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APA 2 > Immune System - Quiz 1 > Flashcards

Immune System - Quiz 1 Flashcards

1
Q

When does immune system start to develop?

A

6 weeks of age

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2
Q

What is the function of immune system?

A

Support; protection; vitalized functions; maintaine homeostasis

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3
Q

What are the 2 structures of the immune system?

A
  1. Non-specific or Innate; 2. Specific
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4
Q

Which immune system is the primary defense against bacterial bacterial invasion?

A

Innate

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5
Q

What is involved in the innate immune system? (5)

A

Integument; phagocytosis; Killer T cells; body’s physical response; plasma proteins

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6
Q

What is phagocytosis? Which immune response?

A

Consumtion of harmful foreign toxins - innate

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7
Q

What are Killer T cells? Which immune response?

A

Destroy many virus infected cells - innate

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8
Q

What is the body’s physical immune response?

A

Coughing, sneezing, tearing, sweating, body temp, normal flora

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9
Q

What is passive immunity? Which immune response?

A

Antibodies (activated T cells) given to provide protection (transfusion, mother’s breast milk) - innate

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10
Q

What is acquired/adaptive immunity?

A

Destruction of specific organisms and toxins by ANTIBODIES AND SPECIFIC LYMPHOCYTES

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11
Q

What 2 things interact to form antibodies? What is produced?

A

Antigens interact with B-lymphocytes—> produce Immunogobulins (Ig)

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12
Q

What are the 2 branches of acquired immunity?

A

Humoral and Cell-mediated branch

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13
Q

What is involved in humoral branch immunity? Origination?

A

B lymphocytes and Ig molecules —> bone marrow and plasma cells

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14
Q

What is involved in cell-mediated branch immunity? Origination and maturation location?

A

T lymphocytes (helper T cells and cytotoxic T cells) —> bone marrow, matures in Thymus

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15
Q

What part of immunity do vaccinations belong in?

A

Acquired/adaptive immunity

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16
Q

What are the 3 main granulocyte components?

A

Neutrophils and basophils and eosinophils

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17
Q

What are neutrophils involved in?

A

Fight bacterial and fungal infections

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18
Q

Which is the most abundant type of WBC?

A

Neutrophils

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19
Q

What are basophils involved in? What do they do?

A

Involved in hypersensitivity reactions; release histamine, leukotrines, cytokines, and prostaglandins==> can lead to bad allergic reactions. Also stimulate smooth muscle contraction

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20
Q

What are eosinophils? Locations (3)?

A

Fight against parasites -> heavy in GI tract, also in respiratory and urinary mucosa

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21
Q

What are the 2 main agranulocytes?

A

Monocytes and lymphocytes

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22
Q

What do monocytes do?

A

Phagocytosis; release cytokines (transmit signals); present pieces of pathogens to T-lymphocytes

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23
Q

What are the 2 types of lymphocytes?

A

B and T lymphocytes

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24
Q

What do B lymphocytes do?

A

Humoral immunity —> produce antibodies

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25
Q

What do T-lymphocytes do?

A

Cell-mediated immunity (no antibodies)

26
Q

Is inflammation innate or acquired? What are the 5 things involved?

A

Innate AND acquired - 1. Localized vasodilation; 2. Increased blood flow; 3. Increased capillary permeability; 4. Extravasation of plasma proteins; chemotactic movement of leukocytes to injury

27
Q

What are the 3 clinical manifestations of inflammation?

A

Erythema, localized edema, pain

28
Q

What 2 immune cells are involved in allergic reactions?

A

Antibodies attaché to MAST cells and Basophils

29
Q

Who many histamine receptors are there?

A

3

30
Q

What blocks H1 receptors?

A

Benadryl

31
Q

What blocks H2 receptors?

A

Pepcid and ranitidine

32
Q

What do H1 receptors cause

A

Smooth muscle contraction (except vasculature); vasodilation; increased vascular permeability

33
Q

What do H2 receptors cause?

A

Stimulate gastric secretion and cardiac stimulation

34
Q

What are the 4 hypersensitivity groups?

A

Type 1 (anaphylaxis); Type 2 (cytotoxic/hemolytic anemia); Type 3 (immune complex disease/autoimmune); Type 4 (cell mediated/delayed sensitivity)

35
Q

What type of sensitivity reaction is latex?

A

Type 1 and 4

36
Q

What is required for an anaphylactic reaction (2)?

A

IgE mediated; requires prior exposure

37
Q

What is required for an anaphylactoid reaction? What is the difference?

A

Non-IgE mediated; may occur with first exposure; need greater exposure than with anaphylaxis; otherwise same as anaphylaxis

38
Q

What percent of adults/fetal are true drug reactions?

A

5% adults; 0.1% fetal

39
Q

What is the most common drug reaction? Percentage?

A

60% - muscle relaxants - rocuronium (quarternary ammonium)

40
Q

What is the second most common drug reaction? Percentage?

A

Latex - 15%

41
Q

What is the 3rd most common drug reaction? Percentage?

A

Antibiotics (5-10%)

42
Q

What is the 4th most common drug reaction? Percentage?

A

Opioids (<5%)

43
Q

What symptoms of transfusion reaction are able to be observed under anesthesia

A

1 hemoglobinuria, hypotension, and bleeding

44
Q

What symptoms of transfusion reaction are masked by anesthesia?

A

Fever, chills, chest pain, flank pain, nausea, flushing

45
Q

What are common reactions to ABO incompatibility (3)?

A

DIC, renal failure, death

46
Q

Who is at high risk for latex allergy?

A

Spina bifida, genitourinary tract defects, neural tube defects, multiple surgeries, healthcare workers

47
Q

Who is at the highest risk for autoimmune diseases?

A

Females of child bearing and working age

48
Q

What regional anesthetic technique alters immunity? What part?

A

Epidurals have a significant but transient alteration of lymphocytes and Killer T cell activity

49
Q

Which class of medications decrease ciliary activity increasing risk of infection?

A

Hypnotics

50
Q

What effect do pts with HIV on non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTIs) have regarding anesthesia?

A

Meds INDUCE CYP 450 system—> will metabolize drugs FASTER

51
Q

What 2 cancers are associated with HIV?

A

Non-Hodgkin lymphoma (lesions in CNS) & Kaposi’s Sarcoma (endothelial tissue)

52
Q

What is the most common opportunistic pathogen in HIV patients?

A

Pneumocystic carinii

53
Q

What carries the highest risk of occupational HIV exposure? Percentage?

A

Open-bore needles (0.3%)

54
Q

What is the risk of HIV exposure after mucous membrane exposure?

A

0.09%

55
Q

What is most common presentation of SLE?

A

Polyarthritis and dermatitis

56
Q

What is SLE?

A

Chronic inflammatory disease that reduces antinuclear antibodies

57
Q

What is the most common cause of death of SLE patients?

A

Renal disease (>50% of SLE pts have this)

58
Q

What are 2 common drugs in use that exacerbate SLE?

A

Procainamide and hydralazine

59
Q

What 2 autoimmune diseases can cricoarytenoid arthritis be seen in?

A

SLE and RA

60
Q

What possible interaction can cyclophosphamide have regarding anesthetics? Used in which 2 autoimmune diseases?

A

Inhibits plasma cholinesterase —> succs and ester LA can have longer effect - used in both SLE and RA

61
Q

Which 2 autoimmune disease may require corticosteroid blouses because of adrenal insufficiency during anesthesia?

A

SLE and RA

APA 2 (2 decks)

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