Immune Modulation Flashcards
What are ways of boosting the immune system?
Vaccination
Replacement of missing components
Blocking immune checkpoints
Cytokine therapy
What are features of the adaptive immune response?
Wide repertoire of antigen receptors: Receptor repertoire not entirely genetically encoded.
Genes for segments of receptors are rearranged + nucleic acids deleted/ added at the sites of rearrangement almost randomly.
Potential to create in order of 10^11 to 10^12 receptors.
Autoreactive cells are likely to be generated.
Mechanisms must exist to delete or tolerise these autoreactive cells.
Exquisite specificity: Able to discriminate between very small differences in molecular structure.
What are antigen presenting cells?
Cells that can present peptides to T lymphocytes to initiate an acquired immune response.
Include:
- Dendritic cell
- Macrophage
- B lymphocyte
What are 5 types of osteoclasts?
Langerhans cells
Mesangial cells
Kupffer cells
Osteoclasts
Microglia
What is clonal expansion after exposure to an antigen?
T cells with appropriate specificity will proliferate + differentiate into effector cells (cytokine secreting, cytotoxic).
B cells with appropriate specificity will proliferate +
differentiate to T cell independent (IgM) (memory) plasma cells
undergo germinal centre reaction + differentiate to T cell dependent IgG/A/E(M) memory + plasma cells.
Plasma cells secrete high affinity specific antibodies.
What is immunological memory?
Pre-formed pool of high affinity specific antibodies.
Residual pool of specific T + B cells with enhanced capacity to respond if re-infection occurs.
What are features of T-cell memory?
Longevity: Memory T cells are maintained for a long time without antigen by continual low-level proliferation in response to cytokines.
Different pattern of expression of cell surface proteins involved in chemotaxis/cell adhesion: Allow memory cells to access non-lymphoid tissues, the sites of microbial entry.
Rapid, robust response to subsequent antigen exposure: There are more memory cells. These cells are more easily activated than naïve cells.
What are features of B-cell memory?
Pre-formed antibody: Circulating high affinity IgG antibodies.
Longevity: Long lived memory B cells + plasma cells.
Rapid, robust response to subsequent antigen exposure: Memory B cells are more easily + rapidly activated than naïve cells.
How do vaccines promote immunity against influenza?
CD8 T cells control virus load AFTER infection
Neutralising antibody provides a protective response to prevent infection.
Hemagglutinin (HA) is the receptor-binding + membrane fusion glycoprotein of influenza + the target for infectivity-neutralizing antibodies.
Clear correlation between resistance to infection + levels of IgG antibody to HA.
How is the BCG effective at mounting a protective response?
Attenuated, strain of bovine tuberculosis
Some protection against primary infection
Some protection against progression to active TB
T cell response is important in protection
What is the test for immunity against TB?
Mantoux test
Inject 0.1ml of 5 tuberculin units of liquid tuberculin intradermally.
The tuberculin used in the Mantoux skin test is AKA purified protein derivative, or PPD.
Patient’s arm is examined 48-72h after the tuberculin is injected.
Reaction is an area of induration (swelling that can be felt) around the site of the injection.
What are the different types of vaccines?
- Live vaccines
- Inactivated/ Component vaccines
(Conjugates + Adjuvants increase immunogenicity) - RNA vaccines
- Adenoviral vector vaccines
- Dendritic cell vaccines
What are 7 examples of live attenuated vaccines?
MMR
BCG
Yellow fever
Zostavax
Typhoid (oral)
Polio (Sabin oral)
Influenza (Fluenz tetra for children 2-17y)
How do live attenuated vaccines work?
Induce immune response
Modified (attenuated) organism to limit pathogenesis
Avoid if immunosuppressed
What are advantages of live attenuated vaccinations?
Establishes infection: Ideally mild Sx.
Raises broad immune response to multiple antigens: More likely to protect against different strains.
Activates all phases of immune system. T cells, B cells: With local IgA, humoral IgG.
May confer lifelong immunity, sometimes just after 1 dose.
What are disadvantages of live attenuated vaccines?
Possible reversion to virulence (recombination, mutation): Vaccine associated paralytic poliomyelitis (VAPP, ca.1:750,000 recipients).
Spread to contacts: Spread to immunosuppressed/ immunodeficient patients.
Storage problems.
What are 7 examples of inactivated viruses?
Influenza (inactivated quadrivalent)
Cholera
Bubonic plague
Polio (Salk)
Hepatitis A
Pertussis
Rabies
What are 3 examples of component/ subunit vaccines?
Hepatitis B (HbS antigen)
HPV (capsid)
Influenza (recombinant quadrivalent- less commonly used)
What are 2 examples of toxoid (inactivated toxin) vaccines?
Diphtheria
Tetanus
What are 4 advantages of inactivated/ component vaccines?
No risk of reversion to virulent form
Can be used with immunodeficient patients
Storage easier
Lower cost
What are 4 disadvantages of inactivated/component vaccines?
Often do not follow normal route of infection.
Some components have poor immunogenicity.
May need multiple injections.
May require modification to enhance immunogenicity.
* Conjugate to protein carrier
* Adjuvant
What are conjugate vaccines made of?
Conjugate vaccines (often used in children)
Polysaccharide plus protein carrier.
Polysaccharide alone induces a T cell independent B cell response – transient.
Addition of protein carrier promotes T cell immunity which enhances the B cell/ antibody response.
What are 3 examples of conjugate vaccines?
Haemophilus Influenzae B
Meningococcus
Pneumococcus (Prevenar)
(Remember NHS for polysaccharide encapsulated bacteria)
What is an adjuvant to a vaccine?
Adjuvant increases the immune response without altering its specificity.
Mimic action of PAMPs (pathogen associated molecular patterns) on TLR (toll-like receptors) + other PRR (pattern recognition receptors).
What are 3 examples of adjuvants?
Aluminium salts (humans)
Lipids: Monophosphoryl lipid A (humans HPV)
Oils: Freund’s adjuvant (animals)
What is an example of a mRNA vaccine?
SARS-CoV
How are mRNA vaccines made?
Infect E coli with plasmids containing DNA for spike protein.
Harvest plasmids from the cultures.
Excise DNA + transcribe to mRNA.
Complex with lipids to create the vaccine.
How do mRNA vaccines work?
Inject mRNA/lipid complexes:
* Non-infectious
* Non-integrating
* Degraded within days
mRNA enters cells (e.g. muscle cells, endothelial cells, fibroblasts, dendritic cells).
mRNA translated + spike protein synthesised/ expressed on surface.
Stimulates immune response inc. B cells/ antibodies + T cells.
What are adenoviral vector vaccines?
DNA of relevant protein (Covid spike protein) inserted to viral vector to produce vaccine.
AZ Covid vaccine vector: ChAdOx1-S
Sputnik Covid vaccine vector: Adenovirus types 26 + 5
Infect cells in vivo
Transcription/ translation to produce protein
Stimulates immune response inc. B cells/ antibodies + T cells.
What are dendritic cell vaccines?
Acquired defects in DC maturation + function a/w some malignancy suggests a rationale for using ex vivo–generated DC pulsed with tumour antigens as vaccines.
Focus on tumour associated antigens or mutational antigen.
What is Sipuleucel-T Provenge vaccine?
Personalised immunotherapy for prostatic cancer.
Remove white cells from patient’s blood (leukaphoresis).
APCs are harvested + incubated with recombinant protein PAP-GMCSF (Prostatic acid phosphatase-granulocyte macrophage colony stimulating factor).
APCs infused back to patient.
Stimulates patient’s immune response.
How can missing components of immune systems be replaced?
Haematopoietic stem cell transplantation: donor or autologous.
Antibody replacement
What are indications for stem cell transplant?
Life-threatening primary immunodeficiencies:
- Severe combined immunodeficiency
- Leukocyte adhesion defect
Haematological malignancy:
- Offers potential for complete + permanent cure
What is antibody replacement?
Human normal immunoglobulin prepared from pools of >1000 donors.
Contains preformed IgG antibody to a wide range of unspecified organisms.
Blood product:
- Donors screened for Hep B, Hep C P+ HIV
- Further treated to kill any live virus
Administration
IV or SC
What are indications for antibody replacement therapy?
Primary antibody deficiency:
- X linked agammaglobulinaemia
- X linked hyper IgM syndrome
- Common variable immune deficiency
Secondary antibody deficiency:
- Haematological malignancies
- Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
- Multiple myeloma
What is specific immunoglobulin modulation?
Human immunoglobulin used for post-exposure prophylaxis (passive immunisation).
Derived from plasma donors with high titres of IgG antibodies to specific pathogens.
Which diseases can be modulated using specific immunoglobulins?
Hep B immunoglobulin: Needle stick/ bite/ sexual contact: from HepBSag+ve individual.
Rabies immunoglobulin: To bite site following potential rabies exposure.
Varicella Zoster immunoglobulin: Women <20w pregnancy or immunosuppressed where aciclovir or valaciclovir is CI.
Tetanus immunoglobulin: No specific preparation available in UK: use IVIG for suspected tetanus.
What are examples of adoptive cell transfer (T-cells)?
Virus specific T cells
Tumour infiltrating T cells (TIL–T cell therapy)
T cell receptor T cells (TCR-T cell therapy)
Chimeric antigen receptor T cells (CAR–T cell therapy)
What are indications for virus specific T-cell therapy?
EBV related B cell lymphoproliferative disease
Severe persistent viral infection in immunocompromised
What are indications for chimeric antigen receptor T-cell therapy?
Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
CAR T cells less successful in solid tumours
How does chimeric antigen receptor T cell therapy work?
T-cells with chimeric receptors targeting CD19:
- Patient’s own T cells
- Genetically engineered to express receptor
- Expanded in vitro
Used for ALL in children.
Used for some forms of non-Hodgkin lymphoma.
What is the significance of PD1 and PD1 ligand?
Immune checkpoint
PD1 binds to PD1 ligands (on APCs + some tumours)
This stimulates programmed death of the T cell
If tumour expresses PD1 ligand, it can kill off the T cells that are trying to infiltrate + control the tumour
Other than PD1-PD1L interaction, what other immune checkpoint are expressed on T cells?
CD28 on CD8 T cells binds CD80 + CD86= ACTIVATING signal
CTLA4 on T cells binds CD80 + CD86 = INHIBITORY signal
What is ipilimumab and how does it function?
Action:
- Antibody binds to CTLA4
- Blocks immune checkpoint (blocks programmed death)
- Allows T cell activation
Indications: Advanced melanoma
Complications: Autoimmunity
What are Pembrolizumab and Nivolumab and how do they function?
Action:
- Antibody binds to PD-1
- Blocks immune checkpoint (+ thus blocks programmed death signal)
- Allows T cell activation
Indications + dosing:
- Advanced melanoma
- Metastatic renal cell cancer
Complications: Autoimmunity (broad T cell activation)
What are the clinical uses of recombinant cytokines?
Aim: Modify immune response
-
Interleukin 2: Stimulate T cell response:
Renal cell cancer -
Interferon alpha: Antiviral effect:
- Hepatitis B
- Hepatitis C (with ribavirin)
- Interferon gamma – Enhance macrophage function: Chronic granulomatous disease.
The purpose of vaccination is to stimulate and enhance immunological memory. Which type of cells mediate immunological memory?
A. Neutrophils
B. B and T lymphocytes
C. Platelets
D. Eosinophils
E. Macrophages
B. B and T lymphocytes
Which of the following vaccines should NOT be given to an immunosuppressed individual?
A. BCG - bacilli Calmette-Guerin
B. Diphtheria toxoid
C. Quadrivalent inactivated influenza vaccine
D. Polio (Salk – injected)
E. Pfizer Covid mRNA vaccine
A. BCG - bacilli Calmette-Guerin
A 23 year old has metastatic melanoma. Which of the following may reduce disease progression?
A. BCG vaccination
B. Bone marrow transplantation
C. CAR-T cells with specificity for CD19
D. Nivolumab, an antibody specific for PD-1
E. Normal human immunoglobulin
D. Nivolumab, an antibody specific for PD-1
What are methods of suppressing the immune system?
- Steroids
- Anti-proliferative agents
- Plasma exchange
- Inhibitors of cell signalling
- Agents directed at cell surface antigens
- Agents directed at cytokines + their receptors
What is the action of phospholipase A2?
Breaks down phospholipids to form arachidonic acid which is converted to eicosanoids (e.g. prostaglandins, leukotrienes) by cyclo-oxygenases.
What is the effect of corticosteroids on prostaglandins?
Inhibit phospholipase A2:
Blocks arachidonic acid + prostaglandin formation
Thus reduces inflammation.
What is the effect of corticosteroids on phagocytosis?
Decreased traffic of phagocytes to inflamed tissue.
Decreased expression of adhesion molecules on endothelium.
Blocks signals that tell immune cells to move from bloodstream + into tissues. Results in transient increase in neutrophil counts.
Decreased phagocytosis.
Decreased release of proteolytic enzymes.
What is the effect of corticosteroids on lymphocyte function?
Lymphopenia
Sequestration of lymphocytes in lymphoid tissue: Affects CD4+ T cells > CD8+ T cells > B cells
Blocks cytokine gene expression.
Decreased antibody production.
Promotes apoptosis.
What are side effects of corticosteroids?
Metabolic effects:
Other effects:
Immunosuppression: Infection.
Give 7 metabolic side effects of corticosteroids
Diabetes
Central obesity
Moon face
Lipid abnormalities
Osteoporosis
Hiruitism
Adrenal suppression
Give 5 non-metabolic side effects of corticosteroids
Cataracts
Glaucoma
Peptic ulceration
Pancreatitis
Avascular necrosis
What are anti-proliferative immunosuppressants?
Cytotoxic agents.
Drugs:
* Cyclophosphamide
* Mycophenolate
* Azathioprine
Action:
* Inhibit DNA synthesis
* Cells with rapid turnover most sensitive
Toxicity:
* BM suppression
* Infection
* Malignancy
* Teratogenic
Which anti-proliferative immunosuppressant can be used in pregnancy?
Azathioprine
What are the side effects of cyclophosphamide?
Toxic to proliferating cells:
* BM depression
* Hair loss
* Sterility (M>>F)
Haemorrhagic cystitis:
* Toxic metabolite acrolein excreted via urine
Malignancy:
* Bladder cancer
* Haematological malignancies
* Non-melanoma skin cancer
Infection: Pneumocystis jiroveci
Which anti-proliferative immunosuppressant is the most toxic and least used?
Cyclophosphamide
What drug can be given to prevent infection with PCP whilst using anti-proliferative immunosuppressants?
Co-trimoxazole
What are side effects of azathioprine?
BM suppression:
Cells with rapid turnover (leucocytes + platelets) are esp. sensitive. 1:300 individuals are extremely susceptible to BM suppression.
Hepatotoxicity: Idiosyncratic + uncommon.
Infection: Serious infection less common than with cyclophosphamide.
Which individuals are extremely susceptible to BM suppression when using Azathioprine?
- Thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) polymorphisms.
- Unable to metabolise azathioprine, levels build up + extremely toxic.
- Check TPMT activity or gene variants before tx if possible
*Check FBC after starting therapy.
What are the side effects of mycophenolate mofetil?
BM suppression:
Cells with rapid turnover (leucocytes + platelets) esp. sensitive.
Infection:
* Particular risk of herpes virus reactivation
* Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (JC virus)
What is plasmapheresis and plasma exchange?
Aim: Removal of pathogenic antibody.
Patient’s blood passed through cell separator. Own cellular constituents reinfused.
Plasma treated to remove Ig + then reinfused (or replaced with albumin in ‘plasma exchange’).
What are disadvantages of plasmapheresis?
Rebound antibody production limits efficacy (still have own plasma + B cells), therefore usually given with anti-proliferative agent.
What are indications for plasmapheresis?
Severe antibody-mediated disease:
- Goodpasture syndrome: Anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies.
- Severe acute myasthenia gravis: Anti-acetyl choline receptor antibodies.
- Antibody mediated transplant rejection/ ABO incompatible: Antibodies directed at donor HLA/AB molecules.
Which conditions in general are plasmapheresis used in?
Type II hypersensitivity reactions –where the antibody itself is directly pathogenic (not just a marker)
What are calcineurin inhibitors? What are they used in?
Inhibit T cell proliferation/ function as block components in T cell activation pathway
Used in:
- Transplantation
- SLE
- Psoriatic arthritis
Give 2 examples of calcineurin inhibitors
Ciclosporin
Tacrolimus
What are mTOR inhibitors? When are they used?
mTOR: Mechanistic Target of Rapamycin
mTOR inhibitors block T cell proliferation + function.
Used in: Transplantation.
Give an example of an mTOR inhibitor
Sirolimus
What are Jak inhibitors (Jaknibs)?
Inhibit JAK-STAT signalling (a/w cytokine receptors). Influences gene transcription.
Inhibits production of inflammatory molecules. Effective in Rheumatoid arthritis, psoriatic arthritis, axial spondyloarthritis.
What is Apremilast?
PDE4 inhibitor
Inhibition of PDE4 leads to increase in cAMP.
Influences gene transcription via protein kinase A pathway.
Modulates cytokine production.
Effective in psoriasis + psoriatic arthritis.
What are agents directed at cell surface antigens?
Drugs:
- Rabbit anti-thymocyte globulin
- Basiliximab – anti-CD25
- Abatacept – CTLA4-Ig
- Rituximab – anti-CD20
- Vedolizumab – anti-a4b7 integrin
Actions include:
- Block signalling
- Cell depletion
- Inhibit migration
What is anti-thymocyte globulin?
Indications + dosing
Action
Toxicity
Indications + dosing:
- Allograft rejection (renal, heart)
- Daily IV infusion
Action – multiple modes:
- Lymphocyte depletion
- Modulation of T cell activation
- Modulation of T cell migration
Toxicity:
- Infusion reactions
- Leukopenia
- Infection
- Malignancy
What is Basiliximab?
Indications + dosing
Action
Toxicity
Antibody directed at CD25 (IL-2Ra chain).
Indications + dosing:
- Prophylaxis of allograft rejection.
- IV given before + after transplant surgery.
Action: Blocks IL-2 induced signalling + inhibits T cell proliferation.
Toxicity:
- Infusion reactions
- Infection
- Concern re: long term risk malignancy.
What is Abatacept?
Indications + dosing
Action
Toxicity
CTLA4–Ig fusion protein
Indications + dosing:
Rheumatoid arthritis: IV 4 weekly; SC weekly.
Action: Reduces co-stimulation of T cells via CD28.
Toxicity:
- Infusion reactions
- Infection (TB, HBV, HCV)
- Caution wrt malignancy
What is Rituximab?
Indications + dosing
Action
Toxicity
anti-CD-20 antibody
Indications + dose:
- Lymphoma
- Rheumatoid arthritis
- SLE
- 2 doses IV every 6-12 months (RA)
Action: Depletes mature B cells.
Toxicity:
- Infusion reactions
- Infection (PML)
- Exacerbation CV disease
What is Vedolizumab?
Indications + dosing
Action
Toxicity
Antibody specific for a4b7 integrin.
Indications + dosing:
- Inflammatory bowel disease.
- IV every 8w
Action: Inhibits leukocyte migration.
Toxicity:
- Infusion reactions
- Hepatotoxic
- Infection (? PML)
- Concern re malignancy
What is TNF-alpha?
TNFa is a pivotal cytokine in inflammation in many conditions.
TNFa blockade used in:
- Rheumatoid arthritis
- Psoriasis and psoriatic arthritis
- Inflammatory bowel disease
- Familial Mediterranean fever
What are 4 anti-TNF-alpha antibodies?
Infliximab
Adalimumab
Certolizumab
Golimumab
When are anti-TNF-alpha antibodies used for?
Indications + dosing
Action
Toxicity
Indications + dosing:
- Rheumatoid arthritis
- Ankylosing spondylitis
- Psoriasis and psoriatic arthritis
- Inflammatory bowel disease
- SC or IV
Action: Inhibit TNFa
Toxicity:
- Infusion or injection site reactions
- Infection (TB, HBV, HCV)
- Lupus-like conditions
- Demyelination
- Malignancy
What is Etanercept?
Indications + dosing
Action
Toxicity
TNF-alpha antagonist
Indications + dosing:
- Rheumatoid arthritis
- Ankylosing spondylitis
- Psoriasis + psoriatic arthritis
- Subcutaneous weekly
Action: Inhibits TNFa + TNFb.
Toxicity:
- Injection site reactions
- Infection (TB, HBV, HCV)
- Lupus-like conditions
- Demyelination
- Malignancy
What is IL-1?
IL-1 secretion driven via the inflammasome.
IL-1 blockade may be used in Familial Mediterranean Fever, Gout, Adult Onset Stills Disease.
What is IL-6?
IL-6 plays an important role in inflammation in rheumatoid arthritis.
IL-6 blockade using an anti-IL6 receptor antibody is effective in rheumatoid arthritis.
What are Tocilizumab and Sarilumab?
Indications + dosing
Action
Toxicity
Antibodies directed at IL-6 receptor.
Indications + dosing:
- Castleman’s disease
- Rheumatoid arthritis
- Subcutaneous every 1-2w
Action: Reduces macrophage, T cell, B cell, neutrophil activation.
Toxicity:
- Infusion reactions
- Infection
- Hepatotoxic
- Elevated lipids
- Caution wrt malignancy
What are IL-23 and IL-17?
IL23 – IL17 pathway important in spondyloarthritides and related conditions.
- Axial spondyloarthritis (AS)
- Psoriasis and psoriatic arthritis
- Inflammatory bowel disease (not anti-IL17 for IBD)
What is Guselkumab?
Indications + dosing
Action
Toxicity
Ab vs p19 (alpha) subunit of IL23.
IL-23: IL-23 comprises p40+p19
Indications + dosing: Psoriasis, psoriatic arthritis; Subcutaneous every 8w
Action: Inhibits IL-23
Toxicity:
- Injection site reactions
- Infection (TB)
- Concern re malignancy
What are IL-4, IL-5 and IL13?
IL-4, IL-5 + IL-13 are key cytokines in Th2 + eosinophil responses.
IL-4/13 blockade using an antibody specific for the IL4 receptor alpha subunit may be used for eczema + asthma.
Anti-IL13 antibody may be used for eczema.
Anti-IL5 antibody is used for eosinophilic asthma.
What are RANK and RANK-ligand?
RANK ligand/RANK receptor pathway important in driving osteoclast differentiation and function.
Anti-RANK ligand antibody is used in management of osteoporosis.
What is Denosumab?
Antibody directed at RANK ligand.
Indications and dosing: Osteoporosis; Subcutaneous every 6 months.
Action: Inhibits RANK mediated osteoclast differentiation and function.
Toxicity:
- Injection site reactions
- Infection – mildly immunosuppressive
- Avascular necrosis of jaw
What are side-effects of biologic agents?
Infusion reactions:
- Urticaria, hypotension, tachycardia, wheeze – IgE mediated.
- Headaches, fevers, myalgias – not classical type I hypersensitivity.
Injection site reactions:
- Peak reaction at ~48h
- May also occur at previous injection sites (recall reactions)
- Mixed cellular infiltrates, often with CD8 T cells
- Not generally IgE or immune complexes
What is the association between acute infection and immunosuppression?
- Risk often > 2 x background
- Avoid contact/wash hands etc
- Vaccination (avoid live vaccines)
- Temporarily stop immunosuppression in case of infection
- Consider atypical organisms
- Appropriate abx
What is the association between chronic infections and immunosuppression?
Tuberculosis:
- Hx, Residence, Travel, Contacts, CXR, TB Elispot
- Prophylaxis or tx if required
HBV and HCV:
- Check Hep B core antibody pre-tx
- Check Hep C antibody pre-tx
- Further investigate for active virus infection if serology is positive
HIV:
- Check HIV serology pre-tx
- Balance benefits against possible risks
What is the association between JC Virus and immunosupression?
Common polyomavirus that can reactivate
Infects and destroys oligodendrocytes
Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy
A/w use of multiple immunosuppressive agents
What is the association between immunosupression and malignancy?
- Lymphoma (EBV)
- Non melanoma skin cancers (Human papilloma virus)
- ?Melanoma
Risks appear lower with targeted forms of immunosuppression than with regimes used in transplantation.
What is the association between autoimmunity and immunosuppression?
- SLE and lupus-like syndromes
- Anti-phospholipid syndromes
- Vasculitis
- Interstitial lung disease
- Sarcoidosis
- Uveitis
- Autoimmune hepatitis
- Demyelination
A young woman with SLE is found to have osteoporosis. She has experienced weight gain and easy bruising and has a high blood glucose. Which drug is likely to have caused these effects?
A. Azathioprine
B. Anti-CD20 (rituximab)
C. Mycophenolate mofetil
D. Prednisolone
E. Anti-TNF alpha
D. Prednisolone
Rituximab is a monoclonal antibody specific for CD20 on B cells. It depletes B cells. For which one of the following diseases is it effective treatment?
A. Ankylosing spondylitis
B. Malignant melanoma
C. Multiple sclerosis
D. Osteoporosis
E. Rheumatoid arthritis
E. Rheumatoid arthritis
Which of the following are true about management of psoriasis and psoriatic arthritis?
A. It responds to inhibition of RANK ligand (denosumab).
B. It responds to CAR-T cells.
C. Treatment options include IL6 blockade or B cell depletion with rituximab.
D. Treatment options include inhibition of TNF alpha, IL23 or IL17A or use of a PD4 blocker or ciclosporin.
E. Treatment options include use of a checkpoint inhibitor such as nivolumab.
D. Tx options include inhibition of TNF alpha, IL23 or IL17A or use of a PD4 blocker or ciclosporin.
