Immunity Flashcards

1
Q

key characteristic about immune system:

A

The ability to distinguish between self and nonself

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2
Q

What are the 2 subcategories of the immune system?

A

Innate (natural) immunity
Adaptive (acquired) immunity

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3
Q

What is innate (natural) immunity

A

-First line of defense
-Activated when a pathogen is first encountered
-Initial response: Sneezing, tearing, coughing, sweating

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4
Q

What is adaptive (acquired) immunity

A

Produces antibodies with specificity for different pathogens

Becomes prominent as it develops antigen specific antibodies in response to activation by the innate system

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5
Q

Immune response of innate and adaptive immunity:

A

Humoral response
Cell mediated response

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6
Q

Humoral response:

A

Mediated by B lymphocyte antibodies circulating in the lymph or blood

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7
Q

Cell Mediated Response

A

-Produced by phagocytes, T lymphocytes, and cytokines
-Directed primarily at microbes that survive in host cells
-Plays a major role in transplanted organ rejection

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8
Q

Innate immune system

A

-Inherited
-First line of defense

-Rapid response but lacks immunological memory

-Does not require prior pathogen exposure for activation

-Response is always the same regardless of prior exposure to the same pathogen

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9
Q

Major cellular components of the innate immune system

A

Granulocytes

Agranulocytes

Dendritic cells (DCs)

Cytokines

Complement system

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10
Q

What cells are granulocytes?

A

Neutrophils
Eosinophils
Basophils

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11
Q

what cells are Agranulocytes?

A

Monocytes
Macrophages

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12
Q

What is phagocytosis?

A

The process of ingesting pathogens (bacteria, viruses, fungi, parasites, tumor cells, and apoptotic cells)
Exposes the pathogen to intracellular chemical pathways that destroy it

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13
Q

What cells are phagocytes?

A

Neutrophil

Eosinophils
Monocytes
Macrophages

Dendritic cells

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14
Q

Opsonization:

A

Antibodies and complements (opsonins) bind to the pathogen and mark it for destruction by the phagocytes

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15
Q

Mononuclear Phagocyte System (MPS):

A

-Formerly called the reticuloendothelial system
-Includes phagocytes located in reticular connective tissues (including in the lymph nodes, spleen, lungs, and liver)
-Activated when the MPS encounters a pathogen
-The MPS phagocytes secrete cytokines that promote migration of neutrophils, monocytes, eosinophils, and basophils to the infection site
-Also secrete colony-stimulating factors that stimulate production and release of additional phagocytes from the bone marrow

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16
Q

PAMPs:

A

PRRs can recognize specific pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs) found exclusively on bacteria, fungi, parasites, and viruses

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17
Q

DAMPs:

A

PRRs also recognize danger-associated molecular patterns (DAMPs) on stressed host cells in response to infection, trauma, ischemia, and tissue damage
Also called alarmins

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18
Q

NEUTROPHILS:

A

Most numerous white blood cells (WBCs)***

-Sensitive to the acidic environment of infected tissues

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19
Q

What are neutrophils responsible for?

A

-Responsible for elevated WBCs that occur with infection

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20
Q

What is the half-life of neutrophils?

A

-The half-life of 6 hours

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21
Q

What do dying neutrophils turn in to?

A

-Dying neutrophils become part of the purulent exudate at the site of infection

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22
Q

Where are Langerhans cells found?

A

in epidermis

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23
Q

Where are kupffer cells found?

A

liver
alveolar cells in the lungs microglia cells in the CNS

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24
Q

Basophils:

A

Least common blood granulocyte

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25
Mast Cells:
Reside in peripheral tissues, especially connective tissue close to blood vessels
26
What do basophils and mast cells do?
Key initiators of immediate hypersensitivity reactions through the release of histamine, leukotrienes, cytokines, and prostaglandins Play a major role in atopic allergies (hay fever, asthma, eczema) Respond directly to bacterial pathogens
27
where are Eosinophils concentrated?
GI mucosa respiratory tract urinary tract
28
What do eosinophils primarily defend against?
parasites
29
what do eosinophils release to kill microbes
cytokines
30
what do eosinophils play a role in?
allergic reactions and asthma
31
Where are dendritic cells found?
concentrated in: secondary lymphoid tissue --spleen -lymph nodes -mucosa-associated lymphoid tissues -skin -mucous membranes
32
What are the Most potent antigen-presenting cells (APCs)
Dendritic cells
33
What other cells cytokines include?
Interleukins Interferons (IFNs) Tumor necrosis factor (TNF) Chemokines
34
Tumor necrosis factor (TNF)
TNF-α: Primary role is regulation of proinflammatory effects, including induction of fever
35
Complement system: what does it complement?
the innate and adaptive immune systems
36
Main function of the complement system
Main function: Mark pathogens for permanent destruction and recruit other immune cells to destroy the pathogens
37
What are the 2 pathways of the complement system?
Classic pathway Alternative pathway
38
Classic pathway:
C1
39
Alternative pathway:
C3 (C3a, c3b, c4a, c5a, c5b, c6-9
40
is the innate or adaptive immune system response faster?
innate
41
What does the adaptive immune system do?
Produces antibodies with specificity for different pathogens
42
What does the adaptive immune system do?
Produces antibodies with specificity for different pathogens
43
does the innate or adaptive have a more aggressive response?
adaptive
44
Types of mature lymphocytes (4)
B lymphocytes (B cells) T lymphocytes (T cells) Natural killer cells (NK) Natural killer T cells (NKT)
45
B cells function:
production of antibodies N terminal and C terminal
46
Five classes of immunoglobulin (Ig):
IgG IgM IgA IgE IgD
47
IgG
– gamma chains
48
IgM
– mu chains
49
IgA
– alpha chains
50
IgE
– epsilon chains
51
IgD
– delta chains
52
Where do T cells originate?
bone marrow mature and differentiate in the thymus before migrating to secondary lymphoid organs
53
Two types of T cells produced in the thymus:
T helper (Th) cells T killer or cytotoxic (Tc) cells
54
Two types of T cells produced in the thymus:
T helper (Th) cells T killer or cytotoxic (Tc) cells
55
Natural killer cells (NK)- do they directly attack pathogens?
Do NOT directly attack pathogens
56
Histamine is the most important mediator of:
Type I hypersensitivity reactions
57
Immediate Hypersensitivity occurs within:
15-30 minutes of exposure to the antigen
58
Binding of histamine to H1 receptors triggers:
bronchoconstriction increased vascular permeability vasodilation urticaria pruritus increased gut permeability increased mucus production
59
Binding of histamine to H2 receptors triggers:
increased gastric acid secretion decreases histamine release from mast cells and basophils
60
Anaphylaxis symptoms:
angioedema systemic vasodilation hypotension extravasation of protein and fluid bronchospasm dysrhythmias
61
Treatment of Type I Hypersensitivity reaction:
-Antihistamines – to prevent systemic effects of histamine -Cromolyn sodium – to prevent mast cell degranulation -Bronchodilators – to treat bronchospasm
62
Cause of intraoperative anaphylaxis: ****
1. Neuromuscular blockade drugs 2.Antibiotics 3.Latex
63
Symptoms of anaphylaxis in the anesthetized patient:
Hypotension tachycardia bronchospasm…. followed quickly by: hypovolemia shock hypoxemia
64
If anaphylaxis is left untreated it will result in:
rapid progression to pulseless electrical activity (PEA) and cardiac arrest
65
Front-line tx for intraop anaphylaxis
Epinephrine (*definitive treatment) Rapid administration of IV fluids Arginine vasopressin Methylene blue Glucagon
66
2nd line treatment for anaphylaxis:
Antihistamines H₁ antagonists H₂ antagonists Bronchodilators β₂ agonists Albuterol Terbutaline Ipatropium bromide (Atrovent) Corticosteroids – for airway edema
67
examples of type 2 reactions
-Type I diabetes mellitus -Myasthenia gravis -Drug-induced hemolytic anemia -Granulocytopenia -Thrombocytopenia -Transfusion reactions -Anemia -Goodpasture’s nephritis
68
Examples of type 3:
systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), serum sickness rheumatoid arthritis (RA)
69
example of type 5:
Graves’ disease
70
Examples of type 4
Contact hypersensitivity (poison ivy) Granulomatous sensitivity (tuberculosis and leprosy)
71
6 most common autoimmune diseases
Graves’ disease Hashimoto thyroiditis Multiple sclerosis (MS) Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) Type 1 diabetes mellitus
72
The CDC defines a surgical site infection as:
one that occurs at or near the surgical incision within 30 days of the procedure or within 1 year of the implantation of a prosthetic device***
73
What drug causes the greatest depression of the immune system?
Morphine
74
Regional Anesthesia:
Attenuates the surgical stress response and supports the preservation of normal immune function
75
weaker immune modulation drugs
Hydromorphone oxycodone tramadol hydrocodone
76
strong immune modulation drugs
Codeine methadone remifentanil fentanyl
77
ASA:
reduces cancer metastasis
78
chronic inflammation is a sign of:
autoimmune disease