of treating an immunoglobulin with pepsin

A

molecule cleaved into one large (Fab) fragment and many small (Fc) fragments

81
Q

the light chain of an immunoglobulin can be __ or ___

A

kappa
lambda

82
Q

which Ig does an alpha heavy chain correspond to

A

IgA

83
Q

which Ig does a gamma heavy chain correspond to

A

IgG

84
Q

which Ig does a delta heavy chain correspond to

A

IgD

85
Q

which Ig does an epsilon heavy chain correspond to

A

IgE

86
Q

which Ig does a mu heavy chain correspond to

A

IgM

87
Q

sequence variation in 6 to 10 amino acids; also known as complementarity determining regions (CDR)

A

hypervariable regions

88
Q

dispersed between CDRs are

A

constant framework regions

89
Q

complement activating region of an immunoglobulin

A

C2

90
Q

Ag binding region of an immunoglobulin

A

Fab

91
Q

cell binding region of an immunoglobulin

A

Fc

92
Q

all B cells are ___ positive

A

CD79

93
Q

____ binds to C3d on the Ag; sends a signal through ____; generating a co-stimulatory signal to enhance B cell responses

A

CD21;
CD19

94
Q

which two transcription factors are involved in B cell signal transduction

A

NF-kB
NF-AT

95
Q

Th2 is stimulated by

A

CD86 and IL-1

96
Q

Th2 produces IL-4, which inhibits the cellular immune response by inhibiting

A

IL-2
IFN-y

97
Q

which IL produced by Th2:
stimulates B cell growth and diffrentiation
activates mast cells

A

IL-4

98
Q

which IL produced by Th2:
stimulates B cell growth
suppresses macrophages

A

IL-13

99
Q

which IL produced by Th2:
stimulates B cell growth
activates eosinophils

A

IL-5

100
Q

which IL produced by Th2:
inhibits Th1
suppresses macrophages

A

IL-10

101
Q

these co-stimulatory molecules mediate the interaction between Th2 and B cell

A

CD154-CD40
CD28-CD86

102
Q

when the Th2 cell is activated, it starts producing IL-4, IL-13, IL-5, and IL-6; how do these interleukins affect the B cells

A

activation and division
differentiation into plasma cells to produce Ab

103
Q

what is the main difference in the secondary response of B cells

A

memory B cell process and present the Ag - no participation of DCs

104
Q

which IL:
inc expression of MHC II
induces Ig class switching

A

IL-4

105
Q

which IL:
B cell diff. into plasma cells
stimulates IgM and IgG production
with IL-4, stimulates IgE production

A

IL-5

106
Q

which IL:
needed for final diff. into plasma cells
with IL-5 promotes IgA production
with IL-1 promotes IgM production

A

IL-6

107
Q

which IL:
similar to IL-4
req. for optimal induction of IgE

A

IL-13

108
Q

in a T-independent immune response, there are NO

A

Th cells
memory cells
or Ig class switching (only IgM response)

109
Q

true or false, a B cell can recognize naive epitopes from free, soluble Ags

A

true

110
Q

short lived (1-2wk) plasma cells reside in

A

spleen and LN

111
Q

long lived (months-yrs) plasma cells accumulate in

A

bone marrow

112
Q

what type of memory cell do not depend on Ag contact for survival

A

long lived resting

113
Q

what type of memory cell depends on Ag contact for survival

A

large and dividing

114
Q

how long after the immune response begins to B cells and Th cells migrate to the germinal center

A

around 6 days

115
Q

area of Ag-derived cell proliferation, somatic hypermutation and positive/negative B cell selection

A

germinal center

116
Q

Ab with highest serum concentration

A

IgG

117
Q

Ab with lowest serum concentration

A

IgE

118
Q

secretory Ab

A

IgA

119
Q

which Igs are largely synthesized in intestinal and respiratory tracts

A

IgE
IgA

120
Q

which Ig:
plasma cells in spleen, LN, bone marrow
inflammation
agglutination
opsonization
can activate the classical complement

A

IgG

121
Q

which Ig:
has a joining region and extra constant domain
plasma cells in secondary lymphoid organs
Ig monomer
can activate the complement
major Ig produced in primary immune response
opsonization, agglutination
virus neutralization

A

IgM

122
Q

which Ig:
has a joining region and secretory component
dimer
plasma cells in body surfaces
transported through intestinal epithelium
major Ig in external secretions of non-ruminants

A

IgA

123
Q

which Ig:
extra constant domain
attached to FceRI on mast cells and basophils
release inflammatory molecules from mast cells
anti-parasitic, anti-allergy
shortest half life

A

IgE

124
Q

which Ig:
no disulfide bonds b/w heavy chains
not present in cats, chickens or rabbits
mainly attached to B cells
mediates link b/w innate and adaptive

A

IgD

125
Q

first gene selected for encodes for

A

IgM

126
Q

Ag binding site determined by

A

VDJ recombination

127
Q

type of C terminal domain used by IgM serving as BCRs that is membrane bound

A

CuM

128
Q

type of C terminal domain used by IgM serving as BCRs that is secreted

A

CuS

129
Q

how is the difference between CuM and CuS domains determined

A

RNA splicing following transcription

130
Q

which Ig can activate the classical complement pathway

A

IgG
IgM

131
Q

which Ig can activate the lectin pathway

A

IgA

132
Q

which Ig is involved in placental transfer

A

IgG

133
Q

which Ig binds to macrophages and other phagocytes

A

IgG
IgA
IgE

134
Q

which Ig has high affinity binding to mast cells and basophils

A

IgE

135
Q

Igs involved in systemic protection

A

IgM and IgG

136
Q

Ig found in skin and mucus

A

IgE

137
Q

Ig found in respiratory and GI tracts

A

IgA

138
Q

Igs found in circulation and blood

A

IgM and IgG

139
Q

naive B cells express which two classes of membrane bound Ab that function as Ag receptors

A

IgM
IgD

140
Q

through what do B and Th cells enter lymph nodes

A

HEVs

141
Q

3 effector mechanisms of Abs

A

neutralization
opsonization
complement activation

142
Q

neutralization of bacterial toxins results in

A

ingestion by macrophage

143
Q

opsonization and complement activation result in

A

ingestion and lysis

144
Q

Ag receptor chains are coded for by ___ genes

A

3

145
Q

in “looping out”, unwanted variable genes form a loop that is then cut off by a ____enzyme, so the desired V gene is linked to the J gene

A

recombinase

146
Q

the first DNA rearrangement event to produce a Ig heavy chain

A

join selected D and J genes

147
Q

the second DNA rearrangement event to produce a Ig heavy chain

A

add selected V gene

148
Q

during development, each B cells is ___ attempts to make a productive gene rearrangement coding for a functional Ig; if it fails all attempts, the cell undergoes ___

A

4;
apoptosis

149
Q

CDR1 and CDR2 of Ig are generated by

A

somatic mutation

150
Q

CDR3 of Ig is generated by

A

gene conversion

151
Q

why is somatic mutation avoided by TCRs

A

to prevent self-reactivity