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Patho II > Immune System > Flashcards

Immune System Flashcards

1
Q

Antibody mediated (humoral) immunity

A

B lymphocytes

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2
Q

Cell mediated immunity

A

T lymphocytes

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3
Q

Acute inflammatory response cell “first responders”
Phagocytes cells
40% - 75% of WBCs
Multilobed nucleus (polys)
Contain lysosomes w. Hydrolysis enzymes & oxidases
“PUS” is a mixture of dead __

A

Neutrophils

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4
Q

Mediates allergic reaction
Contain basophilic granules with heparin, histamine, & bradykinin
Release d/t binding of IgE
0.5%

A

Basophils

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5
Q

Defense against worm infections
Highly phagocytes for Ag-Ab complex
2%

A

Eosinophils

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6
Q

Large kidney shaped nucleus
Differentiated into macrophages in tissues
5%

A

Monocytes

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7
Q

Small rounded densely stained nucleus
Two look-a-like types; T cell and B cell
30%

A

Lymphocytes

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8
Q 
Similar to basophils
Mediates allergic rxn
Degranulation = release of histamine, bradykinin, heparin, slow reacting substance of anaphylaxis (SRS-A)
Can bind IgE to membrane
Involve type \_\_ hypersensitivity rxn
A

Mast cells

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9
Q

______ prevents mast cell degranulation, given for exercise induced asthma

A

Cromolyn sodium

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10
Q

3 main functions of macrophages:

A
  1. Phagocytosis
  2. Antigen presentation (invaders ingested/broken down w. Fragments of antigen presented on surface of macrophages)
  3. Cytokine production
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11
Q

Activates T-helper cell

A

IL-1

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12
Q

First line of defense: already present in tissues

A

Tissue macrophages

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13
Q

Cell-mediated response to inflammation

A
  1. Tissue macrophages
  2. Neutrophil invasion
  3. Macrophage proliferation
  4. Stimulation of granulocyte and monocyte production
  5. Formation of pus
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14
Q

Genetically-encoded (built in) to recognize:
Against foreign substances
Common pathogenic features
Not acquired thorough contact with an antigen
Non specific
Include skin, gastric acid, neutrophils, natural killers, dendritic cells, complement proteins, macrophage, and inflammation

A

Innate (natural) immunity

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15
Q

Specific resistance that occurs after exposure to bacteria, virus, or toxins
Mediated by circulating antibodies and lymphoid cells (T & B)
Can be active or passive

A

Acquired (adaptive) immunity

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16
Q

Resistance after contact with foreign antigen
Long lasting protection (memory)
Slow onset

A

Active immunity

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17
Q

Resistance based on antibodies preformed in another host
Short life-span of antibody
Ex: IgA in breast mil and IgG through placenta

A

Passive immunity

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18
Q

Part of humoral immunity; produce antibodies, synthesize in bone marrow

A

B lymphocytes

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19
Q

Part of cellular immune response, originates from bone marrow but matures in _______

A

T lymphocytes; Thymus

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20
Q

B lymphocytes differentiate into _____ cells (produce antibodies) & _____ cells

A

Plasma; memory

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21
Q

T lymphocytes differentiate into what?

A

Natural killer cells
T helper (CD4) cells
Cytotoxic/killer (CD8) cells
T-suppressor cells

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22
Q

Kill by stabbing the cell membrane. Don’t need any antigenic presentation or MHC. Kill tumor cells, fungi, and viral infected cells “pit bulls of immune system

A

Natural killers (NK cells)

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23
Q

Activate macrophage and help B-cells to produce antibodies. Also activate CD8 cells.
Destroyed by autoimmune disease

A

T-helper (CD4) cells

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24
Q

Kill virus infected, neoplastic, and donor graft cells

A

Cytotoxic/killer (CD8) cells

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25
Q

Deficiency -> autoimmune dz

A

T-suppressor cells

26
Q

Most abundant, optimizes bacteria, neutralizes toxins, cross the placenta (cross during Gestation), provide immunity to infant

A

IgG

27
Q

Main Ab in secretions, protect mucous membrane from attack by bacteria and viruses. Prevent attachment of bacteria & viruses

A

IgA

28
Q

First produce; primary response to an antigen, activate complement, does NOT cross placenta (largest size)

A

IgM

29
Q

Unclear function

A

IgD

30
Q

“Evil” antibody, mediated immediate hypersensitivity reaction, release histamine, SRS-A from mast cells & basophils upon exposure to allergens

A

IgE

31
Q

Primary vs secondary response

A

“IMunoGlobulin” IgM is released in primary (rise of antibody within 7-10 days) followed by IgG (second exposure d/t formation of memory cells)

32
Q

D/t emptying of mast cells without IgE (drugs or volume expanders like dextran)

A

Anaphylactic reaction

33
Q

Cytotoxic: IgG, IgM bind on antigen on “enemy” cell, leading to lysis (by complement) or phagocytosis.
Tens to be specific to tissue or site where antigen is found (mismatch blood transduction, Rh dz

A

Type II hypersensitivity reaction

34
Q

Immune complex: Ag-Ab complexes activate which attract neutrophils; neutrophils release lysosomal enzymes. Complement fixation leads to tissue damage “collateral damage”
(Poststrep glomerulonephritis, serum sickness, RA)

A

Type III

35
Q

Delayed (cell-mediated) type: sensitized ‘T’ lymphocytes encounter antigen and then release lymphokines (leads to macrophage activation)
Response delayed & does NOT involve antibodies
(TB skin test, transplant rejection, contact dermatitis)

A

Type IV

36
Q

Hypersensitivity reactions greatest to least (ACID)

A 
I > II > III > IV
Anaphylaxis & Atopic
Cytotoxic
Immune complex
Delayed
37
Q

B-cell deficiency. X-linked. A/w decreased immunoglobulins and recurrent Bacterial infections after 6 months of age when maternal antibodies (IgG) decline

A

Bruton’s Agammaglobuinemia

38
Q

T cell deficiency. Thymus and parathyroid fail to develop. Present with Tetany d/t hypocalcemia. Recurrent viral, fungal, and protozoan infections

A

Thymus Aplasia (DiGeorge’s syndrome)

39
Q

Severe deficiency of both B and T cells. Recurrent bacterial/viral/fungal/protozoan infections. Pt lives in plastic bubble to avoid any exposure. Tx. BMT (no rejection)

A

Severe Combined Immune Deficiency (SCID)

40
Q

Phagocytes deficiency d/t lack of NADPH oxidase (no superoxide to kill bugs). Bacterial infections by staph & strep

A

Chronic Granulomatous disease

41
Q

Defective chemotaxis. Increased IgE

A

Job’s syndrome

42
Q

Defect in DNA repair enzyme. Presents with ataxia, spider angioma and IgA deficiency

A

Ataxia-telangiectasia

43
Q

Microtubular dysfunction, decreased phagocytosis > recurrent bacterial infections

A

Chediak-Higashi syndrome

44
Q

Gold standard for dx of SSI

A

Positive bacterial culture

45
Q

Tetanospasmin (2nd powerful toxin) blocks _____ [inhibitory NT] release from spinal cord. This is needed to inhibit muscle contraction.

A

Glycine

46
Q

Symptoms of tetanus:

A

Trismus (lockjaw)
“Fixed smile”
Opisthotonos (arching of back)
Spasmodic inhalation & seizures in diaphragm & rib cage

47
Q

Tx for tetanus

A

Sedatives, muscle relaxants, & penicillin

48
Q

Mycoplasma pnuemoniae. Dx? Tx?

A

“Wall-less” walking pneumonia; increased titer of cold agglutinin (IgM);
Erythromycin or tetracycline

49
Q

HIV is a single strand of ____ belonging to a _____ family. Viral replication is dependent upon a DNA polymerase known as _________ which is responsible for copying the viral RNA to DNA

A

RNA; Retrovirus; reverse transcriptase

50
Q

Presumptive Dx of HIV is made with? + results are confirmed with?

A

ELISA “rule out test”; Western blot assay “rule in test”

51
Q

AIDS dx CD4 < __

A

200 (Nl = 500 -1500)

52
Q

Can include flulike sx within a month or two of exposure. _________ means the immune system is activated against the virus, and antibodies can be detected in the blood

A

Stage I HIV; seroconversion

53
Q

The individual usually remains free of major diseases, even w/o treatment. Can last 6-8 yrs, during which HIV levels in the blood slowly rise

A

Stage II

54
Q

Occurs when the immune system loses the fight against HIV. Symptoms worsen and opportunistic infections develop

A

Stage III HIV

55
Q

Physical exam HIV:

A 
Low grade fever, night sweats, wt loss.
Facial seborrhea
Diffuse lymphadenopathy (like Mono)
Splenomegaly
Oral candidiasis “thrush”
Herpe’s zoster infection
56
Q

Nodular and dark purple lesions on head, neck, RT, GIT a/w HIV

A

Kaposi’s sarcoma

Tx: interferon

57
Q

________ pneumonia is leading cause of death in HIV. Progressive non-productive cough, diffuse interstitial infiltrates. Tx: trimethprim-sulfamethoxazole or pentimidine

A

Pneumocystis carinii

58
Q

Tx esophageal CMV ulcer a/w HIV

A

Gancyclovir

59
Q

_____ is the most common finding with patients presenting with headache, confusion, and seizures (HIV). Tx: pyrimethamine & sulfadiazine (lifelong)

A

Toxoplasma

60
Q

MCC of blindness a/w HIV “cheese & ketchup lesion”. Tx?

A

CMV retinitis; gancyclovir

61
Q

Reverse transcriptase inhibitor used with CD4 <500

A

Azidotheymidine (AZT)

62
Q

Therapy for CD4 < 200 and pneumocystis prophylaxis

A

Trimethoprim-sulphamethoxazole

Patho II (11 decks)

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