Immune System HW Qs

Question 1

Which substance history of a severe allergic reaction results in avoidance of the cephalosporins such as cefazolin, cefditoren, cefotetan, and ceftriaxone? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct.
A. Milk
B. Aspirin
C. Calcium
D. Penicillin
E. Strawberries

Answer 1

A. Milk
B. Aspirin
C. Calcium
D. Penicillin

Question 2

Which medication is considered first-line therapy for an infant with congenital syphilis?
A. Vidarabine
B. Pyrimethamine
C. Intravenous (IV) penicillin
D. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

Answer 2

C. Intravenous (IV) penicillin

Question 3

A client is prescribed ampicillin sodium (Omnipen) for a sinus infection. The nurse should instruct the client to notify the healthcare provider immediately if which symptom occurs?
A. Rash.
B. Nausea.
C. Headache.
D. Dizziness.

Answer 3

A. Rash

Question 4

While taking a medical history, the client states, “I am allergic to penicillin.” What related allergy to another type of antiinfective agent should the nurse ask the client about when taking the nursing history?
A. Aminoglycosides.
B. Cephalosporins.
C. Sulfonamides.
D. Tetracyclines.

Answer 4

B. Cephalosporins

Question 5

The nurse is monitoring a client who received a first dose of intravenous ampicillin. Which finding should indicate to the nurse that the client may be experiencing an allergic reaction?
A. Abdominal pain
B. Increase in blood pressure
C. Hypotensive bowel sounds
D. Hives on the extremities

Answer 5

D. Hives on the extremities

Question 6

The nurse is providing education to the parent of a pediatric client receiving amoxicillin clavulanate suspension. Which of the following statements is appropriate?
A. Use the measuring device provided by the pharmacy
B. You should take this medication on an empty stomach
C. Avoid shaking the medication before opening
D. Take the medication with a glass of juice

Answer 6

A. Use the measuring device provided by the pharmacy

Question 7

A nurse is administering an intravenous piggyback infusion of penicillin. Which client statement would require the nurse’s immediate attention?
A. “I am itching all over.”
B. “I have soreness and aching in my muscles.”
C. “I have cramping in my stomach.”
D. “I have a burning sensation when I urinate.”

Answer 7

A. “I am itching all over.”

Question 8

A 2 year-old child is being treated with amoxicillin suspension, 200 milligrams per dose, for acute otitis media. The child weighs 33 lb (15 kg) and the daily dose range is 20 to 40 mg/kg of body weight, in three divided doses every eight hours. Using principles of safe drug administration, what should a nurse do next?
A. Recognize that antibiotics are over-prescribed
B. Call the health care provider to clarify the dose
C. Hold the medication because the dosage is too low
D. Give the medication as ordered

Answer 8

D. Give the medication as ordered

Question 9

The nurse is preparing to administer ceftriaxone to a client. Which of the following findings from the client’s medical record should cause the nurse to question this prescription?
A. White blood cells in the urine
B. History of hypertension
C. Allergy to cephalexin
D. Current tobacco smoker

Answer 9

C. Allergy to cephalexin

Question 10

At 6 weeks’ gestation a client is found to have gonorrhea. For which medication would the nurse anticipate preparing a teaching plan?
A. Ceftriaxone
B. Levofloxacin
C. Sulfasalazine
D. Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole

Answer 10

A. Ceftriaxone

Question 11

Which fact about ceftriaxone medication therapy will the nurse emphasize when teaching a client diagnosed with gonorrhea?
A. Cures the infection
B. Prevents complications
C. Controls its transmission
D. Reverses pathologic changes

Answer 11

A. Cures the infection

Question 12

During an assessment the client mentions taking cefotetan and drinking a few cocktails at dinner. Which symptoms might be explained by this medication–alcohol interaction? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct.
A. Pruritus
B. Diaphoresis
C. Hypotension
D. Hypertension
E. Stomach cramps
F. Chest pain

Answer 12

A. Pruritus
B. Diaphoresis
C. Hypotension
E. Stomach cramps

Question 13

A nurse receives a prescription to administer intravenous cefepime to a client with a bacterial infection. The client has a history of lung cancer and is on a continuous cisplatin infusion. How will the nurse administer the prescribed medication?
A. Piggyback the cefepime onto the cisplatin infusion
B. Wait for the cisplatin infusion to finish before administering cefepime
C. Infuse the cefepime via IV push at the proximal port
D. Initiate a new intravenous line for the cefepime infusion

Answer 13

D. Initiate a new intravenous line for the cefepime infusion

Question 14

Which education would the nurse provide the parents of an infant receiving the first diphtheria and tetanus toxoids and acellular pertussis vaccine (DTaP) at 2 months of age?
A. Give the baby aspirin if there is pain.
B. Call the clinic if marked drowsiness occurs.
C. Apply ice to the injection site if there is swelling.
D. Provide heat at the injection site if redness occurs.

Answer 14

B. Call the clinic if marked drowsiness occurs.

Question 15

Which health history would the nurse consider a contraindication to administering the second diphtheria/tetanus/pertussis (DTaP) immunization to a 4-month-old infant?
A. Allergy to eggs
B. Lactose intolerance
C. Infectious dermatitis
D. High fever after the first dose

Answer 15

D. High fever after the first dose

Question 16

The nurse is planning to administer a series of vaccines to a 4-year-old child including the DTap, IPV, MMR, and VAR. Before administering the vaccines, what information should the nurse be aware of? Select all that apply.
A. Either the deltoid muscle of the arm or anterolateral thigh muscle can be used
B. A 20 gauge needle is used to administer the varicella (VAR) vaccine intramuscularly (IM)
C. A 5/8 inch needle length is often used for subcutaneous (SubQ) injections
D. The vaccines contain the preservative thimerosal
E. Multiple immunizations should be administered a minimum of 1 inch apart
F. The vaccines all contain weakened live viruses

Answer 16

A. Either the deltoid muscle of the arm or anterolateral thigh muscle can be used

C. A 5/8 inch needle length is often used for subcutaneous (SubQ) injections

E. Multiple immunizations should be administered a minimum of 1 inch apart

Question 17

Which vaccine is contraindicated for a child undergoing chemotherapy?
A. Influenza (Hib)
B. Hepatitis B (Hep B)
C. Measles, mumps, rubella (MMR)
D. Diphtheria, tetanus, acellular pertussis (DTaP)

Answer 17

C. Measles, mumps, rubella (MMR)

Question 18

Which education would the nurse provide parents about the side effects of the Haemophilus influenzae (Hib) vaccine?
A. Lethargy
B. Urticaria
C. Generalized rash
D. Low-grade fever

Answer 18

D. Low-grade fever

Question 19

The nurse is teaching parents about the side effects of immunization vaccines. Which expected side effect associated with the Haemophilus influenzae (Hib) vaccine would the nurse include in the teaching?
A. Urticaria
B. Lethargy
C. Low-grade fever
D. Generalized rash

Answer 19

C. Low-grade fever

Question 20

A 6-month-old infant is to receive scheduled immunizations. The parents ask why two influenza vaccines are given: Haemophilus influenzae type B (Hib) and pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV). Which response by the nurse is appropriate?
A. ‘PCV prevents influenza.’
B. ‘Hib is given to prevent pneumonia.’
C. ‘Hib and PCV prevent different bacterial diseases.’
D. ‘They are given together to protect against viral and bacterial diseases.’

Answer 20

C. ‘Hib and PCV prevent different bacterial diseases.’

Question 21

Which parent education would the nurse give about why the MMR vaccine is administered at 12 to 15 months of age?
A. There is an increased risk of side effects in infants.
B. Maternal antibodies provide immunity for about 1 year.
C. It interferes with the effectiveness of vaccines given during infancy.
D. There are rare instances of these infections occurring during the first year of life.

Answer 21

B. Maternal antibodies provide immunity for about 1 year.

Question 22

Which vaccine is used to prevent human papilloma virus infection?
A. Varivax
B. RotaTeq
C. Gardasil
D. Hepatitis A vaccine

Answer 22

C. Gardasil

Question 23

Which action would the nurse take when a client arrives for an influenza vaccination and reports a low-grade fever with a cough?
A. Administer aspirin with the vaccine.
B. Check the temperature and current history.
C. Hold the vaccine and notify the health care provider.
D. Reschedule administration of the vaccine for the next month.

Answer 23

B. Check the temperature and current history.

Question 24

The parent of a newborn asks the nurse why, except for hepatitis B vaccine, the immunization schedule does not start until the infant is 2 months old. Which response would the nurse provide?
A. ‘A newborn’s spleen can’t produce efficient antibodies.’
B. ‘Infants younger than 2 months are rarely exposed to infectious disease.’
C. ‘The immunization will attack the infant’s immature immune system and cause the disease.’
D. ‘Maternal antibodies interfere with the development of active antibodies by the infant when immunized.’

Answer 24

D. ‘Maternal antibodies interfere with the development of active antibodies by the infant when immunized.’

Question 25

Which immunizations would the nurse determine are safe for a child who is receiving prednisone? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct.
A. Rubeola
B. Pertussis
C. Varicella
D. Inactivated poliovirus
E. Tetanus immune globulin

Answer 25

B. Pertussis
D. Inactivated poliovirus
E. Tetanus immune globulin

Question 26

Which are the characteristics of reactions associated with immunizations for a 2-month-old infant?
A. Local or systemic and usually mild
B. Often serious, possibly requiring hospitalization
C. Sometimes causing ulceration at the injection site
D. May be responsible for permanent neurological damage

Answer 26

A. Local or systemic and usually mild

Question 27

A teenager with a deep laceration of his leg does not remember the date of the last tetanus immunization received. The nurse explains that tetanus immunoglobulin and tetanus toxoid are required. Which explanation underlies the nurse’s statement?
A. Neither medication is effective alone.
B. Both eliminate the need for additional medications.
C. Antibodies provide protection, whereas the toxoid stimulates a response.
D. Tetanus toxoid minimizes the risks related to the tetanus immunoglobulin.

Answer 27

C. Antibodies provide protection, whereas the toxoid stimulates a response.

Question 28

There is an order to administer an intramuscular influenza vaccine to an adult client. What actions should the nurse take before administration of the injection? Select all that apply.
A. Ask if the client ever had an adverse reaction to the flu vaccine
B. Have the client sign the vaccination consent form
C. Check the expiration date on the vaccination bottle
D. Provide the client with the vaccine information statement
E. Record the site and time of injection
F. Record the client’s reaction to the injection

Answer 28

A. Ask if the client ever had an adverse reaction to the flu vaccine

B. Have the client sign the vaccination consent form

C. Check the expiration date on the vaccination bottle

D. Provide the client with the vaccine information statement

Question 29

Which information will the nurse include when teaching about tetanus immune globulin prescribed to a client with a puncture wound?
A. “It will take about a week to become effective.”
B. “Immune globulin provides lifelong passive immunity.”
C. “It provides immediate, passive, short-term immunity.”
D. “Immune globulins stimulate the production of antibodies.”

Answer 29

C. “It provides immediate, passive, short-term immunity.”

Question 30

Which action would the nurse take to ensure client safety when caring for a client with human immunodeficiency virus–associated Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia that is to receive pentamidine intravenously daily? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct.
A. Monitor for decreased serum potassium levels.
B. Administer the medication over a period of 30 minutes.
C. Monitor blood pressure for hypertension during therapy.
D. Tell the client to report any evidence of bleeding immediately.
E. Assess blood glucose levels daily and several times after therapy is completed.

Answer 30

D. Tell the client to report any evidence of bleeding immediately.

E. Assess blood glucose levels daily and several times after therapy is completed.

Question 31

Tetanus immune globulin is prescribed after a client steps on a rusty nail. Which action would the nurse associate with this medication?
A. Provides antibodies
B. Stimulates plasma cells
C. Produces active immunity
D. Facilitates long-lasting immunity

Answer 31

A. Provides antibodies

Question 32

A client with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)–associated Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia is to receive pentamidine isethionate intravenously (IV) once daily. The nurse will monitor the client for which adverse effect?
A. Hypertension
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Hypercalcemia

Answer 32

C. Hypoglycemia

Question 33

A client with a diagnosis of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) receives pentamidine for a protozoal infection. The nurse will monitor the client for which common side effects? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct.
A. Leukocytosis
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Increased serum calcium
E. Decreased blood pressure

Answer 33

C. Hypoglycemia
E. Decreased blood pressure

Question 34

The nurse is preparing to administer the next dose of prescribed vancomycin to the client being treated for sepsis. Which of the following laboratory results would be the priority for the nurse to review?
A. Peak serum drug level
B. Serum potassium level
C. Serum creatinine level
D. White blood cell count

Answer 34

C. Serum creatinine level

Question 35

The nurse is caring for a client with osteomyelitis who is receiving IV infusion of prescribed vancomycin. Which statement by the client would be a priority for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?
A. I fell some burning at the catheter site
B. I feel a little nauseous
C. I have a ringing in my ears
D. I have a headache

Answer 35

C. I have a ringing in my ears

Question 36

The nurse is caring for a client who is prescribed erythromycin 500 mg orally every six hours for the treatment of pneumonia. The nurse should monitor the client for which common side effect?
A. Esophagitis
B. Tendon rupture
C. Orange-red discoloration of urine
D. Nausea and vomiting

Answer 36

D. Nausea and vomiting

Question 37

Which assessment would the nurse perform before administering a dose of vancomycin to a client? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct.
A. Creatinine
B. Trough level
C. Hearing ability
D. Intravenous site
E. Blood urea nitrogen

Answer 37

A. Creatinine
B. Trough level
C. Hearing ability
D. Intravenous site
E. Blood urea nitrogen

Question 38

Which reason will the nurse explain is the purpose for neomycin being prescribed to a client with cirrhosis?
A. Prevents an infection
B. Limits abdominal distention
C. Minimizes intestinal edema
D. Reduces the blood ammonia level

Answer 38

D. Reduces the blood ammonia level

Question 39

Which action would the nurse take when a client develops a maculopapular rash on the upper extremities and audible wheezing during the administration of intravenous vancomycin?
A. Stop the infusion
B. Decrease the flow rate
C. Reassess in 15 minutes
D. Notify the health care provider

Answer 39

A. Stop the infusion

Question 40

Neomycin is prescribed preoperatively for a client with colon cancer. The client asks why this is necessary. Which response would the nurse provide?
A. It kills cancer cells that may be missed during surgery
B. This medication is helpful in decreasing the inflammatory response associated with surgical procedures
C. It kills intestinal bacteria to decrease the risk for infection
D. This medication alters the body flora to prevent the occurrence of superinfection

Answer 40

C. It kills intestinal bacteria to decrease the risk for infection

Question 41

A client with pulmonary tuberculosis develops tinnitus and vertigo. Which antitubercular medication would the nurse suspect is causing these symptoms?
A. Isoniazid
B. Rifampin
C. Streptomycin
D. Ethambutol

Answer 41

C. Streptomycin

Question 42

A client with tuberculosis takes combination therapy with isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, and streptomycin. The client says, ‘I’ve never had to take so much medication for an infection before’. How would the nurse respond?
A. The bacteria causing this infection are difficult to destroy
B. Streptomycin prevents the side effects of the other medication
C. You only need to take the medication for a couple of weeks
D. Aggressive therapy is needed because the infection is well advanced

Answer 42

A. The bacteria causing this infection are difficult to destroy

Question 43

A client with an infection is receiving vancomycin. Which laboratory blood test result would the nurse report?
A. Hematocrit: 45%
B. Calcium: 9.0 mg/dL (2.25 mmol/L)
C. White blood cells (WBC): 10,000 mm 3 (10 x 10 9/L)
D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN): 30 mg/dL (10.2 mmol/L)

Answer 43

D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN): 30 mg/dL (10.2 mmol/L)

Question 44

A client with a history of tuberculosis reports difficulty hearing. Which medication would the nurse consider is causing is causing this response?
A. Streptomycin
B. Pyrazinamide
C. Isoniazid
D. Ethambutol

Answer 44

A. Streptomycin

Question 45

A client receiving intravenous vancomycin reports ringing in both ears. Which initial action would the nurse take?
A. Notify the primary health care provider.
B. Consult an audiologist
C. Stop the infusion
D. Document the finding and continue to monitor the client

Answer 45

C. Stop the infusion

Question 46

The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving intermittent intravenous piggyback (IVPG) doses of vancomycin every 12 hours. The primary healthcare provider prescribes trough levels of the antibiotic. The nurse schedules the blood sample to be obtained at which time?
A. Just before the medication is administered
B. Between 30 and 60 minutes after the infusion is completed
C. Six hours after the dose is completely infused
D. In the morning before the client eats breakfast

Answer 46

A. Just before the medication is administered

Question 47

After receiving streptomycin sulfate for 2 weeks as part of the medical regimen for tuberculosis, the client reports feeling dizzy and having some hearing loss. Which part of the body is the medication affecting?
A. Pyramidal
B. Cerebellar tissue
C. Peripheral motor end plates
D. Eighth cranial nerve’s vestibular branch

Answer 47

D. Eighth cranial nerve’s vestibular branch

Question 48

Which action would the nurse take to avoid red man syndrome when preparing to administer a vancomycin infusion?
A. Infuse slowly
B. Change the intravenous (IV) site
C. Reduce the dosage
D. Administer vitamin K

Answer 48

A. Infuse slowly

Question 49

The clinical nurse is planning care for a client with chlamydia. Which treatment would the nurse anticipate implementing?
A. Administration of 250 mg of acyclovir orally in a single dose
B. Administration of 1 g of azithromycin orally in a single dose
C. Administration of 250 mg of ceftriaxone intramuscularly in a single dose
D. Administration of 2.4 million units of benzathine penicillin G intramuscularly in a single dose

Answer 49

B. Administration of 1 g of azithromycin orally in a single dose

Question 50

Use of which medication would the nurse identify as a potential risk for hearing impairment in a child?
A. Amoxicillin
B. Gentamicin
C. Clindamycin
D. Ciprofloxacin

Answer 50

B. Gentamicin

Question 51

The nurse teaches an adolescent about the side effects of azithromycin. The nurse determines the teaching has been understood when the adolescent identifies which problem as the most common side effect of this medication?
A. Tinnitus
B. Diarrhea
C. Dizziness
D. Headache

Answer 51

B. Diarrhea

Question 52

Which assessment would the nurse perform before administering a dose of vancomycin to a client? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct.
A. Creatinine
B. Trough level
C. Hearing ability
D. Intravenous site
E. Blood urea nitrogen

Answer 52

A. Creatinine
B. Trough level
C. Hearing ability
D. Intravenous site
E. Blood urea nitrogen

Question 53

The nurse is caring for a client who has been prescribed vancomycin intravenous infusion for the treatment of methicillin - resistant staphylococcus aureus. Which of the following laboratory values should be immediately reported to the healthcare provider?
A. Vancomycin trough of 15 mcg/dL
B. Blood urea nitrogen level of 18 mg/dL
C. Creatinine level of 1.1 mg d/L
D. White blood cell count of 11,500 per microliter

Answer 53

A. Vancomycin trough of 15 mcg/dL

Question 54

Which action will the nurse take after stopping the antibiotic infusion of a client who becomes restless and flushed and begins to wheeze during the administration of an antibiotic?
A. Check the client’s temperature.
B. Take the client’s blood pressure.
C. Obtain the client’s pulse oximetry.
D. Assess the client’s respiratory status.

Answer 54

D. Assess the client’s respiratory status.

Question 55

Which explanation would the nurse include when teaching a client scheduled for a bowel resection about the purpose of preoperative antibiotics?
A. “They prevent incisional infection.”
B. “Antibiotics prevent postoperative pneumonia.”
C. “These medications limit the risk of a urinary tract infection.”
D. “They are given to eliminate bacteria from the gastrointestinal (GI) tract.”

Answer 55

D. “They are given to eliminate bacteria from the gastrointestinal (GI) tract.”

Question 56

A client with advanced cancer of the bladder is scheduled for a cystectomy and ileal conduit. Which intervention would the nurse anticipate the health care provider will prescribe to prepare the client for surgery?
A. Intravesical chemotherapy
B. Instillation of a urinary antiseptic
C. Administration of an antibiotic
D. Placement of an indwelling catheter

Answer 56

C. Administration of an antibiotic

Question 57

A client with burns develops a wound infection. The nurse plans to teach the client that local wound infections are primarily treated with which antibiotic formulation?
A. Oral
B. Topical
C. Intravenous
D. Intramuscular

Answer 57

B. Topical

Question 58

Which issue related to antibiotic use is an increased risk for the older adult?
A. Allergy
B. Toxicity
C. Resistance
D. Superinfection

Answer 58

B. Toxicity

Question 59

Which client would benefit most from the administration of prophylactic antibiotics? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct.
A. Chickenpox infection
B. Fever of unknown origin
C. Preoperative hip replacement
D. Congenital bicuspid aortic valve
E. Current chemotherapy treatment

Answer 59

C. Preoperative hip replacement
D. Congenital bicuspid aortic valve
E. Current chemotherapy treatment

Question 60

The nurse is preparing to administer an intravenous piggyback antibiotic that has been newly prescribed. Shortly after initiation, the client becomes restless and flushed and begins to wheeze. After stopping the infusion, which priority action will the nurse take?
A. Notify the primary health care provider immediately about the client’s condition.
B. Take the client’s blood pressure.
C. Obtain the client’s pulse oximetry.
D. Assess the client’s respiratory status.

Answer 60

D. Assess the client’s respiratory status.

Question 61

An infant is prescribed an antibiotic after cardiac surgery. Which instruction would the nurse emphasize to the parents regarding administration of the medication?
A. Give the antibiotic between feedings.
B. Ensure that the antibiotic is administered as prescribed.
C. Shake the bottle thoroughly before giving the antibiotic.
D. Keep the antibiotic in the refrigerator after the bottle has been opened.

Answer 61

B. Ensure that the antibiotic is administered as prescribed.

Question 62

A client being discharged home is prescribed an antibiotic with a dosage three times higher than it was administered when the client was in the hospital (IV route). Which route of administration should the nurse anticipate will be prescribed for the greatest first-pass effect?
A. Oral.
B. Sublingual.
C. Intravenous.
D. Subcutaneous.

Answer 62

A. Oral.

Question 63

The nurse is caring for a client with sepsis receiving broad-spectrum antibiotics. Which finding might indicate to the nurse the need for a dosage adjustment?
A. Elevated creatinine level
B. Elevated heart rate
C. Decreased white blood cell count
D. Decreased platelet count

Answer 63

A. Elevated creatinine level

Question 63

The nurse is assessing a client who is receiving antibiotic therapy for an infection. Which finding should indicate to the nurse that the client may be experiencing an allergic reaction to a medication?
A. Xerostomia
B. Hypertension
C. Pruritus
D. Lymphadenopathy

Answer 63

C. Pruritus

Question 64

The nurse in an ambulatory clinic is speaking with the parents of a 2-year-old child diagnosed with acute otitis media. Which information is most important for the nurse to include in the instructions to the parents?
A. The child may be given acetaminophen or ibuprofen drops for pain.
B. The child must complete the entire course of the prescribed antibiotic.
C. The child should return to the clinic to evaluate effectiveness of the treatment.
D. The child may be given a decongestant to relieve pressure on the tympanic

Answer 64

B. The child must complete the entire course of the prescribed antibiotic.

Question 65

The nurse in an urgent care clinic is preparing discharge instructions for the parents of a 15-month-old child with a first episode of otitis media. Which information is the priority to include?
A. Explain that the child should complete the full 10 days of antibiotics
B. Describe the tympanocentesis most likely needed to clear the infection
C. Offer information on recommended immunizations around the child’s second birthday
D. Provide a written handout describing the care of myringotomy tubes

Answer 65

A. Explain that the child should complete the full 10 days of antibiotics

Question 66

A nurse is assessing a 9-year-old child after several days of treatment for a documented strep throat. Which statement is incorrect and suggests that further teaching is needed?
A. “Sometimes I take my medicine with fruit juice.”
B. “Sometimes I take the pills in the morning and other times at night.”
C. “I am feeling much better than I did last week.”
D. “My mother makes me take my medicine right after school.”

Answer 66

B. “Sometimes I take the pills in the morning and other times at night.”

Question 67

Which of the following instructions is most important for the nurse to include when discharging a client with an infection caused by staphylococcus?
A. Schedule follow-up blood cultures
B. Monitor for signs of recurrent infection
C. Visit the provider in a few weeks
D. Complete the full course of the antibiotic

Answer 67

D. Complete the full course of the antibiotic

Question 68

Which statement indicates that a female client who is receiving rifampin for tuberculosis understands the teaching? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct.
A. “This medication may be hard on my liver, so I must avoid alcoholic drinks while taking it.”
B. “This medication may reduce the effectiveness of the oral contraceptive I am taking.”
C. “I cannot take an antacid within 2 hours before taking my medicine.”
D. “My health care provider must be called immediately if my eyes and skin become yellow.”

Answer 68

A. “This medication may be hard on my liver, so I must avoid alcoholic drinks while taking it.”
B. “This medication may reduce the effectiveness of the oral contraceptive I am taking.”
D. “My health care provider must be called immediately if my eyes and skin become yellow.”

Question 69

Which class is contraindicated in clients who take rifampin?
A. Loop diuretics
B. Oral contraceptives
C. Proton pump inhibitor
D. Intermediate-acting insulin

Answer 69

B. Oral contraceptives

Question 70

A client who takes rifampin tells the nurse, ‘My urine looks orange.’ Which action would the nurse take?
A. Explain that this is expected.
B. Check the liver enzymes.
C. Ask the provider to order a urinalysis.
D. Ask what foods were eaten.

Answer 70

A. Explain that this is expected.

Question 71

A client with tuberculosis is started on rifampin. The nurse evaluates that the teaching about rifampin is effective when the client makes which statement?
A. ‘I need to drink a lot of fluid while I take this medication.’
B. ‘My sweat will turn orange from this medication.’
C. ‘I should have my hearing tested while I take this medication.’
D. ‘Most people who take this medication develop a rash.’

Answer 71

B. ‘My sweat will turn orange from this medication.’

Question 72

A client is diagnosed with pulmonary tuberculosis, and the health care provider prescribes a combination of rifampin and isoniazid. The nurse evaluates that the teaching regarding the medications is effective when the client reports which action as most important?
A. ‘Report any changes in vision.’
B. ‘Take the medicine with my meals.’
C. ‘Call my doctor if my urine or tears turn red-orange.’
D. ‘Continue taking the medicine even after I feel better.’

Answer 72

D. ‘Continue taking the medicine even after I feel better.’

Question 73

Which statement by the client indicates to the nurse a need for further teaching on rifampin therapy?
A. ‘I can expect my skin to turn yellow.’
B. ‘I can expect my sweat to change color.’
C. ‘I can expect my urine to turn red-orange.’
D. ‘I can expect my contact lenses to stain orange.’

Answer 73

A. ‘I can expect my skin to turn yellow.’

Question 74

Clients who take rifampin should not take medications from which class?
A. Loop diuretics
B. Oral contraceptives
C. Proton pump inhibitor
D. Intermediate-acting insulin

Answer 74

B. Oral contraceptives

Question 75

A client is prescribed rifampin after being exposed to active tuberculosis. Which finding would the nurse immediately report to the health care provider? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct.
A. Reddish-orange color urine
B. Yellow-colored teeth stains
C. Orange-colored sweat and tears
D. Small, red, pinpoint areas on the arms
E. Numbness, tingling, and burning of extremities

Answer 75

D. Small, red, pinpoint areas on the arms

Question 76

The nurse is assessing a client who is taking rifampin for the treatment of tuberculosis. Which finding reported by the client should the nurse immediately report to the healthcare provider?
A. Blurred vision
B. Orange-tinged tears
C. Dark amber urine
D. Diarrhea

Answer 76

C. Dark amber urine

Question 77

A client diagnosed with tuberculosis is prescribed rifampin and isoniazid. Which information should the nurse include when reinforcing information about these medications?
A. “You can take the medication with food.”
B. “You may experience an increase in appetite.”
C. “You may notice an orange-red color to your urine.”
D. “You may have occasional problems sleeping.”

Answer 77

C. “You may notice an orange-red color to your urine.”

Question 78

A client begins treatment with rifampin for suspected pulmonary tuberculosis. Which information should the nurse include when teaching the client about this drug?
A. “It is important to stay upright for 30 minutes after taking this drug.”
B. “Check your radial pulse before taking the drug.”
C. “Avoid prolonged exposure to the sun while taking this drug.”
D. “You may notice an orange-red color to your urine.”

Answer 78

D. “You may notice an orange-red color to your urine.”

Question 79

Which adverse response to isoniazid (INH) in a client with tuberculosis would cause the nurse to determine that prompt intervention is needed?
Α. Orange feces
B. Yellow sclera
C. Temperature of 96.8°F (36°C)
D.Weight gain of 5 pounds (2.3 kilograms)

Answer 79

B. Yellow sclera

Question 80

Which purpose would the nurse identify as the reason for prescribing vitamin B6 when a chemotherapy protocol prescribed for a client with tuberculosis includes vitamin B6 and isoniazid (INH)?
A. To improve the nutritional status of the client
B. To enhance the tuberculostatic effect of INH
C. To accelerate the destruction of dormant tubercular bacilli
D. To counteract the peripheral neuritis that INH may cause

Answer 80

D. To counteract the peripheral neuritis that INH may cause

Question 81

Which explanation would the nurse provide to a client with tuberculosis who asks why vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) is given with isoniazid?
A. “It will improve your immunologic defenses”
B. “The tuberculostatic effect of isoniazid is enhanced”
C. “Isoniazid interferes with the synthesis of this vitamin”
D. “Destruction of the tuberculosis organisms is accelerated”

Answer 81

C. “Isoniazid interferes with the synthesis of this vitamin”

Question 82

A health care provider has prescribed isoniazid for a client. Which instructions will the nurse give the client about this medication?
A. Prolonged use can cause dark, concentrated urine.
B. The medication is best absorbed when taken on an empty stomach
C. Take the medication with aluminum hydroxide to minimize gastrointestinal (GI)
D. Drinking alcohol daily can cause medication-induced hepatitis

Answer 82

D. Drinking alcohol daily can cause medication-induced hepatitis

Question 83

When caring for a client on isoniazid therapy for tuberculosis, the nurse would focus on which diagnostic testing for this client?
A. Creatinine
B. Hearing tests
C. Electrocardiogram
D. Liver function tests

Answer 83

D. Liver function tests

Question 84

A client diagnosed with tuberculosis is taking isoniazid. To prevent a food and medication interaction, the nurse will advise the client to avoid which food item?
A. Hot dogs
B. Red wine
C. Sour cream
D. Grapefruit juice

Answer 84

B. Red wine

Question 85

Isoniazid (INH) is prescribed as a prophylactic measure for a client whose spouse has active tuberculosis (TB). Which statement made by the client indicate that there is a need for further teaching? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct.
A. ‘I plan to start taking vitamin B6 with breakfast’
B. ‘I’ll still be taking this medication 6 months from now’
C. ‘I sometimes allow our children to sleep in our bed at night’
D. ‘I know I also have tuberculosis because the skin test was positive’
E. ‘I plan to attend a wine tasting event this evening’

Answer 85

C. ‘I sometimes allow our children to sleep in our bed at night’
D. ‘I know I also have tuberculosis because the skin test was positive’
E. ‘I plan to attend a wine tasting event this evening’

Question 86

Pyridoxine (vitamin B6) and isoniazid (INH) are prescribed as part of the medication protocol for a client with tuberculosis. Which response indicates that vitamin B6 is effective?
A. Weight gain
B. Improvement of stomatitis
C. Absence of paresthesias
D. Absence of night sweats

Answer 86

C. Absence of paresthesias

Question 87

The chemotherapy protocol prescribed for a client with tuberculosis includes vitamin B6 and isoniazid (INH). Which would the nurse identify as the reason for prescribing vitamin B6?
A. To improve the nutritional status of the client
B. To enhance the tuberculostatic effect of INH
C. To accelerate the destruction of dormant tubercular bacilli
D. To counteract the peripheral neuritis that INH may cause

Answer 87

D. To counteract the peripheral neuritis that INH may cause

Question 88

A parent of three young children has contracted tuberculosis. Which medication would the nurse anticipate being prescribed for members of the family who have been exposed?
A. Isoniazid
B. Multiple puncture test
C. Bacilli Calmette-Guerin
D. Tuberculin purified protein derivative

Answer 88

A. Isoniazid

Question 89

The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving isoniazid for tuberculosis (TB). Which assessment finding would indicate the client is having a possible adverse response to this medication?
A. Yellowing of the sclera
B. Tinnitus and decreased hearing
C. Headache and sore throat
D. Urinary frequency

Answer 89

A. Yellowing of the sclera

Question 90

A client who is taking isoniazid for tuberculosis asks the nurse about the possible side effects of this medication. The nurse informs the client to report which side effect of this medication to the primary health care provider (HCP)?
A. Extremity tingling and numbness
B. Confusion and light headedness
C. Double vision and visual halos
D. Photosensitivity and photophobia

Answer 90

A. Extremity tingling and numbness

Question 91

Which action would the nurse take when administering tetracycline?
A. Administer the medication with meals or a snack
B. Provide orange or other citrus fruit juice with the medication
C. Administer the medication at least an hour before ingestion of milk products
D. Offer antacids 30 min after administration if gastrointestinal side effects occur

Answer 91

C. Administer the medication at least an hour before ingestion of milk products

Question 92

Which effect has resulted in the avoidance of tetracycline use in children under 8 years old?
A. Birth defects
B. Allergic responses
C. Severe nausea and vomiting
D. Permanent tooth discoloration

Answer 92

D. Permanent tooth discoloration

Question 93

How would the nurse reply when a client prescribed a tetracycline class medication asks why milk and antacids should be avoided before and after dosing?
A. “Taking these together can lead to kidney impairment”
B. “The pairing of these substances leads to tooth staining”
C. “Severe diarrhea can occur when taking these substances together”
D. “This can lead to decreased absorption of the medication you need”

Answer 93

D. “This can lead to decreased absorption of the medication you need”

Question 94

A pregnant client with an infection tells the nurse that she has taken tetracycline for infections in the past and prefers to take it now. Which response would the nurse give regarding the avoidance of tetracycline administration during pregnancy?
A. ‘It affects breast-feeding adversely.’
B. ‘Tetracycline causes fetal allergies.’
C. ‘It alters the development of fetal teeth buds.’
D. ‘It increases fetal tolerance to the medication.’

Answer 94

C. ‘It alters the development of fetal teeth buds.’

Question 95

A mother complains that her child’s teeth have become yellow in color. The nurse understands that with prolonged use, which medication may be responsible?
A. Tetracycline
B. Promethazine
C. Chloramphenicol
D. Fluoroquinolones

Answer 95

A. Tetracycline

Question 96

A child is prescribed tetracycline. The nurse understands which possible medication related reaction is associated with this medication?
A. Kernicterus
B. Grey syndrome
C. Reye Syndrome
D. Staining of teeth

Answer 96

D. Staining of teeth

Question 97

Which information would the nurse provide to a client diagnosed with chlamydia and prescribed doxycycline? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct.
A. Report worsening symptoms
B. Refrain from sexual relations
C. Use barrier protection devices
D. Contact partners to be tested
E. Take the entire course of antibiotics

Answer 97

A. Report worsening symptoms
B. Refrain from sexual relations
C. Use barrier protection devices
D. Contact partners to be tested
E. Take the entire course of antibiotics

Question 98

The nurse is preparing to administer doxycycline to a client to treat syphilis. Which lab results should the nurse review before administering this medication?
A. Pregnancy test
B. Hematocrit
C. Sodium level
D. Arterial blood gas

Answer 98

A. Pregnancy test

Question 99

The nurse is providing medication teaching for a client who has been prescribed tetracycline. The client regularly takes calcium supplements to prevent osteoporosis. Which statement is appropriate for the nurse to make?
A. Take your calcium two hours before you take the antibiotic
B. You can take the calcium with the antibiotic to decrease an upset stomach
C. Try taking the antibiotic and calcium with orange juice.
D. It is best to take the antibiotic and calcium on an empty stomach

Answer 99

A. Take your calcium two hours before you take the antibiotic

Question 100

The nurse in the urgent care clinic is reviewing discharge instructions with a client who is prescribed doxycycline. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the instructions?
A. “I will not wear my contact lenses while taking this medication”
B. “I will carry glucose tablets with me in case I experience low blood sugar.”
C. “I will take this medication with an antacid to prevent an upset stomach.”
D. “I will apply sunscreen when outside to prevent a sunburn.”

Answer 100

D. “I will apply sunscreen when outside to prevent a sunburn.”

Question 101

The health care provider has prescribed tetracycline for a 28 year old female client with severe acne. When teaching the client about this medication, which information is important for the nurse to include?
A. It may cause staining of the teeth.
B. It may decrease the effectiveness of oral contraceptives.
C. It should be taken with food or milk.
D. It may cause hearing loss.

Answer 101

B. It may decrease the effectiveness of oral contraceptives.

Question 102

Which therapy is indicated for a client admitted to the hospital after general paresis develops as a complication of syphilis?
A. Penicillin therapy
B. Major tranquilizers
C. Behavior modification
D. Electroconvulsive therapy

Answer 102

A. Penicillin therapy

Question 103

Which statement by a client prescribed ampicillin indicates that teaching by the nurse was effective?
A. “I will miss eating grapefruit.”
B. “I must increase my fluid intake.”
C. “I can stop taking this medication any time.”
D. “I should take this medication just after eating.”

Answer 103

B. “I must increase my fluid intake.”

Question 104

Which rationale will the nurse give for the need to take penicillin G and probenecid for syphilis?
A. “Each medication attacks the organism during different stages of cell multiplication.”
B. “The penicillin treats the syphilis, and the probenecid relieves the severe urethritis.”
C. “Probenecid delays excretion of penicillin, thus maintaining blood levels for longer periods.”
D. “Probenecid decreases the potential for an allergic reaction to penicillin, which treats the syphilis.”

Answer 104

C. “Probenecid delays excretion of penicillin, thus maintaining blood levels for longer periods.”

Question 105

Which statement by a client prescribed ampicillin 250 mg by mouth every 6 hours indicates to the nurse that teaching has been effective?
A. “I should drink a glass of milk with each pill.”
B. “I should drink at least six glasses of water every day.”
C. “The medicine should be taken with meals and at bedtime.”
D. “The medicine should be taken 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals.”

Answer 105

D. “The medicine should be taken 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals.”

Question 106

Which information would the nurse include in the teaching plan on ampicillin?
A. ‘Take the ampicillin with meals.’
B. ‘Store the ampicillin in a light-resistant container.’
C. ‘Notify the health care provider if diarrhea develops.’
D. ‘Continue the medication until a negative culture is obtained.’

Answer 106

C. ‘Notify the health care provider if diarrhea develops.’

Question 107

The nurse is preparing a client for discharge from the emergency department. Which client statement provides evidence that the client understands medication teaching for high-dose ampicillin?
A. ‘I should take this medication with meals.’
B. ‘This medicine may cause constipation.’
C. ‘I must avoid dairy products while taking this medicine.’
D. ‘I must increase my intake of fluids while taking this medication.’

Answer 107

D. ‘I must increase my intake of fluids while taking this medication.’

Question 108

A client has an anaphylactic reaction after receiving intravenous penicillin. Which would the nurse conclude is the cause of this reaction?
A. An acquired atopic sensitization occurred.
B. There was passive immunity to the penicillin allergen.
C. Antibodies to penicillin developed after a previous exposure.
D. Genes encoded for allergies cause a reaction on an initial penicillin exposure.

Answer 108

C. Antibodies to penicillin developed after a previous exposure.

Question 109

The nurse provides teaching about ampicillin. Which client statement indicates that additional teaching is needed?
A. ‘I should take this on an empty stomach with a full glass of water.’
B. ‘This medicine will work best if I space the time out evenly.’
C. ‘I can stop this medication after I am symptom-free for 48 hours.’
D. ‘If I get worse, I will notify my primary health care provider.’

Answer 109

C. ‘I can stop this medication after I am symptom-free for 48 hours.’

Question 110

Which assessment findings during the administration of intravenous penicillin prompt the nurse to stop the infusion? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct.
A. Hives
B. Itching
C. Nausea
D. Skin rash
E. Shortness of breath

Answer 110

A. Hives
B. Itching
D. Skin rash
E. Shortness of breath

Question 111

When a female client with a new infant is prescribed amoxicillin for a urinary tract infection, which instruction would the nurse include when teaching about the use of this medication?
A. ‘Take this medication on an empty stomach.’
B. ‘Report signs of allergic reaction such as skin rash or itching.’
C. ‘Stop taking the medication as soon as you void without burning.’
D. ‘Breast-feeding should stop until you have finished with this medication.’

Answer 111

B. ‘Report signs of allergic reaction such as skin rash or itching.’

Question 112

The home health nurse is teaching a female client about self-administering vancomycin. Which statement by the client demonstrates understanding of the teaching?
A. I need to call my provider if my urine changes
B. Muscle tingling and weakness is an expected side effect of this medication
C. Ringing in the ears is common when taking vancomycin
D. I should avoid eating food with active cultures in it

Answer 112

A. I need to call my provider if my urine changes

Question 113

An older adult client is to receive intravenous (IV) gentamicin for urosepsis. Before administering the medication, for which finding should the nurse notify the health care provider (HCP)?
A. The client has a history of acid reflux disease.
B. The client has a history of retinopathy.
C. The client has a history of chronic kidney disease.
D. The client has a history of urinary retention.

Answer 113

C. The client has a history of chronic kidney disease.

Question 114

A hospitalized infant is receiving gentamicin. While monitoring for drug toxicity, the nurse should focus on which laboratory result?
A. Platelet counts
B. Serum creatinine
C. Thyroxin levels
D. Growth hormone levels

Answer 114

B. Serum creatinine

Question 115

The nurse receives an order to administer intravenous gentamicin to a client. For which finding should the nurse contact the health care provider to clarify the order?
A. Low serum albumin
B. Low serum blood urea nitrogen
C. High gastric pH
D. High serum creatinine

Answer 115

D. High serum creatinine

Question 116

The health care provider prescribes peak and trough levels after initiation of intravenous antibiotic therapy. The client asks why these blood tests are necessary. Which reason would the nurse provide?
A. ‘They determine if the dosage of the medication is adequate.’
B. ‘They detect if you are having an allergic reaction to the medication.’
C. ‘The tests permit blood culture specimens to be obtained when the medication is at its lowest level.’
D. ‘These allow comparison of your fever to changes in the antibiotic level.’

Answer 116

A. ‘They determine if the dosage of the medication is adequate.’

Question 117

When the nurse is administering a course of aminoglycoside treatment to a client with Klebsiella infection, which adverse effects prompt the nurse to hold treatment and contact the health care provider? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct.
A. Vertigo
B. Tinnitus
C. Dizziness
D. Heartburn
E. Persistent headache

Answer 117

A. Vertigo
B. Tinnitus
C. Dizziness
E. Persistent headache

Question 118

Which condition would the nurse monitor for in the client on aminoglycoside therapy and skeletal muscle relaxants?
A. Stroke
B. Respiratory arrest
C. Myocardial infarction
D. Abdominal discomfort

Answer 118

B. Respiratory arrest

Question 119

When would the nurse have the laboratory obtain a blood sample to determine the peak level of an antibiotic administered by intravenous piggyback (IVPB)?
A. Halfway between two doses of the medication
B. Between 30 and 60 minutes after a dose
C. Immediately before the medication is administered
D. Anytime it is convenient for the client and the laboratory

Answer 119

B. Between 30 and 60 minutes after a dose

Question 120

A peak and trough level is prescribed for a client receiving antibiotic therapy. When should the nurse should obtain the trough level?
A. Sixty minutes after the antibiotic dose is administered.
B. Immediately before the next antibiotic dose is given.
C. Upon completion of the prescribed antibiotic regime.
D. An hour before the next antibiotic dose is given.

Answer 120

B. Immediately before the next antibiotic dose is given.

Question 121

Which laboratory values are important for the nurse to monitor in the client who takes zidovudine?
A. Cardiac enzymes
B. Serum electrolytes
C. Complete blood counts (CBCs)
D. Urinalysis

Answer 121

C. Complete blood counts (CBCs)

Question 122

Which clinical finding would indicate to the nurse that an infant is experiencing life-threatening zidovudine toxicity?
A. Fatigue and lethargy
B. Increased urine output
C. Progressive weight loss
D. Bruises on the limbs and trunk

Answer 122

D. Bruises on the limbs and trunk

Question 123

Which common side effect would the nurse expect in a client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) who is on a treatment protocol that includes a protease inhibitor?
A. Diarrhea
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Paresthesias of the extremities
D. Seeing yellow halos around lights

Answer 123

A. Diarrhea

Question 124

To evaluate the effectiveness of antiretroviral therapy for a client infected with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), which laboratory test result will the nurse plan to review?
A. Western blot test
B. Viral load test
C. Nucleic acid amplification test
D. Rapid HIV antibody test

Answer 124

B. Viral load test

Question 125

Which response will be given by a nurse caring for a client with chronic hepatitis B who asks, “Are there any medications to help me get rid of this problem?”
A. “Sedatives can be given to help you relax.”
B. “We can give you immune serum globulin.”
C. “Vitamin supplements are frequently helpful and hasten recovery.”
D. “There are medications to help reduce viral load and liver inflammation.”

Answer 125

D. “There are medications to help reduce viral load and liver inflammation.”

Question 126

The nurse is teaching a client who has been diagnosed with recurrent genital herpes about newly prescribed valacyclovir. Which statement by the client indicates understanding?
A. This medication is preferable because I can take it less often than other antivirals
B. I will be free of outbreaks from now on
C. This medication will prevent transmission of the virus to my partner
D. Starting the medication now will not help speed up healing

Answer 126

A. This medication is preferable because I can take it less often than other antivirals

Question 127

The nurse is reinforcing teaching to a 24-year-old woman receiving acyclovir for a Herpes Simplex Virus type 2 infection. Which instructions should the nurse provide the client with?
A. Continue to take prophylactic doses for at least five years after the diagnosis
B. Complete the entire course of the medication for an effective cure
C. Begin treatment with acyclovir at the onset of symptoms of recurrence
D. Stop treatment if she thinks she may be pregnant

Answer 127

C. Begin treatment with acyclovir at the onset of symptoms of recurrence

Question 128

The triage nurse at a health clinic receives a call from a client. The client states that they have been experiencing flu-like symptoms for the past 24 hours. The client asks for a prescription for zanamivir. How should the triage nurse respond?
A. “Come in right away so we can start treating you.”
B. “Do you have trouble swallowing big pills?”
C. “We will call your pharmacy for an antibiotic prescription for you.”
D. “Call back tomorrow when you are sure you have the flu.”

Answer 128

A. “Come in right away so we can start treating you.”

Question 129

For which purpose would a nurse advise a client with chloroquine-resistant malaria to take oral quinine immediately after meals?
A. To delay its absorption
B. To minimize gastric irritation
C. To reduce its antidysrhythmic action
D. To decrease stimulation of the appetite

Answer 129

B. To minimize gastric irritation

Question 130

A health care provider prescribes Lactobacillus granules to a 3-month-old infant to manage postantibiotic diarrhea. Which explanation would the nurse give to the infant’s parents about the reason for giving lactobacilli?
A. They diminish the inflammatory mucosal edema.
B. The discomfort caused by gastric hyperacidity is lessened.
C. They relieve the pain caused by gas in the gastrointestinal tract.
D. The flora that inhabit a healthy gastrointestinal tract must be recolonized.

Answer 130

D. The flora that inhabit a healthy gastrointestinal tract must be recolonized.

Question 131

Which intervention would the nurse include in the plan of care for a client receiving antibiotics and antifungal medication for treatment of a vaginal infection?
A. Avoid spicy foods.
B. Drink more fruit juices.
C. Take a multivitamin every day.
D. Eat yogurt with active cultures daily.

Answer 131

D. Eat yogurt with active cultures daily.

Question 132

Which effect of povidone-iodine would the nurse consider when using it on the client’s skin before obtaining a specimen for a blood culture?
A. Avoids drying the skin
B. Preferred to alcohol swabs because it doesn’t create false-positive blood alcohol results
C. Eliminates surface bacteria that may contaminate the culture
D. Provides a cooling agent to diminish the feeling from the puncture wound

Answer 132

C. Eliminates surface bacteria that may contaminate the culture

Question 133

Permethrin 1% lotion is prescribed for a 5-year-old child with pediculosis capitis. Which instruction would the nurse include when teaching the parents about treatment?
A. Personal belongings must be discarded.
B. Side effects are nonexistent with the medicated shampoo.
C. Other children should be kept away from the child for a week.
D. The child’s hair must be combed with a fine-toothed comb to remove nits.

Answer 133

D. The child’s hair must be combed with a fine-toothed comb to remove nits.

Question 134

The nurse teaches the mother of an infant prescribed nystatin for oral thrush how to prevent aggravation of the condition. Which statements by the mother indicate the need for further teaching? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct.
A. ‘I should rinse the infant’s mouth with plain water after feeding.’
B. ‘I should boil the pacifier for at least 20 minutes on alternate days.’
C. ‘I should apply the medication at least 20 minutes before feeding.’
D. ‘I should apply the medication to the infant’s oral cavity four times a day.’
E. ‘I should boil the reusable nipples for at least 5 minutes after washing.’

Answer 134

B. ‘I should boil the pacifier for at least 20 minutes on alternate days.’
C. ‘I should apply the medication at least 20 minutes before feeding.’
E. ‘I should boil the reusable nipples for at least 5 minutes after washing.’

Question 135

After completing a week of antibiotic therapy, an infant develops oral thrush. Which medication is indicated for treatment of this condition?
A. Acyclovir
B. Vidarabine
C. Nystatin
D. Fluconazole

Answer 135

C. Nystatin

Question 136

A nurse is giving instructions to the parents of a newborn infant with oral candidiasis. Which statement made by a parent is incorrect and indicates a need for more teaching?
A. “The therapy can be discontinued when the spots disappear.”
B. “I will boil the nipples and pacifiers for 20 minutes.”
C. “I will use a dropper to place the medicine on each side of my baby’s mouth.”
D. “Nystatin should be given four times a day after my baby eats.”

Answer 136

A. “The therapy can be discontinued when the spots disappear.”

Question 137

Which statement regarding treatment with interferon indicates that the client understands the nurse’s teaching?
A. ‘I will drink 2 to 3 liters [2–3 quarts] of fluid a day.’
B. ‘Any reconstituted solution must be discarded in 1 week.’
C. ‘I can continue driving my car as long as I have the stamina.’
D. ‘While taking this medicine I should be able to continue my usual active lifestyle.’

Answer 137

A. ‘I will drink 2 to 3 liters [2–3 quarts] of fluid a day.’

Question 138

An ambulatory client with relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis is to receive every-other-day injections of interferon beta-1a. Which adverse effects would the nurse explain may occur when taking this medication? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct.
A. Depression
B. Polycythemia
C. Flu-like symptoms
D. Increased risk for infection
E. Decreased perspiration

Answer 138

A. Depression
C. Flu-like symptoms
D. Increased risk for infection

Question 139

The nurse is assessing a client with tuberculosis who has been taking prescribed pyrazinamide. Which finding reported by the client should the nurse immediately report to the healthcare provider?
A. Joint pain
B. Fatigue
C. Nausea
D. Decreased appetite

Answer 139

A. Joint pain

Question 140

Which essential test results will the nurse review before starting antitubercular pharmacotherapy when caring for a client with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection who is diagnosed with tuberculosis?
A. Liver function studies
B. Pulmonary function studies
C. Electrocardiogram and echocardiogram
D. White blood cell counts and sedimentation rate

Answer 140

A. Liver function studies

Question 141

Which laboratory test result would the nurse review before initiating a prescribed antitubercular pharmacotherapy for a client with tuberculosis associated with human immunodeficiency virus?
A. Liver function studies
B. Pulmonary function studies
C. Electrocardiogram
D. White blood cell (WBC) count

Answer 141

A. Liver function studies

Question 142

The nurse is preparing a client for discharge following inpatient treatment for pulmonary tuberculosis. Which instruction should be given to the client?
A. Continue taking medications as prescribed.
B. Continue taking medications until symptoms are relieved.
C. Avoid contact with children, pregnant women, or immunosuppressed persons.
D. Take medication with aluminum hydroxide if epigastric distress occurs.

Answer 142

A. Continue taking medications as prescribed.

Question 143

The client is diagnosed with tuberculosis (TB). The nurse understands that the treatment plan for this client will involve what type of drug therapy?
A. Administering two antituberculosis drugs
B. Aminoglycoside antibiotics
C. An anti-inflammatory agent
D. High doses of B complex vitamins

Answer 143

A. Administering two antituberculosis drugs

Question 144

The nurse provides discharge teaching to a client with tuberculosis. Which treatment measure would the nurse reinforce as the highest priority?
A. Getting sufficient rest
B. Getting plenty of fresh air
C. Maintaining a healthy lifestyle
D. Consistently taking prescribed medication

Answer 144

D. Consistently taking prescribed medication

Question 145

Which response by the nurse is appropriate when a client asks what to expect when beginning treatment for tuberculosis?
A. ‘Therapy will last a few weeks.’
B. ‘Therapy will occur over two phases.’
C. ‘Therapy will involve one medication.’
D. ‘Therapy will require monitoring kidney function.’

Answer 145

B. ‘Therapy will occur over two phases.’

Question 146

A client has been admitted for the second time to treat tuberculosis (TB). Which referral does the nurse initiate as a priority?
A. Psychiatric nurse liaison to assess reasons for noncompliance
B. Infection control nurse to arrange testing for drug resistance
C. Social worker to see if the client can afford the medications
D. Visiting nurses to arrange for directly observed therapy (DOT)

Answer 146

D. Visiting nurses to arrange for directly observed therapy (DOT)

Question 147

The nurse is educating an older adult client about newly prescribed levofloxacin for the treatment of pneumonia. The nurse should teach the client that which side effect is a priority for the client to report to the provider?
A. Joint tenderness
B. Diarrhea
C. Dizziness
D. Difficulty sleeping

Answer 147

A. Joint tenderness

Question 148

The nurse is reviewing discharge instructions with a client who has been prescribed ciprofloxacin following a minor burn injury. Which statement by the client requires additional teaching?
A. “I will protect my skin from the sun with sunscreen and clothing.”
B. “I will not take ciprofloxacin prior to sun exposure.”
C. “After healing, I should have no scarring from this burn.”
D. “I can take ibuprofen for the pain related to this burn.”

Answer 148

B. “I will not take ciprofloxacin prior to sun exposure.”

Question 149

The nurse teaches a teenage client about the administration of levofloxacin to treat a sinus infection. The nurse concludes the teaching is effective when the client makes which statement?
A. ‘I should take the medication at mealtime.’
B. ‘I should take the medication just before a meal.’
C. ‘I should take the medication 1 hour before a meal.’
D. ‘I should take the medication 30 minutes after a meal.’

Answer 149

C. ‘I should take the medication 1 hour before a meal.’

Question 150

Levofloxacin is prescribed for a woman who has been experiencing urinary frequency and burning for the past 24 hours. The nurse concludes the teaching has been effective when the client states she will make which change in her routine?
A. Limit her fluid intake.
B. Strain her urine for calculi.
C. Monitor her urine output.
D. Take mineral supplements 2 hours before or after levofloxacin.

Answer 150

D. Take mineral supplements 2 hours before or after levofloxacin.

Question 151

A 5-year-old child is given fluoroquinolones. Which potential adverse effect unique to pediatric clients would the nurse anticipate?
A. Tendon rupture
B. Cartilage erosion
C. Staining of developing teeth
D. Central nervous system toxicity

Answer 151

A. Tendon rupture

Question 152

A child with pinworms is prescribed mebendazole. Which expected response to the medication would the nurse teach the parents watch for?
A. Blood
B. Constipation
C. Yellow stools
D. Passage of worms

Answer 152

D. Passage of worms

Question 153

The nurse is caring for a pregnant client who has contracted a trichomonal protozoan infection. For which oral medication would the nurse anticipate preparing to provide education?
A. Penicillin G
B. Acyclovir
C. Nystatin
D. Metronidazole

Answer 153

D. Metronidazole

Question 154

A client with giardiasis is taking metronidazole (Flagyl) 2 grams PO. Which information should the nurse include in the client’s instruction?
A. Notify the clinic of any changes in the color of urine.
B. Encourage the use of over-the-counter cough/cold syrup when a cough/cold develops.
C. Stop the medication after the diarrhea resolves.
D. Take the medication with food.

Answer 154

D. Take the medication with food.

Question 155

Which instruction should the nurse give to a female client who just received a prescription for oral metronidazole (Flagyl) for treatment of trichomonas vaginalis? Select all that apply.
A. Increase fluid intake, especially cranberry juice.
B. Do not abruptly discontinue the medication; taper use.
C. Check blood pressure daily to detect hypertension.
D. Avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
E. Use condoms until treatment is completed.
F. Ensure that all sexual partners are treated at the same time.

Answer 155

A. Increase fluid intake, especially cranberry juice.
D. Avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
E. Use condoms until treatment is completed.
F. Ensure that all sexual partners are treated at the same time.

Question 156

The nurse is teaching the client with bacterial vaginosis who has been prescribed metronidazole tablets. What statement is appropriate?
A. You may continue to experience symptoms after you stop the medication
B. You should avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication
C. Call your healthcare provider if you experience diarrhea
D. Your sexual partner will need to be treated as well

Answer 156

B. You should avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication

Question 157

The nurse is educating a client prescribed metronidazole. Which of the following findings should the nurse include in the education as reportable to the healthcare provider?
A. Pinpoint red spots on the skin
B. Nausea after beginning the medication
C. Metallic taste
D. Occasional diarrhea

Answer 157

A. Pinpoint red spots on the skin

Question 158

Which explanation would the nurse provide to a client with gastric ulcer disease who asks the nurse why the health care provider has prescribed metronidazole?
A. To augment the immune response
B. To potentiate the effect of antacids
C. To treat Helicobacter pylori infection
D. To reduce hydrochloric acid secretion

Answer 158

C. To treat Helicobacter pylori infection

Question 159

A client has a prescription for nitrofurantoin 50 mg orally every evening to manage recurrent urinary tract infections. Which instruction would the nurse give to the client?
A. ‘Increase your intake of fluids.’
B. ‘Strain your urine for crystals and stones.’
C. ‘Stop taking the medication if your urinary output increases.’
D. ‘This may turn your urine green.’

Answer 159

A. ‘Increase your intake of fluids.’

Question 160

A client has received a prescription for nitrofurantoin to treat a urinary tract infection. Which of the following statements made by the client indicates the need for additional teaching about the medication?
A. “I will be sure to finish taking the antibiotics, even if I start feeling better.”
B. “I will spend extra time in the sun to get plenty of vitamin D.”
C. “I’ll call my primary health care provider immediately if I develop a rash after taking the medication.”
D. “I will take the medication with food.”

Answer 160

B. “I will spend extra time in the sun to get plenty of vitamin D.”

Question 161

A client develops leukopenia 3 weeks after having a renal transplant. Which factor would the nurse conclude is the cause of the leukopenia?
A. Bacterial infection
B. High creatinine levels
C. Rejection of the kidney
D. Antirejection medications

Answer 161

D. Antirejection medications

Question 162

Which medications are immunosuppressives prescribed to prevent kidney rejection? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct.
A. Cyclosporine
B. Methotrexate
C. Methylprednisolone
D. Tacrolimus
E. Mycophenolate mofetil

Answer 162

A. Cyclosporine
C. Methylprednisolone
D. Tacrolimus
E. Mycophenolate mofetil

Question 163

The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving azathioprine, cyclosporine, and prednisone before receiving a kidney transplant. Which medication action would the nurse identify as the purpose of these medications?
A. Stimulate leukocytosis
B. Provide passive immunity
C. Prevent iatrogenic infection
D. Reduce antibody production

Answer 163

D. Reduce antibody production

Question 164

The nurse understands which immunosuppressant medication interacts with allopurinol and may cause bone marrow suppression in children?
A. Tacrolimus
B. Azathioprine
C. Cyclosporine
D. Muromonab-DC3

Answer 164

B. Azathioprine

Question 165

The nurse teaches a client who is scheduled for a kidney transplant about the need for immunosuppressive medications. The nurse determines that the client understands the teaching when the client says that medications must be taken for which period of time?
A. ‘For the rest of my life.’
B. ‘Until the surgery is over.’
C. ‘Until the surgery heals.’
D. ‘During the intraoperative period.’

Answer 165

A. ‘For the rest of my life.’

Question 166

A client who had an organ transplant is receiving cyclosporine. The nurse would monitor for which serious adverse effect of cyclosporine?
A. Hirsutism
B. Constipation
C. Dysrhythmias
D. Increased creatinine level

Answer 166

D. Increased creatinine level

Question 167

The nurse is planning discharge instructions for a client prescribed cyclosporine following a liver transplant. Which adverse reactions should the nurse instruct the client to report to the healthcare provider?
A. Changes in urine color.
B. Presence of hand tremors.
C. Increasing body hirsutism.
D. Nausea and vomiting.

Answer 167

B. Presence of hand tremors.

Question 168

Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole is prescribed for a child with a urinary tract infection. Which statement by the parent indicates the nurse’s instructions about administration have been understood?
A. ‘Mealtime is a good time to give the medication.’
B. ‘I’ll make sure to give each pill with 6 to 8 oz of fluid.’
C. ‘It must be taken with orange juice to ensure acidity of urine.’
D. ‘The medication has to be taken every 4 hours to maintain a blood level.’

Answer 168

B. ‘I’ll make sure to give each pill with 6 to 8 oz of fluid.’

Question 169

A sulfonamide preparation is prescribed for a child with a urinary tract infection. Which nursing responsibility is a priority when administering this medication?
A. Weighing the child daily
B. Giving the medication with milk
C. Taking the child’s temperature frequently
D. Administering the medication at the prescribed times

Answer 169

D. Administering the medication at the prescribed times

Question 170

A child infected with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is admitted with Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia and receives trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole. Which common side effects would the nurse anticipate? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct.
A. Jaundice
B. Vomiting
C. Headache
D. Crystalluria
E. Photosensitivity

Answer 170

B. Vomiting
D. Crystalluria
E. Photosensitivity

Question 171

Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole is prescribed for a client with cystitis. Which instruction would the nurse include when providing medication teaching?
A. ‘Drink eight to ten glasses of water daily.’
B. ‘Take this medication with orange juice.’
C. ‘Take the medication with meals.’
D. ‘Take the medication until symptoms subside.’

Answer 171

A. ‘Drink eight to ten glasses of water daily.’

Question 172

The nurse is teaching a client with diabetes about newly prescribed trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) to treat a urinary tract infection. Which statement by the client indicates understanding?
A. “I will stop taking this medication if I develop a rash.”
B. “This antibiotic will kill mature bacteria in my urinary tract.”
C. “I should avoid dairy products when taking this medication.”
D. “My blood sugar will not be affected by this medication.”

Answer 172

A. “I will stop taking this medication if I develop a rash.”

Question 173

The nurse is preparing to administer trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) to a client. When assessing client allergies, the client reports that they are allergic to glipizide. What action by the nurse is most appropriate?
A. Prepare to administer the medication
B. Report the allergies to the healthcare provider
C. Review the health record to see if the client is on glipizide
D. Assess the client blood sugar

Answer 173

B. Report the allergies to the healthcare provider

Question 174

A client is prescribed trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole for recurrent urinary tract infections. Which statement by the nurse about this medication is correct?
A. “You can stop the medication after five days.”
B. “Be sure to take the medication with food.”
C. “It is safe to take with oral contraceptives.”
D. “Drink at least eight glasses of water a day.”

Answer 174

D. “Drink at least eight glasses of water a day.”

Question 175

A client is prescribed trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole for recurrent urinary tract infections. Which information should the nurse include during client teaching?
A. “A harmless skin rash may appear.”
B. “Drink at least eight large glasses of water a day.”
C. “Be sure to take the medication with food.”
D. “Stop the medication when your symptoms disappear.”

Answer 175

B. “Drink at least eight large glasses of water a day.”

Question 176

After teaching a client about sulfonamide use for a urinary tract infection, which client statement would the nurse review for correction?
A. ‘I will avoid the sunlight.’
B. ‘I will increase my fluid intake.’
C. ‘I will let my doctor know if I develop a rash.’
D. ‘I will stop taking the medication when my symptoms subside.’

Answer 176

D. ‘I will stop taking the medication when my symptoms subside.’