Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Principles-Other > Immunity > Flashcards

Immunity Flashcards

1
Q

key characteristic about immune system:

A

The ability to distinguish between self and nonself

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the 2 subcategories of the immune system?

A

Innate (natural) immunity
Adaptive (acquired) immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is innate (natural) immunity

A

-First line of defense
-Activated when a pathogen is first encountered
-Initial response: Sneezing, tearing, coughing, sweating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is adaptive (acquired) immunity

A

Produces antibodies with specificity for different pathogens

Becomes prominent as it develops antigen specific antibodies in response to activation by the innate system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Immune response of innate and adaptive immunity:

A

Humoral response
Cell mediated response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Humoral response:

A

Mediated by B lymphocyte antibodies circulating in the lymph or blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Cell Mediated Response

A

-Produced by phagocytes, T lymphocytes, and cytokines
-Directed primarily at microbes that survive in host cells
-Plays a major role in transplanted organ rejection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Innate immune system

A

-Inherited
-First line of defense

-Rapid response but lacks immunological memory

-Does not require prior pathogen exposure for activation

-Response is always the same regardless of prior exposure to the same pathogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Major cellular components of the innate immune system

A

Granulocytes

Agranulocytes

Dendritic cells (DCs)

Cytokines

Complement system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What cells are granulocytes?

A

Neutrophils
Eosinophils
Basophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what cells are Agranulocytes?

A

Monocytes
Macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is phagocytosis?

A

The process of ingesting pathogens (bacteria, viruses, fungi, parasites, tumor cells, and apoptotic cells)
Exposes the pathogen to intracellular chemical pathways that destroy it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Opsonization:

A

Antibodies and complements (opsonins) bind to the pathogen and mark it for destruction by the phagocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

NEUTROPHILS:

A

Most numerous white blood cells (WBCs)***

-Sensitive to the acidic environment of infected tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are neutrophils responsible for?

A

-Responsible for elevated WBCs that occur with infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the half-life of neutrophils?

A

-The half-life of 6 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What do dying neutrophils turn in to?

A

purulent exudate at the site of infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Where are Langerhans cells found?

A

in epidermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Where are kupffer cells found?

A

liver
alveolar cells in the lungs
microglia cells in the CNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Basophils:

A

Least common blood granulocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Mast Cells:

A

Reside in peripheral tissues, especially connective tissue close to blood vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What do basophils and mast cells do?

A

Key initiators of immediate hypersensitivity reactions through the release of histamine, leukotrienes, cytokines, and prostaglandins

Play a major role in atopic allergies (hay fever, asthma, eczema)

Respond directly to bacterial pathogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

where are Eosinophils concentrated?

A

GI mucosa
respiratory tract
urinary tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what do eosinophils play a role in?

A

allergic reactions and asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Where are dendritic cells found?

A

concentrated in:
-spleen
-lymph nodes
-mucosa-associated lymphoid tissues
-skin
-mucous membranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the Most potent antigen-presenting cells (APCs)

A

Dendritic cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What other cells do cytokines include?

A

Interleukins

Interferons (IFNs)

Tumor necrosis factor (TNF)

Chemokines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Tumor necrosis factor (TNF)

A

TNF-α:
Primary role is regulation of proinflammatory effects, including induction of fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Complement system: what does it complement?

A

the innate and adaptive immune systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Main function of the complement system

A

Main function: Mark pathogens for permanent destruction and recruit other immune cells to destroy the pathogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the 2 pathways of the complement system?

A

Classic pathway

Alternative pathway

32
Q

Classic pathway:

A

C1

33
Q

Alternative pathway:

A

C3
(C3a, c3b, c4a, c5a, c5b, c6-9

34
Q

is the innate or adaptive immune system response faster?

A

innate

35
Q

What does the adaptive immune system do?

A

Produces antibodies with specificity for different pathogens

36
Q

What does the adaptive immune system do?

A

Produces antibodies with specificity for different pathogens

37
Q

does the innate or adaptive have a more aggressive response?

A

adaptive

38
Q

Types of mature lymphocytes (4)

A

B lymphocytes (B cells)
T lymphocytes (T cells)
Natural killer cells (NK)
Natural killer T cells (NKT)

39
Q

B cells function:

A

production of antibodies

N terminal and C terminal

40
Q

Five classes of immunoglobulin (Ig):

A

IgG

IgM

IgA

IgE

IgD

41
Q

Where do T cells originate?

A

bone marrow

mature and differentiate in the thymus before migrating to secondary lymphoid organs

42
Q

Two types of T cells produced in the thymus:

A

T helper (Th) cells
T killer or cytotoxic (Tc) cells

43
Q

Natural killer cells (NK)- do they directly attack pathogens?

A

Do NOT directly attack pathogens

44
Q

Histamine is the most important mediator of:

A

Type I hypersensitivity reactions

45
Q

Immediate Hypersensitivity occurs within:

A

15-30 minutes of exposure to the antigen

46
Q

Binding of histamine to H1 receptors triggers:

A

bronchoconstriction
increased vascular permeability
vasodilation
urticaria
pruritus
increased gut permeability
increased mucus production

47
Q

Binding of histamine to H2 receptors triggers:

A

increased gastric acid secretion

decreases histamine release from mast cells and basophils

48
Q

Anaphylaxis symptoms:

A

angioedema
systemic vasodilation
hypotension
extravasation of protein and fluid
bronchospasm
dysrhythmias

49
Q

Treatment of Type I Hypersensitivity reaction:

A

-Antihistamines – to prevent systemic effects of histamine

-Cromolyn sodium – to prevent mast cell degranulation

-Bronchodilators – to treat bronchospasm

50
Q

Cause of intraoperative anaphylaxis: **

A
  1. Neuromuscular blockade drugs

2.Antibiotics

3.Latex

51
Q

Symptoms of anaphylaxis in the anesthetized patient:

A

Hypotension
tachycardia bronchospasm….

followed quickly by:
hypovolemia
shock
hypoxemia

52
Q

If anaphylaxis is left untreated it will result in:

A

rapid progression to pulseless electrical activity (PEA) and cardiac arrest

53
Q

Front-line tx for intraop anaphylaxis

A

Epinephrine (*definitive treatment)

Rapid administration of IV fluids

Arginine vasopressin

Methylene blue

Glucagon

54
Q

2nd line treatment for anaphylaxis:

A

Antihistamines
H₁ antagonists
H₂ antagonists
Bronchodilators
β₂ agonists
Albuterol
Terbutaline
Ipatropium bromide (Atrovent)
Corticosteroids – for airway edema

55
Q

examples of type 2 reactions

A

-Type I diabetes mellitus
-Myasthenia gravis
-Drug-induced hemolytic anemia
-Granulocytopenia
-Thrombocytopenia
-Transfusion reactions
-Anemia
-Goodpasture’s nephritis

56
Q

Examples of type 3:

A

systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE),

serum sickness

rheumatoid arthritis (RA)

57
Q

example of type 5:

A

Graves’ disease

58
Q

Examples of type 4

A

Contact hypersensitivity (poison ivy)

Granulomatous sensitivity (tuberculosis and leprosy)

59
Q

6 most common autoimmune diseases

A

Graves’ disease

Hashimoto thyroiditis

Multiple sclerosis (MS)

Rheumatoid arthritis (RA)

Systemic lupus

erythematosus (SLE)

Type 1 diabetes mellitus

60
Q

The CDC defines a surgical site infection as:

A

one that occurs at or near the surgical incision within 30 days of the procedure

or

within 1 year of the implantation of a prosthetic device***

61
Q

What drug causes the greatest depression of the immune system?

A

Morphine

62
Q

Regional Anesthesia:

A

Attenuates the surgical stress response and supports the preservation of normal immune function

63
Q

weaker immune modulation drugs

A

Hydromorphone
oxycodone
tramadol
hydrocodone

64
Q

strong immune modulation drugs

A

Codeine
methadone
remifentanil
fentanyl

65
Q

ASA:

A

reduces cancer metastasis

66
Q

chronic inflammation is a sign of:

A

autoimmune disease

67
Q

What do eosinophils play a role in?

A

allergic reactions and asthma

68
Q

Persistent presence at sites of chronic infection

A

Monocytes and Macrophages:

69
Q

Live attenuated vaccines

A

MMR
VARICELLA
INFLUENZA
ROTAVIRUS
ZOSTER
YELLOW FEVER

70
Q

Laparoscopic surgery is associated with:

A

decreased immune suppression and attenuates the cytokine cascade

71
Q

Blood transfusion is associated with

A

-immune system depression
-increased incidence of surgical site infection
-earlier recurrence of cancer

-Higher allograft survival rates
-An increased risk of postoperative infections
-Increased risk of tumor recurrence after excision
-Activation of latent viral infections
-Improvement in autoimmune disease

72
Q

A patient experiences an anaphylactic reaction to an antibiotic while under anesthesia. The patient remains hypotensive despite epinephrine and hydration. The next appropriate step would be to administer

A. phenylephrine
B. albumin 5%
C. ephedrine
D. arginine vasopressin
A

D. arginine vasopressin

73
Q

Which demographic is most likely to experience a type I hypersensitivity reaction under anesthesia?

A. Adult female
B. Adult male
C. Adolescent female
D. Adolescent male
A

A. Adult female

74
Q

The humoral immune response is directed by

A. phagocytes
B. B lymphocytes
C. T lymphocytes
D. cytokines
A

C. T lymphocytes

75
Q

What is the definitive treatment for anaphylaxis?

A. Diphenhydramine
B. Albuterol
C. Epinephrine
D. Lidocaine
A

C. Epinephrine

76
Q

Seventy percent of anesthesia-related allergic reactions are

A. IgA-mediated type I reactions
B. IgE-mediated type I reactions
C. IgM-mediated delayed-onset reactions
D. IgG-mediated globulin reactions

A

B. IgE-mediated type I reactions

Principles-Other (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions