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IMMS Flashcards

1
Q

what are the structures and functions of mitochondria?

A

Cytosol - site of glycolysis
Matrix - site of Krebs cycle
Cristae - Site of electron transport chain and CHEMIOSMOSIS
Inner membrane - Has ATP synthase allows flow of H+ from ETC to produce ATP

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2
Q

What is chemiosmosis?

A

Movement of ions across semipermeable membrane down their electrochemical gradient. E.g ATP gen via movement of H+

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3
Q

Function of Ribosomes

A

Protein synthesis

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4
Q

Function of Rough ER

A

Synthesis and processing of proteins - network of branching sacs with ribosomes attached.

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5
Q

Function of Smooth ER

A

Contains enzymes for synthesis of lipids

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6
Q

Function of Golgi apparatus

A

Processing and packaging of proteins

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7
Q

Function of cytoskeleton

A

Structural support, movement of materials (i.e vesicles)

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8
Q

Function of nucleus

A

Contains genetic information, assembles ribosome subunits (RNA)

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9
Q

Function of lysosomes

A

Contains acid hydrolases for digestion and recycling.

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10
Q

Function of peroxisomes

A

Fatty acid and ethanol oxidation, contains catalase (converts hydrogen peroxide —-> water + oxygen.

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11
Q

What is lipofuscin?

A

yellow-brown pigment granules made from lipid-containing residues of lysosomal digestion. (perioxidation of lipids)

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12
Q

Where are lipids stored in the body?

A 
stored in adipocytes (as tryglycerides)
in cell membranes
in lipoproteins (HDL&LDL)
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13
Q

Where is glycogen stored?

A

Stored in liver and muscle

how excess glucose is stored-converted by glucagon from pancreas

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14
Q

Describe the structure of the cell membrane

A

Phospholipid bilayer-fluid mosaic model.

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15
Q

What does a cell membrane contained?

A

Cholesterol - binds together phospholipids
Proteins - Channel and carrier - for transport
Glycolipids/proteins - cell signalling

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16
Q

Functions of a cell membrane

A

Partially permeable membrane
site of membrane receptors
regulates what goes in and out of the cell
Acts a barrier separates IC (intracellular) from EC

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17
Q

Describe simple diffusion

A

the passive movement of particles from a region of high conc to low conc through partially permeable membrane.
SMALL NON POLAR molecules

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18
Q

Describe facilitated diffusion

A

Transport of particles through pp membrane using a carrier molecule.
LARGE AND POLAR

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19
Q

Describe active transport

A

movement of particles from a low to a high concentration using ATP - usually requires carrier molecule.

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20
Q

Cell junctions

A 
Tight junction
Adherens Junction
Desmosome
hemidesmosome
Gap junction
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21
Q

Describe a tight junction

A

Seals neighbouring cells together in epithelial sheet

prevents leakage of molecules.

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22
Q

Describe an adherens junction

A

Joins an actin bundle in one cell to a similar bundle in another cell.

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23
Q

Describe a desmosome.

A

Joins the intermediate filaments in one cell to those in a neighbouring cell.

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24
Q

Describe a hemidesmosome

A

anchors intermediate filaments in a cell to a basal lamina

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25
Q

Describe the purpose of a Gap junction

A

Allows the passage of small water-soluble ions and molecules.

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26
Q

Define homeostasis.

A

the maintenance of a constant internal equilibrium - despite external changes.

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27
Q

Describe the major communication systems involved in homeostasis.

A

Endocrine (hormones)
nervous (neurotransmitters)
immune (antibodies, and immune chemical messengers i.e cytokines).

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28
Q

Describe positive feedback.

A

amplification of a signal e.g oxytocin release during childbirth - clotting cascade.

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29
Q

Describe negative feedback.

A

bearing towards an equilibrium i.e thermoregulation , blood glucose regulation

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30
Q

Define Autocrine cell communication

A

Chemical released from cell into ECF and acts upon itself

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31
Q

Define paracrine

A

Local cellular communication; travels short distances i.e ACh at NMJ. These travel in ECF

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32
Q

Define endocrine.

A

Secretion into blood NOT via duct. Long distance communication i.e. HPA axis

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33
Q

Define exocrine.

A

Secretion via ducts into organ i.e (salivary and sweat glands.

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34
Q

What are the three modes of secretion?

A

Merocrine
Apocrine
Holocrine

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35
Q

Merocrine secretion is when?

A

No part of the cell is lost with secretion

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36
Q

Apocrine secretion is when?

A

The top part of the cell is lost with secretion.

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37
Q

Holocrine secretion is when?

A

The entire cell is lost with secretion.

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38
Q

Based on an average 70kg male what is the total water content?

A

42L (~60%)

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39
Q

Describe the water distribution in a 70 kg male.

A

42L Total –>28L ICF

14L ECF —> Interstitial fluid 11L and Plasma (intravascular) 3L

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40
Q

Define Osmosis

A

The net diffusion of water across a PP membrane from a region of high water potential to a region of low water potential.

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41
Q

Define osmolality

A

Total solute conc of a solution: number of solute particles per 1kg of solvent (HIGHER osmolality = LOWER water potential)

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42
Q

Define osmolarity

A

Total solute conc of a solution: number of solute particles per 1L of solvent (HIGHER osmolality = LOWER water potential)

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43
Q

Define osmotic pressure

A

The pressure that must be applied to one side of a membrane to prevent osmotic flow of water across the membrane from a compartment of pure water.

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44
Q

Define Oncotic Pressure

A

A form of osmotic pressure exerted by proteins (albumin)

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45
Q

Study the RAAS diagram

A

understand what acts on what

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46
Q

Normal water levels are when

A

excess water in the intracellular tissue space

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47
Q

What is inflammatory Oedema

A

Increased vascular permeability causes proteins to leak out;water follows proteins.
Fibrinogen polymerizes to form fibrin mesh - antibodies collect.

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48
Q

Venous oedema

A

Due to increased venous pressure/ obstruction i.e. thrombus.

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49
Q

Lymphatic Oedema

A

Caused by blockage of lymphatic system from tumour / parasite

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50
Q

What are 3 causes of Hypernatremia

A

renal failure, mineralcorticoid excess, diabetes insipidus

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51
Q

What is a consequence of hypernatremia

A

Cerebral intracellular dehydration

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52
Q

what are causes of Hyponatremia

A

diuresis, oedema, excess IV fluids

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53
Q

what are consequences of hyponatremia

A

intracellular overhydration,hypotension

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54
Q

What are 3 causes of hyperkalaemia

A

renal failure, diuretics, ACE inhibitors

ACE produces aldosterone - aldosterone controls na/k pump

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55
Q

what are 3 consequences of hyperkalaemia

A

risk of MI- high K+ levels interfere with resting potential for heart contraction

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56
Q

what are 3 causes of Hypokalaemia

A

D&V, alkalosis, hypomanesaemia

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57
Q

consequences of Hypokalaemia consequences?

A

weakness, cardiac dysrhythmia

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58
Q

Causes of Hypercalcemia

A

10 hyperparathyroidism (Calcium ions leached from bone, increasing blood calcium), vit D toxicity, TB, skeletal metastases

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59
Q

consequences of hypercalcemia

A

metastatic calcification (calcium deposition; forming stones)

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60
Q

causes of hypocalcemia

A

vit D deficiency, Mg deficiency, renal disease, parathyroidectomy

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61
Q

Consequences of Hypocalcemia

A

tetany (spasms of hands, feet, voice box)

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62
Q

General formula for carbohydrate

A

CnH2nOn

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63
Q

What is a tryglyceride

A

3 fatty acids + glycerol

melting point decreases with degree of unsaturation

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64
Q

What is a phospholipid

A

Glycerol, 2 fatty acids, phosphate group

Hydrophilic phosphate head, hydrophobic fatty acid tail.

65
Q

Define Lipoproteins

A 
HDL = GOOD = transports cholesterol to the liver to be metabolized
LDL = BAD = transports cholesterol to the cells
66
Q

Define primary protein

A

A sequence of amino acids

67
Q

Secondary protein

A

Local folding - alpha helix or beta pleated sheets

68
Q

Supersecondary protein

A

Intermediate be secondary and tertiary

Zinc finger, helix-turn-helix, beta-alpha-beta, beta-hairpin. Just know an example!

69
Q

Tertiary protein

A

3D folding pattern due to chain interactions

70
Q

Quaternary protein

A

Protein consisting of more than one amino acid chain.

71
Q

Enzymes

A

Biological catalysts – reduce the activation energy of a reaction
Large, globular proteins
Do not change their structure during the reaction
Lock and Key model
Induced fit model
Very specific to the reaction they are catalysing

72
Q

Coenzymes

A

Non-protein compound necessary for the normal functioning of an enzyme

Small, organic molecules
Bind to the active site of an enzyme, activating it

Change in structure during the reaction; bind to functional groups released from the reaction

Less specific

73
Q

Three characteristics of human DNA replication

A

Semi-conservative, non-continuous, universal

74
Q

What is the role of Topoisomerase in DNA replication

A

Relieves supercoils, unwinding the double helix

75
Q

What is the role of DNA Helicase in DNA replication

A

Breaks hydrogen bonds between the two strands, exposing nucleotides

76
Q

What is the role of DNA polymerase in DNA replication

A

Reads 3’ to 5’. Prints 5’ to 3’. Works in pairs to make 2 strands of new DNA. Semi-conservative as one strand is preserved. Starts at primer

77
Q

What is a primer (DNA replication)

A

short strand of DNA – acts as a starting point for DNA synthesis as DNA polymerase can only add nucleotides to an existing strand

78
Q

What is a Single strand binding protein (SSB)

A

– keeps the two DNA strands apart during the synthesis of new DNA – prevents annealing

79
Q

First stage of transcription

A

Topoisomerase unwinds the DNA double helix (relieves supercoils)
SSBs coat the DNA strand to prevent annealing

80
Q

Second stage of transcription

A

Free mRNA nucleotides line up against their complementary bases on the template - begins at promoter region

81
Q

Third stage of transcription

A

Antiparallel mRNA strand formed - from 5’ to 3’

mRNA leaves nucleus and attaches to 80S ribosome in cytoplasm

82
Q

First stage of translation

A

mRNA attached to 80S ribosome

tRNA molecules have anticodons complementary to the codons on the mRNA strand on one end and an amino acid on the other

83
Q

Second stage of translation

A

Once two tRNA molecules are adjacent a peptide bond forms between the amino acids

84
Q

Third stage of translation

A

Process of peptide bonds forming stops once stop codon is reached
At stop codon no tRNA binds, so then the polypeptide is released into the cytoplasm

85
Q

What is a missense mutation

A

When a DNA nucleotide is switched out for another resulting in a different amino acid being coded for.

86
Q

What is a nonsense mutation

A

When the switch in nucleotides results in a stop codon being coded for

87
Q

What is a silent mutation

A

When a nucleotide is switched out but the same amino acid is coded for

88
Q

First 4 stages of mitosis in order

A 
Interphase
Prophase
Prometaphase
Metaphase
(LEARN WHAT THE STAGES LOOK LIKE)
89
Q

Last 3 stages of mitosis in order

A

Anaphase
Telophase
Cytokinesis

90
Q

Describe what happens in prophase

A

nuclear envelope breaks down, chromosome condenses and become visible - CROSSING OVER OCCURS

91
Q

Describe what happens in prometaphase and metaphase

A

Prometaphase - spindle fibres begin to form
Metaphase - chromosomes line up along the metaphase plate, each sister chromatid attached to spindle fibres from opposite poles.

92
Q

Describe what happens in Anaphase

A

Centromeres split in two. sister chromatids pulled towards opposite poles

93
Q

Describe what happens in Telophase

A

nuclear envelope begins to reform, cleavage begins to form, spindle breaks down
Then cytokinesis and two new cells form

94
Q

Describe meiosis

A

Production of sex cells by reducing their chromosome number in half
2n -> 4n -> 2n -> n
Creates genetic variability in the gametes

95
Q

Name 3 genetic abnormalities

A

Non-disjunction
Numerical
Structural

96
Q

What is Non-disjunction

A

When homologous chromosomes fail to separate properly during cell division

97
Q

What is a numerical genetic abnormality

A

A type of chromosomal defect; different number of chromosomes i.e 47XXY (Klinefelter Syndrome)

98
Q

What is a structural genetic abnormality

A

When parts of an individual chromosome is missing, duplicated, transferred to another chromosome, or turned upside down. (Insertion, translocation)

99
Q

What is mosaicism

A

Mosaicism is when a person has 2 or more genetically different sets of cells in his or her body.

100
Q

What is gonadal mosaicisim

A

More than one set of genetic information is present-specifically in gamete cells
All or part of a parental germline is affected by disease mutation, but the parental somatic cells aren’t affected
May or may not affect offspring

101
Q

Example of gonadal mosaicism

A

Osteogenesis imperfecta

102
Q

What is a phenotype

A

The observable characteristics of an individual derived from the genotype and it’s interaction with the environment

103
Q

What is a genotype

A

The genetic constitution of an organism

104
Q

What is a Karyotype

A

The number and visual appearance of the chromosomes in the nuclei of an organism

105
Q

What is Mendelian inheritance

A

pattern of inheritance following the laws of segregation and independent assortment

106
Q

What is multifactorial inheritance

A

where both genetic and environmental factors produce a trait or condition

107
Q

What is Mendel’s 2nd Law

A

Independent assortment
Each pair of genes separate independently of each other in the production of sex cells - gene pairs on separate chromosomes assort independently at meiosis

108
Q

what are the patterns of inheritance

A

Autosomal dominant/recessive
Sex linked
Pedigrees
Lyonization (X inactivation)

109
Q

What is sex (x) linked inheritance

A

Gene causing the trait is located on the X chromosome

Men only have one so will definitely inherit the trait.

110
Q

What is lyonization?

A

Process by which one of the X chromosomes can be inactivated in females

111
Q

What is Knudson’s 2-hit hypothesis

A

Sporadic cancers - require 2 acquired mutations to become malignant
Inherited cancers - only require 1

112
Q

Name 3 Genetic diseases

A 
Down syndrome (trisomy 21)
Edwards syndrome (trisomy 18)
Patau syndrome (trisomy 13)
113
Q

Name 3 Multifactorial diseases

A

Cleft lip/palate
Diabetes
Schizophrenia

114
Q

Name 3 Environmental diseases

A

Poor diet - Kwashiorkor
Infection
Drug related illness

115
Q

What is penetrance ( in relation to genes)

A

The proportion of individuals carrying a particular gene (genotype) that also express an associated trait

116
Q

What is variable expression

A

When one genotype can produce a range of different of phenotypes i.e one individual may be more severely affected than the other.

117
Q

What is sex limitation

A

Genes present in both sexes but only expressed in one, and remains turned off in the other.

118
Q

Define metabolism

A

Chemical processes that occur in the body to maintain life

119
Q

Define Basal Metabolic Rate

A

the amount of energy needed to keep the body alive in the resting state

120
Q

What is the BMR in humans

A

1kcal/kg body mass / hr

121
Q

Name 3 factors that increase BMR

A

High BMI
Hyperthyroidism
Pregnancy

122
Q

Name 3 factors that decrease BMR

A

Age
Females compared to males
Starvation

123
Q

What is the equation for the ADP - ATP cycle

A

ADP + phospate –> ATP

124
Q

What is glycolysis

A

The formation of pyruvate from glucose

OCCURS IN CYTOPLASM

125
Q

What are the first 4 steps of glycolysis

A 
Glucose + ATP (used) 
Glucose-6-phosphate
Fructose-6-phosphate + ATP (used)
Fructose-1,6-bisphosphate
Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
Dihydroxyacetone phosphate
126
Q

What are the last steps of glycolysis

A 
Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
1,3-bisphosphoglycerate + NADH (produced)
3-phosphoglycerate + ATP (produced)
2-phosphoglycerate 
Phosphoenolpyruvate + H2O (produced)
PYRUVATE
127
Q

What are the enzymes used in the first 4 steps of glycolysis

A

Hexokinase
Phosphohexose isomerase
Phosphofructokinase-1
Fructose Bisphosphate Aldolase

128
Q

What are the enzymes used in the last steps of glycolysis

A 
Triose phosphate isomerase (Side step)
Glyceryaldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase
Phospoglycerate kinase
Phosphoglucerate mutase
Enolase
Pyruvate kinase
129
Q

How is pyruvate converted into Acetyl CoA

A

Pyruvate + CoA + NAD+ —–> Acetyl CoA + NADH + H+

130
Q

What is the pneumonic for Krebs’ Cycle

A

Can I Keep Selling Socks For Money Officer

131
Q

What are the First 4 Steps in Krebs

A 
Oxaloacetate + acetyl coA
Citrate (H2O and CoA produced biproduct)
Isocitrate
α- ketoglutarate (NADH + H+ and CO2 biproduct)
Succinyl Co-A ( NADH + H+ biproduct)
132
Q

What are the last 4 steps in Krebs

A

Succinate (GDP -> GTP) and ( ATP to ADP) biproducts
Fumarate (FADH2 biproduct)
Malate (H20 biproduct)
Oxaloacetate (NADH + H+ biproduct)

133
Q

Pneumonic for the enzymes in Krebs’

A

Amy Is Keeping Some Socks For My Cat

134
Q

First 4 enzymes in krebs

A

Aconitase
Isocitrate Dehydrogenase
α-Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
Succinyl Coenzyme A synthetase

135
Q

Last 4 enzymes in krebs

A

Succinate dehydrogenase
Fumurate Hydratase
Malate dehydrogenase
Citrate synthase

136
Q

Oxidative phosporylation first steps

A

Electrons are passed down the ETC through a series of redox reaction - they release energy as they go
Energy used to pump H+ into intermembrane space

137
Q

Oxidative phosporylation later steps

A

H+ move through ATP synthase into matrix down a conc gradient ADP converted to ATP
O2 is terminal electron acceptor - it splits into two separate atoms that bind to H+ to form water

138
Q

What is fatty acid beta-oxidation

A

The production of ATP from fat sources e.g diet or storage using beta- oxidation

139
Q

What are the first steps of fatty acid beta oxidation

A

Acetyl CoA
Acyl CoA loses CoA
Carnitine and Acyl Carnitine
Carnitine excess formed into Acyl Carnitine via Carnitine acyltransferase 1

140
Q

What are the final steps of fatty acid beta oxidation

A

Acyl Carnitine gains CoA and forms Acyl CoA

Acyl CoA goes on to be oxidised

141
Q

Overall equation of fatty acid beta oxidation

A

Acyl CoA - 2 Carbons(At beta position) = 1 mol (NADH + FADH2 + Acetyl CoA)

142
Q

What is Ketogenesis

A

Production of ketones to provide an alternative source of energy for the body

143
Q

When does Ketogenesis occur

A

During starvation
excessive exercise
in some diabetic patients.

144
Q

What is an acid

A

Proton Donor

145
Q

What is a base

A

Proton acceptor

146
Q

What is a strong acid

A

An acid that completely dissociates in solution to form h+ ions and a base

147
Q

What are weak acids or baces

A

Only partially ionise in solution

148
Q

What are buffers

A

Weak acids or bases with the conjugate base or acid respectively

149
Q

What is unique about buffers

A

They resist change in pH when small quantities of strong acids or bases are added; limits change in [H+]

150
Q

What is the Henderson Hasselbach equation

A

pH = pKa + log( [A-] / [HA] )

151
Q

What is the ideal body pH

A

7.40

Normal range between 7.35 - 7.45

152
Q

What are the main body buffer systems

A

Bicarbonate - MOST IMPORTANT
proteins - mainly ALBUMIN
Haemoglobin
CO2 elimination - Respiratory system

153
Q

How does bicarbonate contribute to the buffer system

A

H2CO3 —> HCO3- + H+

154
Q

How do proteins contribute to the buffer system

A

Most contain weak acidic and basic groups

155
Q

How does haemoglobin contribute to the buffer system

A

Binds both CO2 and H+ so a powerful buffer
Deoxygenated Hb has strongest affinity for CO2 & H+
so most effective buffer in the tissues.

156
Q

In what two ways is Oxygen toxic

A

ROS = Reactive oxygen species

Hydroxyl radical - most potent (OH-) lipid soluble can damage

157
Q

How are free oxygen radicals toxic

A

Free radicals contribute to ageing homeostasis and some cancers.

158
Q

How are hydroxyl radicals formed

A

Fenton reaction

Haber-weiss reaction

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