1
Q

What percentage of blood volume to white blood cells occupy?

A

1%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is leukocytosis?

A

Leukocytosis refers to an increase in the total number of white blood cells (WBCs) due to any cause. More than 11, 000 per microliter of blood.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the two major groups of leukocytes?

A

Granulocytes and agranulocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the process of leukocytes leaving capillaries called?

A

Diapedesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

True or false: Leukocytes move through tissue spaced by amoeboid motion and positive chemotaxis

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which leukocytes are considered granular?

A

Neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which leukocytes are considered a granular?

A

Lymphocytes, monocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

True or false: Neutrophils contain many differently shaped nuclear lobes

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the name of the process that neutrophils use to kill microbes using oxidizing substances such as bleach or hydrogen peroxide?

A

Respiratory burst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the most numerous leukocyte?

A

Neutrophils (50-70% of WBCs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the rarest leukocyte?

A

Basophils (0.5-1%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which leukocyte releases enzymes on large parasitic worms, digesting their surface?

A

Eosinophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

True or false: Eosinophils play a role in allergies and asthma

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which leukocyte contains histamine?

A

Basophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the difference between granulocytes and agranulocytes?

A

Granulocytes contain visible granules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

True or false: Monocytes are the second most abundant WBC

A

False: Lymphocytes are (25%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which leukocyte is mostly found in lymphoid tissue?

A

Lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the function of T lymphocytes?

A

Act against virus-infected cells and tumor cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the function of B lymphocytes?

A

Give rise to plasma cells, which produce antiobdies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the largest of all leukocytes?

A

Monocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which leukocyte has a kidney-shaped nuclei?

A

Monocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which leukocyte differentiates into macrophages that can activate lymphocytes to mount an immune response?

A

Monocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What two hormones regulate the production of leukocytes?

A

Interleukins (ILs) and Colony-stimulating factors (CSFs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

True or false: All leukocytes originate from hemocytoblast stem cell

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Where are mature granulocytes stored?

A

Bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the life span of granulocytes?

A

0.5-9 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is leukemia?

A

Cancerous condition involving overproduction of abnormal WBCs, usually involving the clones of a single abnormal cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is acute leukemia derived from?

A

Stem cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the name of the disease that is caused by the Epstein-Barr virus and results in lymphocytes that become enlarged?

A

Infectious mononucleosis (kissing disease)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is leukopenia?

A

Abnormally low WBC count, usually due to drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What do the surface barriers of the innate defenses consist of?

A

Skin and mucous membranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What do the internal defenses of the innate defenses consist of?

A

Phagocytes, natural killer cells, inflammation, antimicrobial proteins, fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which cells are present for humoral immunity in the adaptive defenses?

A

B cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which cells are present for cellular immunity in the adaptive defenses?

A

T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which system, innate or adaptive, protects against foreign substances without having to specifically identify them?

A

Innate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

True or false: Keratin is present in the second line of defense

A

False, first line of defense

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the protective chemicals that skin and mucous membranes produce that inhibit or destroy microorganisms?

A

Acid, enzymes, mucin, defensins, and other chemicals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

True or false: Many second-line cells have pattern recognition receptors that disarm microbes before they do harm

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are phagocytes?

A

WBCs that eat foreign invaders yummy yummy in my motherfucking tummy bitch fuck you

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

True or false: Neutrophils are the most abundant phagocytes, but die fighting

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Describe the two types of macrophages

A

Free macrophages: wander through tissue spaces

Fixed macrophages: Permanent residents of some organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is opsonization?

A

When the immune system uses antibodies or complement proteins that coat pathogens to make it easier for phagocytes to grab on to the pathogen, thus enhancing phagocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Which cells trigger macrophages to produce a respiratory burst that kills pathogens resistant to lysosomal enzymes during phagocytosis?

A

Helper T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

True or false: Neutrophils have defensin granules that merge with the phagosome to form spears that pierce holes in membrane of ingested microbe

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

True or false: Natural killer cells are phagocytic

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Do natural killer cells identify invaders?

A

No. They recognize abnormalities on surface of body cells such as loss of self-antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

True or false: People with AIDS have greatly reduced phagocytes

A

False, they have greatly reduced natural killer cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are the benefits of inflammation?

A

Prevents spread of damaging agents to nearby tissues, disposes of cell debris and pathogens, sets the stage for repair processes, alerts the adaptive immune system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are the 4 key signs of inflammation?

A

Redness, heat, swelling, pain. Sometimes there is a fifth sign: impairment of function.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are the three stages of inflammation?

A

Inflammatory chemical release, vasodilation and increased vascular permeability, and phagocyte mobilization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What chemical compound do mast cells release that acts as a key inflammatory chemical?

A

Histamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What causes redness and heat in inflammation?

A

Vasodilation which causes hyperemia (increased blood flow)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Why do we feel pain when there’s inflammation?

A

Swelling pushes on nerve endings

54
Q

Why is edema (swelling) important in inflammation?

A

Surge of fluid sweeps foreign material into lymphatic vessels for filtration
Delivers clotting proteins and complement to area
Clotting factors form fibrin mesh that acts as scaffold for repair and so that invaders cannot spread

55
Q

What causes swelling in inflammation?

A

Increased capillary permeability causes exudate to leak into tissue

56
Q

What are the first and second responders in the phagocyte mobilization stage of inflammation?

A

Neutrophils first, then macrophages

57
Q

What are the four steps of phagocyte mobilization?

A

Leukocytosis, margination, diapedesis, chemotaxis

58
Q

Describe the four steps of phagocyte mobilization

A

Leukocytosis: neutrophils enter blood from bone marrow
Margination: neutrophils cling to capillary wall (cell-adhesion molecules)
Diapedesis: Neutrophils flatten and squeeze out of capillaries
Chemotaxis: Neutrophils follow chemical trail

59
Q

How do antimicrobial proteins enhance innate defense?

A

Attack microorganisms directly or hinder their ability to reproduce

60
Q

What are the two most important types of antimicrobial proteins?

A

Interferons and complement proteins

61
Q

What is the role of interferon?

A

Secreted by virus-infected cells to warn healthy neighbouring cells, activate macrophages and mobilize natural killer cells

62
Q

What is the role of complement proteins?

A

Provide major mechanism for destroying foreign substances, activation enhances inflammation and directly destroys bacteria (enhances both innate and adaptive defenses)

63
Q

What are the three pathways of complement system activation?

A

Classical pathway, lectin pathway, alternative pathway

64
Q

Proteins C1-C9 are what kind of proteins?

A

Complement proteins

65
Q

Describe the classical pathway of complement system activation

A

Antibodies bind to invading organisms, then bind to complement components, activating them. The double binding is called complement fixation. Once initial complement proteins are activated, an activation cascade is triggered.

66
Q

True or false: Complement proteins circulate in the blood in active forms

A

False, inactive forms

67
Q

Describe the lectin pathway of complement system activation

A

Lectins are produced by innate system to recognize foreign invaders. When lectin is bound to specific sugars on foreign invaders, it can also bind and activate complement

68
Q

Describe the Alternative pathway of complement system activation

A

Complement cascade is activated spontaneously when certain complement factors bind directly to foreign invader (due to lack of inhibitors on microorganism’s surface)

69
Q

Why is high fever dangerous?

A

Can denature proteins and enzymes

70
Q

How is the body’s thermostat reset?

A

Pyrogens released by leukocytes and macrophages

71
Q

True or false: the adaptive immune system is systemic

A

True

72
Q

Which type of immunity, humoral or cellular, has extracellular targets?

A

Humoral immunity

73
Q

What are antigens?

A

A molecule that the immune system recognizes as foreign (non-self) and treats as a foe. Substances that can mobilize adaptive defenses and provoke an immune response. They are the targets of all adaptive immune responses and most are large, complex molecules that are not normally found in the body

74
Q

What is an incomplete antigen called?

A

Hapten

75
Q

What are antigenic determinants?

A

Parts of the antigen that antibodies or lymphocyte receptors bind to

76
Q

What two important functional properties are associated with complete antigens?

A

Immunogenicity and reactivity

77
Q

What is immunogenicity?

A

Property of complete antigens, it is their ability to stimulate proliferation (immune response) of specific lymphocytes (B and T cells)

78
Q

The ability to react with activated lymphocytes and antibodies released by immunogenic is known as antigen ________.

A

Reactivity

79
Q

True or false: Incomplete antigens (haptens) involve molecules too small to be seen so are not immunogenic by themselves

A

True

80
Q

Which type of antigen, complete or incomplete, causes the immune system to mount an attack that is harmful to a person?

A

Incomplete proteins: attacks self-proteins as well as hapten

81
Q

What is the name of the self-glycoprotein that is unique to each individual?

A

Major histocompatibility complex (MHC)

82
Q

True or false: T lymphocytes can only recognize antigens that are presented on MHC proteins

A

True

83
Q

What three types of cells does the adaptive immune system involve?

A

B lymphocytes, T lymphocytes, and antigen-presenting cells (APCs)

84
Q

True or false: T and B lymphocytes share common development and steps in their life cycles

A

True

85
Q

Where do T and B lymphocytes originate in their development?

A

Bone marrow

86
Q

At which stage of the developmental process do lymphocytes develop immunocompetence and self-tolerance?

A

Maturation stage

87
Q

What is immunocompetence?

A

Education process where lymphocytes only recognize 1 specific antigen.

88
Q

What is self-tolerance?

A

Education process where lymphocytes must be unresponsive to the body’s self-antigens

89
Q

What happens during the seeding stage of lymphocyte development?

A

Naive immunocompetent B and T cells are exported from primary lymphoid organs (bone marrow and thymus) to secondary lymphoid organs (lymph nodes and spleen) to increase their chance of encounter with antigen

90
Q

What occurs when a lymphocyte first encounters its unique antigen?

A

They become activated in a process called clonal selection

91
Q

What happens in the final stage of lymphocyte development, proliferation and differentiation?

A

The activated lymphocyte forms an army of exact copies of itself referred to as clones. These clones can become effector cells that fight infections and a few remain as memory cells to respond to the same antigen more quickly the next time it is encountered.

92
Q

Where do T cells mature?

A

In the thymus

93
Q

What is the difference between positive and negative selection processes?

A

Positive selection: Occurs first. T cell must recognize self MHC

Negative selection: Occurs second. T cell must not recognize self-antigens

94
Q

Hypothetically, what would happen if a T cell recognized a self-antigen and wasn’t removed in the negative selection stage?

A

It could result in autoimmune diseases

95
Q

What is the function of antigen-presenting cells?

A

To engulf antigens and present fragments of antigens to T cells for recognition

96
Q

What are the 3 types of antigen-presenting cells?

A

Dendritic cells, macrophages, and B cells

97
Q

What is the most effective antigen presenter to known?

A

Dendritic cells

98
Q

Which type of cell do macrophages present antigens to that not only activates that cell, but further activates the macrophage?

A

T cells

99
Q

What role do B cells play as an antigen-presenting cell?

A

Present antigens to helper T cell to assist their own activation

100
Q

When a B cell becomes activated by a specific antigen, it proliferates to form a clone of itself, and then creates ______ cells that secrete antibody molecules.

A

Plasma

101
Q

What happens to clone cells that do not become plasma cells in the humoral immunity response?

A

They become memory cells

102
Q

In the primary immune response, upon exposure to antigen for the first time, how many days does it take for peak levels of plasma antibody to circulate in the body?

A

10 days

103
Q

In the primary immune response, there is a lag period of 3 to 6 days. How quickly do memory cells respond to a secondary immune repsonse?

A

Within hours

104
Q

What are the 4 main types of vaccines?

A
  1. Live-attenuated vaccines
  2. inactivated vaccines
  3. Subunit, recombinant, polysaccharide, and conjugate vaccines
  4. Toxoid vaccines
105
Q

What are the three main types of COVID-19 Vaccines?

A
  1. mRNA vaccines
  2. Protein subunit vaccines
  3. Vector vaccines
106
Q

What happens with active humoral immunity?

A

B cells encounter antigens and produce specific antibodies against them

107
Q

What happens with passive humoral immunity?

A

Ready-made antibodies are introduced to our body

108
Q

What is another name for antibodies?

A

Immunoglobulins

109
Q

True or false: antibodies are capable of binding specifically with antigen detected by B cells

A

True

110
Q

What are the five immunoglobulin classes?

A

IgM- Pentamer: first antibody released
IgA- Monomer or dimer: found in mucuous and other secretions
IgD- Monomer: attached to surface of B cells
IgG- Monomer: 75-80% of antibodies in plasma
IgE- Monomer: Active in some allergy reactions and parasitic infections

111
Q

Which immunoblobulin is released during primary response?

A

IgM

112
Q

Which immunoglobulin is primarily used in secondary responses?

A

IgG

113
Q

True or false: antibodies destroy antigens

A

False, they inactivate and tag them

114
Q

What happens when antibodies undergo neutralization?

A

Antibodies block specific sites on viruses or bacterial exotoxins and prevents antigens from binding to receptors on tissue cells

115
Q

What is agglutination?

A

Cell-bound antigens to form a clump

116
Q

What happens when antibodies undergo precipitation?

A

Similar to agglutination, soluble molecules are cross-linked into complexes

117
Q

What is the result of complement fixation of antibodies?

A

Enhances phagocytosis, inflammation, and leads to cell lysis

118
Q

What are the four mechanisms of antibody action?

A

Neutralization, agglutination, precipitation, complement activation

119
Q

True or false: antibodies can only handle antigens that are outside of cells

A

True

120
Q

What do CD4 cells usually become?

A

Helper T cells

121
Q

What is the function of helper T cells?

A

Activate B cells, other T cells, and macrophages

122
Q

What do regulatory T cells do?

A

Moderate immune response

123
Q

What do CD8 cells usually become?

A

Cytotoxic T cells

124
Q

True or false: Helper, cytotoxic, and regulatory T cells are activated T cells

A

True

125
Q

True or false: Class 1 MHC proteins are displayed by all cells except WBCs

A

False: All except RBCs

126
Q

What class of MHC proteins activate CD8 cells?

A

Class 1 MHC

127
Q

True or false: Class 2 MHC proteins are displayed by all cells, except RBCs

A

False: Class 2 MHC proteins are only displayed by Antigen-presenting cells (dendritic cells, macrophages, B cells)

128
Q

What type of T cell recognize class 2 MHC proteins?

A

Helper T cells: they then signal CD4 cells that help is required

129
Q

True or false: T cells can be activated only when antigen is presented to them

A

True

130
Q

Briefly describe how T cells become activated

A

Antigen presents itself on APC

CD4 T cell uses double recognition by recognizing both MHC and foreign antigen it displays

Co-stimulation occurs: T cell binds with co-stimulatory signals on surface of APC (without it, it will undergo anergy)

Clone formation

131
Q

What happens when T cells undergo anergy due to lack of co-stimulation?

A

They become tolerant to that antigen, are unable to divide, and do not secrete cytokines

132
Q

What are cytokines?

A

Chemical messenger of immune system, include interferons and interleukins