Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Personal Path > Immuno > Flashcards

Immuno Flashcards

1
Q

A sub-unit / conjugate vaccine

A

HIB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Inactivated preparations of the bacteria (vaccine example)

A

Whole cell typhoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Vaccine that is made using recombinant DNA technology.

A

HepB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

An antigen assembled in a multimeric form and saponin that provokes a strong serum antibody response.

A

Immune Stimulating Complex (ISCOMS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The general name for a compound which increases the immune response without altering its specificity.

A

Adjuvant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A vaccine given only to sero-negative women

A

Rubella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A feature of immunological central memory

A

IL-2 Central memory (CM) T cells migrate efficienctly to peripheral LNs and produce IL-2,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which live attenuated organism do BCG vaccines contain?

A

Mycobacterium bovis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Agent used in humans that promotes a predominantly antibody response through the release of Il-4 that primes naïve B-cells.

A

Alum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Live attenuated vaccine that is no longer given as standard in the UK since the rates of reverse mutation are higher than those of active disease. Excreted in the stools of immunised individuals.

A

Oral Polio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Subunit vaccine given to the elderly and immunocompromised

A

iNFLUENZA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Inactivated Vaccines

A

Hep A, Salk (polio), anthrax, cholrea, bubonic plague,rabies, pretussis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A water-in-oil emulsion containing mycobacterial cell wall components that could be used to increase the immune response of a vaccine.

A

Freud’s adjuvent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

CpG (unmethylated)

A

Acts as an immunostimulatory adjuvant. Activates TLRs on APCs stimulating expression of costimulatory molecules.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

A 3 year old girl is brought into AandE by her parents. She has had vomiting and diarrhoea since early yesterday evening when she was at a birthday party. On examination she has urticaria.

A

Food allergy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

A 25 year old woman presents to her GP complaining of itchy, red wheals on her torso which have been present for 7 weeks. She can not remember how they started but has noticed they are worse in the heat and when she exercises.

A

Chronic urticaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A 40 year old man presents to his GP complaining of loss smell and nasal itching and discharge. On examination his nasal mucosa are swollen and have a bluish tinge. His symptoms improve with a corticosteroid spray

A

Allergic rhinitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A 55 year old man with history of angina was advised to take a tablet before a long flight. After taking the pill, he suddenly finds that he has difficulty breathing, feels nauseous and is itching.

A

Mast cell degranulation - caused by taking aspirin before a flight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A 24 year old medical student develops worsening swelling of the hands and feet and abdominal pain before her final year medical exams. She says that similar milder episodes have occurred preciously.

A

Idiopathic angioedema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

A 26 year old male who has been suffering from ‘flu-like’ symptoms with fever presents to the GP after developing skin rash in the last few days.

A

Acute urticaria - Severe acute urticaria is effectively treated with a short course of oral anti-histamines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

A 35 year old woman presents with persistent itchy wheels for the last 2 months. She noticed that when this is at its worst, she also has a fever and feels generally unwell. After an acute attack, she has bruising and post-inflammatory residual pigmentation at the site of the itching.

A

Urticarial vasculitis. Urticarial rashes that last more than 24 hours in a single site, resolve with bruising or skin depigmentation
may raise the possibility of an underlying vasculitis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

This 45 year old woman presents to AandE with tongue swelling and acute respiratory tract obstruction. She has longstanding hypertension and received a renal transplant two years previously. She has no history of allergic disease. On examination her blood pressure is stable, and examination of her lung fields reveal normal breath sounds. Her current medication includes cyclosporine, azathioprine, captopril and nifedipine.

A

Acute angioedema - This woman has angioedema of the tongue, without symptoms suggestive of a generalised allergic reaction. Isolated angioedema may be allergic in origin, but 94% of cases angioedema presenting to AandE are drug induced and the majority of these are associated with ACE inhibitors (eg captopril).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

A 22 year old woman presents with an intermittently itchy and desquamating skin rash on her abdomen which is unresponsive to antihistamines

A

Contact hypersensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

A 19 year old male presents to AandE with increasing breathlessness. On examination his blood pressure is 90/55 mmHg and his respiratory rate is 28/min. He shows you a generalised red itchy skin rash, and examination of his chest reveals bilateral inspiratory and expiratory wheezes throughout.. Treatment?

A

IM adrenaline 1mL of 1:1000. Plus 100% O2, inhaled bronchodilators, IV fluids, hydrocortisone and chlorphenamine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

A 40 year old man complains of loss of smell with nasal itching and discharge over 4 weeks. He also describes morning sneezing. He is otherwise in good health. On examination his nasal mucosa are swollen and hyperaemic. Treatment?

A

Oral antihistamines and intranasal corticosteroids are the mainstay of treatment of mild allergic rhinitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

This 45 year old woman presents to AandE with tongue swelling and acute respiratory tract obstruction. She has longstanding hypertension and received a renal transplant two years previously. She has no history of allergic disease. On examination her blood pressure is stable, and examination of her lung fields reveal normal breath sounds. Her current medication includes cyclosporine, azathioprine, captopril and nifedipine. Treatment?

A

IM adrenaline 0.5mL of 1:1000 Intramuscular adrenalin should be used in patients with severe local angioedema with secondary acute respiratory tract obstruction. However this is not always effective in ACE inhibitor-induced angioedema, and some patients will require intubation. Always stop the causative agent!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Cytokines exertine anti-viral effect?

A

Interferon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Immunglobulin diner

A

IgA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

MHC associated with Th1 and Th2 cells

A

MHC Class 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Acts on hepatocytes to induce synthesis of acute phase proteins in response to bacterial infection

A

IL-6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Arise in the first few days after infection and are important in defence against viruses and tumors

A

Natural Killer Cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

MHC associated with cytotoxic T cells

A

MHC 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Along with IgD, is one of the first immunoglobulins expressed on B cells before they undergo antibody class switching

A

IgM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The most abundant (in terms of g/L) immunoglobulin in normal plasma

A

IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Deficiencies in this predispose to SLE

A

Classical complement Pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Kostmanns syndrome is a congenital deficiency of which component of the immune system?

A

neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which component of the innate immune system is usually one of the first to respond to infection through a cut?

A

Neutrophil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which infection is most common as a consequence of B cell deficiency?

A

Bacterial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Meningococcal infections are quite common as a result of which deficiency of the component of the immune system?

A

Complement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Produced by the liver, when triggered, enzymatically activate other proteins in a biological cascade and are important in innate and antibody mediated immune response?

A

Complement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

A complete deficiency in this molecule is associated with recurrent respiratory and gastrointestinal infections.

A

IgA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency is characterised by a very high count in which of the above?

A

Neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Which crucial enzyme is vital for the oxidative killing of intracellular micro-organisms?

A

NAPDH oxidase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Which complement factor is an important chemotaxic agent?

A

C3a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the functional complement test used to investigate the classical pathway?

A

CH50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Graves reaction type?

A

Type II – Antibody mediated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

SLE reaction type?

A

Type III – Immune complex mediated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

RA reaction type?

A

Type IV – T-cell mediated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Asthma reaction type?

A

Not autoimmune

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

T1DM reaction type?

A

Type IV – T-cell mediated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

ITP reaction type?

A

Type II – Antibody mediated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

ABO reaction type?

A

Type II – Antibody mediated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Hepatitis C associated membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis type I. Reaction type?

A

Type III – Immune complex mediated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Goodpasture’s syndrome reaction type?

A

Type 2 antibody mediated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Myaesthenia gravis reaction type?

A

Type II – Antibody mediated

56
Q

SLE antibody?

A

Anti-DNA

57
Q

RA best diagnostic antibody?

A

Anti-CCP

58
Q

PBC antibody?

A

Anti-mitochondrial

59
Q

What is the auto-antigen target in Goodpastures?

A

Type 4 collagen

60
Q

Pattern of antibody deposition in GBM in goodpastures?

A

Smooth linear

61
Q

Common treatment of Goodpastures?

A

Prednisolone

62
Q

Immune damage in Goodpastures is associated with the kidney and?

A

Lung

63
Q

Gene defect in X-Linked Agammaglobulinaemia

A

Burtongs typrosine kinase BTK gene

64
Q

DiGeorge Syndrome genetic defect?

A

Chromosome 22q11 deletion

65
Q

SCID is associated with defects in which cytokine receptor?

A

IL-2

66
Q

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome is associated with what gene?

A

WASP gene

67
Q

Bare lymphocyte syndrome is assocaited with the absence of what?

A

MHC (class 2 most commonly).

68
Q

This region encodes for C2, C2 and Factor B

A

MHC class 3

69
Q

Hyper IgM is associated with a defect in what gene?

A

CD40

70
Q

A 25 year old woman comes to her GP about family planning. She is worried because she had an older brother who died before she was born and her grandmother lost two children which she things were both boys. Her GO thinks there may be a genetic disorder in her family affecting the IL-2 receptor. If correct she has a 50% of inheriting the trait from her mother and being a carrier herself. And there would be a 50% chance of passing it to her children. If inherited, her daughters would be carriers and her sons would require treatment which is usually a bone marrow transplant but gene therapy is sometimes used.

A

SCID

71
Q

A jaundiced 8 month old child presents with failure to thrive, and a history of recurrent infections (viral, bacterial and fungal). On examination there is hepatomegally and blood tests show a raised alk phos and low CD4 count. A defect is found in the proteins that regulate MHC Class II transcription.

A

Bare lymphocyte syndrome

72
Q

Patient X’s GP writes inquiring about whether to vaccinate. The patient suffers from recurrent respiratory tract infections and has been diagnosed with one of the B-cell maturation defects. For which one is immunisation still effective?

A

Selective IgA deficiency

73
Q

For which disorder would a bone marrow transplant be unhelpful but a thymic transplant may provide a cure?

A

DiGeorge

74
Q

In acute rejection, release of this substance from CD8+ lymphocytes helps kill target cells

A

Granzyme B

75
Q

Risk factor for chronic allograft rejection

A

Hypertension

76
Q

Transplanting an ABO incompatible kidney will result in what type of rejection

A

Hyeracute

77
Q

Treatment of acute antibody mediated rejection

A

IVIG and plasmapheresis

78
Q

Treatment of acute cell mediated rejection

A

High dose steroids

79
Q

The 3 most important HLA types to screen for in renal transplantation when matching donor and recipient, in order of importance

A

HLA DR > B > A

80
Q

Immune agent prevents DNA replication of T cells

A

Mycophenolate mofetil

81
Q

immune agent causes a transient increase in neutrophils

A

Steroids

82
Q

Can cause gingival hypertrophy as a side effect

A

Ciclosporin

83
Q

Corticosteroids, as well as being directly lymphotoxic in high doses, inhibit T-cell function via which other mechanism?

A

Blocking cytokine synthesis

84
Q

The antiproliferative drug cyclophosphamide inhibits lymphocyte proliferation by which mechanism?

A

Inhibition of DNA synthesis (b cells more than t cells)

85
Q

Plasmapheresis may be indicated in which condition?

A

Goodpastures

86
Q

A condition where antigen desensitization therapy may be indicated.

A

Bee/wasp venom allergy

87
Q

SE steroids?

A

Hypertension

88
Q

SE ciclosporin?

A

HTN and reduced GFR

89
Q

SE azathioprine

A

bone marrow depression

90
Q

SE methotrexate?

A

Pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis and cirrhosis

91
Q

SE Immunoglobulin?

A

Anaphylaxis

92
Q

Expresses Foxp3 and CD25 and secretes IL-10. Deficient in the monogenic autoimmune disease known as IPEX (immune dysregulation, polyendocrinopathy, enteropathy, X-linked syndrome)

A

T reg Cells

93
Q

In the immature form these cells are adapted for recognition and uptake of pathogens. Maturation is associated with expression of CCR7, migration to lymph nodes and enhanced capacity for antigen presentation.

A

Dendritic cells

94
Q

These cells can be rapidly mobilised from bone marrow. They express pathogen recognition receptors and Fc receptors and are able to engage in oxidative and non-oxidative killing. They do not express HLA class II molecules and so do not activate CD4 T cells. They are the predominant cell type in synovial fluid taken from patients with gout

A

Neutrophils

95
Q

These cells may be formed following a germinal centre reaction involving isotype switching and affinity maturation of receptors. They are long-lived and reside in bone marrow.

A

Plasma cells

96
Q

These cells express CD3 and secrete IL-17 and IL-22. They are thought to be important in some auto-immune conditions including rheumatoid arthritis.

A

Th17 cells

97
Q

These cells may be resident in peripheral tissues (eg Kupffer cells in liver, microglia in neural tissue) express pathogen recognition receptors and Fc receptors and are able to engage in oxidative and non-oxidative killing. They are an important source of cytokines such as IL-1 and TNF-alpha and are thought to play an important role in some auto-inflammatory and auto-immune diseases.

A

Macrophage

98
Q

The normal function of these cells is to express cytokines in response to recognition of specific peptides presented by HLA class II molecules. Depletion of these cells during HIV infection is an important factor in development of AIDS.

A

CD4 cells

99
Q

Functions of the spleen?

A

Red pulp - reservoir of red cells and platelets. Filtering of phagocytosis and particulate matter.
White pulp - reservoir of lymphocytes and 2nd lymphoid organ.
Marginal zone - screen circulation of pathogens clears microorganisms and viruses.

100
Q

Increased risk of what infections without a spleen?

A

Encapsulated bacteria - Strep pneumonia, HIB, Neisseria Meningitidis.
Malaria (as spleen clears infected RBCs)

101
Q

Vaccines required after splenectomy?

A

Pneumonia, HIB, Meningococcus, Influenza

102
Q

Prophylactic treatment after splenectomy?

A

Prophylactic Pen V for at least 2y. Also carry medic alter bracelet and take antibiotics when travelling.

103
Q

Conditions associated with hyposlenism?

A

Haematological: SCD, Thal, lymphoproliferative, post BMT.
GI: coeliac and IBD
CTD: SLE

104
Q

Play a role in protective immunity against HIV infection by killing virus infected cells via perforin and FAS.

A

CD8 T cells

105
Q

Acts as a co-receptor for HIV entry to cells

A

CCR5

106
Q

Directs homing of dendritic cells to lymph nodes

A

CCR7

107
Q

Cells Are often infected by HIV if they express CD4

A

Marophages

108
Q

Antibodies against this target are partially protective against HIV infection

A

gp120

109
Q

Is quantitation of complement useful in assessment of type IV autoimmune diseases?

A

No

110
Q

Factors to monitors SLE disease?

A

Anti-DNA ab and Complement C3 and C4

111
Q

Mutation in MEFV leads to failure to regulate neutrophil function

A

Familial Mediterranean Fever

112
Q

Polygenic auto-inflammatory disease in which NOD-2 (CARD 15) mutations are common

A

Chrons

113
Q

Mixed pattern disease with very high heritability (>90%) and a strong association with HLA-B27

A

Ankylosing Spondylitis

114
Q

Polygenic auto-immune disease associated with polymorphisms in PAD enzymes (which citrullinate proteins). Environmental factors including smoking and gum infection are associated with disease.

A

RA

115
Q

Monogenic auto-immune disease due to a mutation in Foxp3

A

IPEX (immune dysregulation polyendocrinopathy, enteropathy, X linked syndrome)

116
Q

Antibody associated with congenital heart block in mothers with SLE?

A

Anti-Ro

117
Q

Antibody associated with Lupus nephritis?

A

Anti-DNA

118
Q

Antibody Associated with mixed connective tissue disease?

A

Anti-RNP

119
Q

Antibody associated with Limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis?

A

Anti-centromere

120
Q

Antibody associated with Sjogren’s?

A

Anti-Ro

121
Q

Disease assocaited with anti-smooth muscle antibody?

A

Autoimmune hepatitis

122
Q

Disease assocaited with anti-endomysial and anti-TTG antibodies?

A

Coeliac AND dematitis herpatiformis

123
Q

Disease associated with anti-mitochondrial antibody?

A

Primary Biliary Cirrhosis

124
Q

Allograft rejection type Mediated predominantly by antibodies which usually form after the transplantation

A

Acute vascular rejection

125
Q

Allograft rejection type Both immunological and non-immunological mechanisms contribute

A

Chronic rejection

126
Q

Allograft rejection Due to presence of pre-formed antibodies

A

Hyperacute rejection

127
Q

Allograft rejection Mediated by activation of CD4 T cells which provide help for a CD8 T cell and B cell response and occurs within 1-4 weeks

A

Acute cellular rejection.

128
Q

Vaccines contraindicated in immunecompromised?

A 
MMR, Polio, BCG, Yellow fever. 
MMR BOY (MMR, BCG, Oral polio, Yellow Fever).
129
Q

Side Effects of Steroids?

A

Psychosis
Cataracts, glaucoma, thin hair, cushings, peptic ulceration, acne, hypertension, DM, poor wound healing, osteoporosis, proximal muscle wasting.

130
Q

Use multiple immunosuppressive drugs to minimise toxicity? Combination for kidney transplant is? (3)

A

Tacrolimus
Mycophenolate
Corticosteroids

131
Q

A 58 year old pharmacist presents with a 3 month history of skin itching associated with lethargy and loss of energy.
Physical examination is normal, but liver function tests reveal:
Total bilirubin = 36umol/l (0-17umol/l)
ALT = 28U/l (0-31U/l)
Alkaline phosphatase 420U/l (30-130). Which autoantibody?

A

Anti-mitochondrial (PBC)

132
Q

A 56 year old prison officer presents with a history of recurrent nose bleeds, haemoptysis and joint pain associated with profound lethargy.
On examination, he has crackles in his upper left lung field, and a cavitating left lung lesion is demonstrated on chest radiography.
Urine dipstick is positive for protein and blood. Which autoantibody?

A

Anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody

133
Q

A 22 year old woman presents with joint pain and fatigue. She has an intermittent, skin-sensitive rash, and also complains of mouth ulcers. Physical examination is otherwise normal.
Urine dipstick is positive ++ protein and ++ blood.
Full blood count shows a normocytic normochromic anaemia.
Which auto-antibody?

A

Anti-dsDNA

134
Q

A 30 year old plumber attends his GP complaining of feeling tired all the time. He has type I diabetes, which is currently well controlled, and a history of irritable bowel syndrome. A full blood count shows a microcytic hypochromic anaemia, and iron studies confirm iron deficiency. Vitamin D levels are within the insufficient range.
Which auto-antibody?

A

Anti-TTG

135
Q

A 44 year old builder presents with a history of fingers intermittently becoming very cold and white with recent development of a gangrenous tip of his finger. The skin over his fingers feels ‘tight’ and you note telangectasia on his hands.
Which auto-antibody?

A

Anti-centromere

136
Q

A 19 year old student presents with a chronic, extremely itchy rash consisting of papules and vesicles which is distributed symmetrically over the extensor surfaces of her elbows, legs and buttocks. You suspect dermatitis herpetiformis.
Which auto-antibody?

A

Anti-intrinsic facotor??

Personal Path (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions