Immune System and Immunity Flashcards

1
Q

Immune system is also referred to as the ________.

A

Lymphatic system

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2
Q

Network of cells, tissues and organs that provides the body mechanisms to resist infection and
disease

A

Immune system

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3
Q

Lymphoid organs are classified as __________.

A

Primary or Secondary

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4
Q

Primary lymphoid organs

A

bone marrow

thymus

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5
Q

secondary lymphoid organs

A
spleen
lymph nodes
mucosal-associated lymphoid tissues (MALT)
------------
cutaneous-associated lymphoid tissue (CALT)
adenoids
lymphatic vessels
Peyer's patches
tonsils
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6
Q

responsible for B lymph maturation

A

bone marrow

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7
Q

responsible for T lymph maturation

A

thymus

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8
Q

provide a location where contact with foreign antigens can occur

A

secondary lymphoid organs

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9
Q

2 glands located at the back of the nasal passage

A

adenoids

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10
Q

where are adenoids located

A

back of the nasal passage

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11
Q

channels throughout the body that carry the lymphocytes to the lymphoid organs and into your circulation

A

lymphatic vessels

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12
Q

lymphoid tissue in the small intestine

A

Peyer’s patches

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13
Q

where are peyer’s patches located

A

small intestine

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14
Q

2 oval masses at the back of the throat which contributes to the immune system

A

tonsils

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15
Q

filters antigen in the blood

A

spleen

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16
Q

study of a host’s reactions when foreign substances are introduced into the body

A

Immunology

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17
Q

foreign substances that induce host response

A

antigens

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18
Q

the condition of being resistant to infection

A

immunity

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19
Q

first successful invented vaccine

A

smallpox

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20
Q

who developed first smallpox vaccine

A

Edward Jenner (late 1700s)

via injection of cowpox (from disease affecting cows; more harmless substance)

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21
Q

father of immunology

A

Louis Pasteur

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22
Q

the process of making a pathogen less virulent which can take place via heat, aging or chemical means

A

attenuation

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23
Q

rabies vaccine was developed by

A

Louis Pasteur

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24
Q

who discovered phagocytosis

A
Elie Metchnikoff
(observed under a microscope that foreign objects introduced into transparent starfish larvae became surrounded by motile, amoeboid-like cells that attempted to destroy penetrating objects
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25
Q

process of cells eating other cells

A

phagocytosis

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26
Q

who demonstrated that diphtheria tetanus toxins could be neutralized by noncellular portion of the blood of animals previously exposed to the mciroorganisms

A

Emil von Behring

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27
Q

type of immunity where the noncellular elements in the blood were believed to be responsible for protection from microorganisms.

A

humoral immunity

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28
Q

showed that the immune response involved both cellular and humoral elements

A

Almroth Wright

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29
Q

who observed that certain humoral, or circulating, factors called opsonins acted to coat bacteria so that they became more susceptible to ingestion by phagocytic cells.

A

Almroth Wright

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30
Q

A substance in the blood that increases as a response to an acute conditions such as infection, injury, tissue destruction, some cancers, burns, surgery, or trauma

are inflammation markers that exhibit significant changes in serum concentration during inflammation

A

acute phase reactant (APR)

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31
Q

serum proteins produced by certain lymphocytes when exposed to a foreign substance and they react
specifically with that foreign substance

A

antibodies

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32
Q

acute phase reactants are part of (innate/adaptive) immune response

A

innate

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33
Q

two branches of immunity

A

innate

adaptive

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34
Q

branch of immunity wherein the individual’s ability to resist infection by means of normally present
body functions.

A

innate immunity

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35
Q

type of resistance that is characterized by specificity for each individual pathogen, or microbial agent, and the ability to remember a prior exposure

A

adaptive immunity

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36
Q

what branch of immunity?

no prior exposure is required

A

innate

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37
Q

what branch of immunity?

response lacks memory and specificity

A

innate

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38
Q

what branch of immunity?

subject to influence by factors such as nutrition, age, fatigue, stress and genetic determinants

A

innate

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39
Q

what branch of immunity?

ability to remember prior exposure

A

adaptive

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40
Q

what branch of immunity?

memory and specificity result in increased response to pathogen upon repeated exposure

A

adaptive

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41
Q

T/F:

innate and adaptive immunity operate in combination and are dependent upon one another for maximal effectiveness

A

TRUE

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42
Q

Cells of Innate Immune System

A

Leukocytes (neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, monocytes)

Tissue cells (mast cells, macrophages, dendritic cells)

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43
Q

T/F:

White blood cells (WBCs), or leukocytes, in the peripheral blood play a key role in both innate and adaptive immunity.

A

TRUE

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44
Q

Blood cells arise from ________.

A

hematopoietic stem cell (HSC)

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45
Q

precursor cells from HSC which would form WBCs

A

common myeloid precursor

common lymphoid precursor

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46
Q

cells from the common myeloid precursor

A

WBCs that participate in phagocytosis

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47
Q

cells from the common lymphoid precursor

A

lymphocytes

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48
Q

where are mature lymphocytes found

A

peripheral blood

tissues

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49
Q

blood cell formation and development is called

A

hematopoiesis

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50
Q

T/F:

Phagocytic cells function exclusively for innate immunity

A

FALSE

Phagocytic cells are
key to innate immunity, but they are also important in processing antigens for the adaptive response.

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51
Q

neutrophil is also termed as ____________.

A

polymorphonuclear neutrophilic (PMN) leukocyte

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52
Q

neutrophils represent what percentage of the total peripheral WBCs in adults

A

50%-75%

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53
Q

neutrophils measure _________ um.

A

10-15 um

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54
Q

which WBCs consist of a nucleus that has between two to five lobes

A

neutrophils

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55
Q

segs refer to what WBCs

A

neutrophils

segmented neutrophils

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56
Q

neutrophils contain a large number of neutral staining granules when stained. what types of granules are seen?

A

2/3 specific granules

1/3 azurophilic granules

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57
Q

neutrophilic granules which contain antimicrobial products such as myeloperoxidase,
lysozyme, elastase, proteinase-3, cathepsin G, and defensins, which are small proteins that have antibacterial activity

A

Azurophilic granules

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58
Q

primary granules of the neutrophils are referred to as:

A

azurophilic granules

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59
Q

secondary granules of the neutrophils are referred to as:

A

specific granules

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60
Q

neutrophilic granules which contain lysozyme, lactoferrin, collagenase, gelatinase, and respiratory
burst components

A

specific granules

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61
Q

specific granules contain:

A
lactoferrin
lysozymes
collagenase
gelatinase
respiratory burst components
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62
Q

azurophilic granules contain:

A
myeloperoxidase
lysozymes
elastase
proteinase-3
cathepsin G
defensins
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63
Q

WBC whose main function is phagocytosis, which result in destruction of foreign particles

A

neutrophils

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64
Q

neutrophils may circulate freely for how many hours

A

6-8 hrs

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65
Q

this pool allows neutrophils to move from circulating blood to tissues

A

margination (marginating pool)

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66
Q

the process of cells moving from the circulating blood to the tissues (movement through blood vessel walls)

A

diapedesis

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67
Q

chemical messengers that cause cells to migrate in particular direction

A

chemotaxins

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68
Q

T/F:

Once in the tissues, neutrophils have a life span of up to several days.

A

TRUE

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69
Q

T/F:
Normally, the influx of neutrophils from the bone
marrow equals the output from the blood to the tissues to maintain a steady state.

A

TRUE

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70
Q

In the case of acute infection, an increase of neutrophils in the circulating blood can occur almost immediately.

A

TRUE

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71
Q

Demonstrate hematopoiesis

A

CMP

  • eosinophils/basophils
  • neutro/monocyte/dendritic
  • RBC/platelets

CLP

  • T/NK progenitors (T cells, NK cells)
  • B-cell progenitor (B cells, dendritic*)
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72
Q

eosinophils measure _________um.

A

approx. 12-15 um

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73
Q

eosinophils make up _______% of circulating WBCs in a nonallergic person

A

1%-3%

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74
Q

WBC which increases in an

allergic reaction or in response to certain parasitic infections.

A

eosinophils

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75
Q

WBC which has a bilobed or ellipsoidal nucleus and is often centrally located

A

eosinophil

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76
Q

which WBC take acidic dye and the cytoplasm is filled with large orange to reddish orange granules

A

eosinophils

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77
Q

WBCs with spherical and evenly distributed granules throughout the cells

A

eosinophils

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78
Q

eosinophil granules contain:

A
catalase 
lysozyme
cytokines
growth factors
cationic proteins
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79
Q

WBC capable of phagocytosis but much less efficient than neutrophils

A

eosinophils

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80
Q

why are eosinophils less efficient in phagocytosis as compared to neutrophils

A

eosinophils are present in smaller numbers and they lack digestive enzymes

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81
Q

eosinophils are able to neutralize which cells

A

basophils

mast cells

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82
Q

WBC which use cationic proteins to damage cell membranes and kill
larger parasites that cannot be phagocytized

A

eosinophils

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83
Q

most important role of eosinophils

A

regulation of immune response (e.g, regulation of mast cell function)

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84
Q

least numerous of WBCs found in peripheral blood

A

basophils

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85
Q

basophils make up ________ of all circulating WBCs.

A

<1%

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86
Q

smallest granulocyte

A

basophils

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87
Q

T/F:

basophils are slightly larger than RBCs

A

TRUE

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88
Q

WBC which contain coarse, densely staining deep-bluish-purple granules that often obscure nucleus

A

basophils

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89
Q

eosinophil granules are ___________ in color.

A

reddish orange

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90
Q

basophil granules are _________ in color.

A

deep blue/purple

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91
Q

basophil granules contain:

A

histamine
cytokines
growth factors
heparin

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92
Q

WBC which regulate T helper cell responses and stimulate B cells to produce IgE antibody

A

basophils

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93
Q

basophils are involved in production of which immunoglobulin

A

IgE

94
Q

T/F:

Basophils have a short life span of only a few hours in the bloodstream and are then pulled out and destroyed by macrophages in the spleen

A

TRUE

95
Q

largest cells in the peripheral blood

A

monocytes

96
Q

monocytes measure __________ um.

A

12-22 um (average:18 um)

97
Q

WBC with irregularly folded or horseshoe-shaped nucleus that occupies almost half of the cell’s entire volume

A

monocyte

98
Q

WBC with abundant cytoplasm that stain dull grayish-blue

A

monocyte

99
Q

Cytoplasm of monocyte are described to be __________ in appearance.

A

ground-glass (due to presence of fine dustlike granules

100
Q

There are two types of granules found in a monocyte. Differentiate the two.

A

First type is similar to the lysosomes of neutrophils and contains peroxidase, acid phosphatase, arylsulfatase.

Second type contains B-glucoronidase, lysozyme and lipase with no alkaline phosphatase

101
Q

Monocytes make up _________ of total circulating WBCs.

A

4%-10%

102
Q

how long do monocytes stay in the peripheral blood

A

30 hours

103
Q

what happens to monocytes after migration from peripheral blood

A

they migrate to tissues and become macrophages

104
Q

macrophages arise from ___________.

A

monocytes

105
Q

The transition from monocyte to macrophage in the tissues is characterized by
progressive cellular enlargement to between _____ um.

A

25-80 um

106
Q

T/F:

Macrophages contain peroxidase

A

FALSE

Unlike monocytes, macrophages contain no peroxidase

107
Q

Macrophages in the lung

A

alveolar macrophages

108
Q

macrophages in the liver

A

Kupffer cells

109
Q

Macrophages in the brain

A

microglial cells

110
Q

macrophages in the bone

A

osteoclasts

111
Q

macrophages in connective tissue

A

histiocytes

112
Q

Macrophages may not be as efficient as neutrophils in phagocytosis because?

A

Macrophages have slower motility

113
Q

How do macrophages progress through tissue

A

by means of amoeboid action; others are immobile

114
Q

macrophage lifespan

A

months

115
Q

T/F:

Macrophages play an important role in initiating and regulating both innate and adaptive immune responses

A

TRUE

116
Q

Innate immune functions of macrophages

A
microbial killing
anti-tumor activity
intracellular parasite eradication
phagocytosis
secretion of cell mediators
117
Q

adaptive immune functions of macrophages

A

presenting antigens to T and B cells

118
Q

T/F:
Killing activity is enhanced when macrophages
become “activated” by contact with microorganisms or with
chemical messengers called cytokines, which are released by T lymphocytes during the immune response

A

TRUE

119
Q

Which granulocytes do mast cells resemble?

A

basophils

120
Q

lifespan of mast cells

A

9-18 months

121
Q

T/F:

Mast cells are distributed throughout the body in a wide variety of tissues

A

TRUE

skin, CT, mucosal epithelial tissue of the respiratory, genitourinary, and digestive tract

122
Q

What are some characteristics of mast cells

A

smaller than basophils
small round nucleus
presence of lots of granules

123
Q

Mast cell granules contain:

A

acid phosphatase
alkaline phosphatase
protease
histamine

124
Q

mast cell function

A

for allergic reactions
function as antigen-presenting cells
can both enhance and suppress adaptive immune response

125
Q

cells that are covered with long membranous extensions that resemble nerve cell dendrites

A

dendritic cells

126
Q

who discovered dendritic cells

A

Steinman and Cohn (1973)

127
Q

T/F:
Progenitors in the bone marrow give rise to dendritic cell precursors that travel to lymphoid as well as nonlymphoid
tissue.

A

TRUE

128
Q

considered the most effective APC and the most potent phagocytic cell

A

dendritic cell

129
Q

key cell involved in the adaptive immune response

A

lymphocyte

130
Q

lymphocytes make up ____________ of the total circulating WBCs

A

20%-40%

131
Q

Typical small lymphocyte is similar in size to that of:

A

RBCs (7-10 um in diameter)

132
Q

Which WBC has a large rounded nucleus that may be somewhat indented; the nuclear chromatin is dense and tends to stain a deep blue

A

lymphocyte

133
Q

Which WBC has a sparse cytoplasm, containing a few organelles and no specific granules , and consists of a narrow ring surrounding the nucleus; cytoplasm stains a lighter blue

A

lymphocyte

134
Q

Which WBC are unique because they arise from an HSC and then are further differentiated in the primary lymphoid organs

A

lymphocyte

135
Q

3 major populations of lymphocytes based on specific functions and proteins on their cell surface

A

T cells
B cells
Natural Killer cells

136
Q

How much of the 3 major lymphocytes are present in the peripheral blood of adults

A

10%-20% B cells
61%-80% T cells
10%-15% NK cells

137
Q

T/F

Three types of lymphocyte cells are difficult to distinguish visually

A

TRUE

138
Q

How to differentiate lymphocyte subpopulations?

A

by the proteins or antigens present on the cell surface

139
Q

a surface marker that identifies a particular differentiation lineage recognized by a group of monoclonal antibodies.

A

Clusters of differentiation (CD)

140
Q

Panels of antibodies from different laboratories were used for analysis and antibodies reacting similarly with standard cell lines were said to define

A

Clusters of differentiation (CD)

141
Q

How many CD designations are there?

A

more than 500

142
Q

Identify surface marker (CD) present:

Thymocytes

A

CD3

143
Q

Identify surface marker (CD) present:

T cells

A

CD3

144
Q

Identify surface marker (CD) present:

T helper cells

A

CD4

145
Q

Identify surface marker (CD) present:

Monocytes

A

CD4

146
Q

Identify surface marker (CD) present:

Macrophages

A

CD4, CD16

147
Q

Identify surface marker (CD) present:

Thymocyte subsets

A

CD8

148
Q

Identify surface marker (CD) present:

cytotoxic T cells

A

CD8

149
Q

Identify surface marker (CD) present:

NK cells

A

CD16, CD56

150
Q

Identify surface marker (CD) present:

neutrophils

A

CD16

151
Q

Identify surface marker (CD) present:

B cells

A

CD19, CD21

152
Q

Identify surface marker (CD) present:

follicular dendritic cells

A

CD19, CD21

153
Q

Identify surface marker (CD) present:

subsets of T cells

A

CD56

154
Q

Identify surface marker (CD) described:

found on all T cells and is associated wit T-cell antigen receptor

A

CD3

155
Q

Identify surface marker (CD) described:

identifies T helper cells; also found on most T regulatory cells

A

CD4

156
Q

Identify surface marker (CD) described:

identifies cytotoxic T cells

A

CD8

157
Q

Identify surface marker (CD) described:

low affinity Fc receptor for antibody

A

CD16

158
Q

Identify surface marker (CD) described:

mediates phagocytosis

A

CD16

159
Q

Identify surface marker (CD) described:

part of b-cell receptor; regulates B-cell development and activation

A

CD19

160
Q

Identify surface marker (CD) described:

receptor for complement component C3d

A

CD21

161
Q

Identify surface marker (CD) described:

part of B-cell receptor with CD19

A

CD21

162
Q

Identify surface marker (CD) described:

no definitive function

A

CD56

163
Q

What cell type/s have the following surface markers (Ag)?

CD3

A

thymocytes, T cells

164
Q

What cell type/s have the following surface markers (Ag)?

CD4

A

T helper cells, macrophages, monocytes

165
Q

What cell type/s have the following surface markers (Ag)?

CD8

A

Thymocyte subsets, cytotoxic T cells

166
Q

What cell type/s have the following surface markers (Ag)?

CD16

A

macrophages, NK cells, neutrophils

167
Q

What cell type/s have the following surface markers (Ag)?

CD19

A

B cells, follicular dendritic cells

168
Q

What cell type/s have the following surface markers (Ag)?

CD21

A

B cells, follicular dendritic cells

169
Q

What cell type/s have the following surface markers (Ag)?

CD56

A

NK cells, subsets of T cells

170
Q

What is the molecular weight of the following CD (in KD)?

CD3

A

20-28

171
Q

What is the molecular weight of the following CD (in KD)?

CD4

A

55

172
Q

What is the molecular weight of the following CD (in KD)?

CD8

A

60-76

173
Q

What is the molecular weight of the following CD (in KD)?

CD16

A

50-80

174
Q

What is the molecular weight of the following CD (in KD)?

CD19

A

> 120

175
Q

What is the molecular weight of the following CD (in KD)?

CD21

A

145

176
Q

What is the molecular weight of the following CD (in KD)?

CD56

A

175-220

177
Q

These are derived from a lymphoid precursor that differentiates to become either a T cell, B cell, or NK depending on exposure to different cytokines

A

B cells

178
Q

B cells can be recognized by the presence of membrane-bound antibodies of two types. Name the two.

A

IgM

IgD

179
Q

What are other surface proteins that may appear on the B cells?

A

CD19
CD21
MHC-II

180
Q

B cells remain in the environment provided by ________.

A

bone marrow stromal cells

181
Q

these are programmed to produce a unique antibody molecule

A

B lymphocytes

182
Q

These go through a developmental process that prepares them for their role in antibody production and at the same time restricts the types of antigens to which any one cell can respond

A

B cell precursors

183
Q

T cells are differentiated in the _____.

A

thymus

184
Q

precursor of T cells

A

thymocytes

185
Q

T cells express unique surface markers that allow them to recognize foreign antigens bound to cell membrane proteins called __________.

A

MHC molecules

186
Q

Route of thymocytes

A

BM -> Bloodstream -> Thymus

187
Q

Its role is to produce cytokines

A

T cells

188
Q

These stimulate B cells to produce antibodies that will assist in killing tumor cells or infected target cells and help regulate innate and adaptive immune response

A

Cytokines

189
Q

Three main subtypes of T cells according to their functions:

A

helper
cytolytic
regulatory

190
Q

Name the three subtypes of T cells and their surface markers.

A

CD4: helper/regulatory

CD8+: cytolytic (cytotoxic T cells)

191
Q

ratio of CD4+ to CD8+ cells in peripheral blood

A

2:1

192
Q

T cell subtypes can be identified by the presence of what surface markers

A

CD3, CD4, CD8

193
Q

A small percentage of lymphocytes do not express the markers of either T cells or B cells. What are these?

A

NK cells

194
Q

These cells can kill target cells without prior exposure to them

A

NK cells

195
Q

Where do NK cells develop?

A

bone marrow

196
Q

These cells contain kidney-shaped nuclei with condensed chromatin and prominent nucleoli

A

NK cells

197
Q

NK cells measure ____________.

A

15 um in diameter

198
Q

third population cells/ large granular lymphocytes

A

NK cells

199
Q

Where are NK cells found?

A

liver
spleen
peripheral blood

200
Q

NK cells make up ___________ of the circulating lymphoid pool

A

10%-15%

201
Q

T/F:

There are specific surface markers that are unique to NK cells

A

FALSE

There are NO specific surface markers that are unique to NK cells, but they express a specific combination of antigens that can be used for ID.

202
Q

Ag combination for NK cells

A

CD16

CD56

203
Q

this surface marker is a receptor for the nonspecific end of antibodies

A

CD16

204
Q

What surface marker helps NK cells to make contact with and lyse any cell coated with antibodies

A

CD16

205
Q

T/F:
NK cells are capable of recognizing any foreign cell and
represent the first line of defense against virally
infected cells and tumor cells

A

TRUE

206
Q

T/F:

Since NK cells are part of the innate immune system, they cannot develop memory to specific antigens

A

FALSE

NK cells also have the capability to develop memory to specific antigens in a similar manner to T cells

207
Q

half-life time of NK cells

A

> /=7-10 days

208
Q

NK cells play an important role in __________ the innate and adaptive immune response against pathogens

A

transitional cell bridging

209
Q

considered one of the largest tissues in the body and fills the core of all long flat bones

A

bone marrow

210
Q

main source of HSC

A

bone marrow

211
Q

Why are B cells named as such?

A

They were originally found in birds in an organ called the bursa of Fabricius

212
Q

bursa of Fabricius is similar to what organ in humans

A

appendix

213
Q

Immature T cells appear in the fetus as early as __________ in the gestational period

A

8 weeks

214
Q

a small, flat, bilobed organ found in the thorax or chest cavity, right below the thyroid gland and overlying the heart

A

thymus

215
Q

thymus weight by puberty

A

30-40g

216
Q

T/F:

Thymus gradually shrinks in size as you age

A

TRUE

217
Q

Each love of the thymus is divided into smaller lobules filled with what type of cells

A

epithelial cells

play a role in differentiation process

218
Q

How long does the maturation of T cells take place

A

3 weeks

as cells filter through the thymic cortex to the medulla

219
Q

This part of the thymus contain most of the mature T lymphocytes. This is also where these mature lymphocytes are released

A

medulla

220
Q

largest lymphatic vessel in the body

A

thoracic duct

221
Q

T/F:

Lymphocytes spend most of their life span in solid tissue, entering the circulation only periodically to from from one secondary organ to another

A

TRUE

222
Q

majority of circulating lymphocytes

A

T cells

223
Q

this collects most of the body’s lymph fluid and empties it into the left subclavian vein

A

thoracic duct

224
Q

where does the thoracic duct empty the collected lymph fluid of the body?

A

left subclavian vein

225
Q

T cells or B cells?

a. effector cells that serve as regulatory role
b. produce antibodies

A

a. T

b. B

226
Q

T/F:

It is in the secondary organs that contact with foreign antigens is most likely to take place

A

TRUE

227
Q

the process of multiplication of lymphocytes

A

lymphopoiesis

228
Q

where does lymphopoiesis occur?

A

secondary lymphoid tissue

229
Q

T/F:

Lymphopoiesis is strictly independent from antigenic stimulation

A

FALSE

Lymphopoiesis is dependent on antigenic stimulation

230
Q

T/F:

Lymphocyte formation is antigen-independent.

A

TRUE

231
Q

T/F:

Most naive or resting lymphocytes die within a few days after leaving the primary lymphoid organs unless activated by the presence of a specific foreign antigen.

A

TRUE