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IMMS Flashcards

1
Q

Label

A
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2
Q

Where does krebs cycle occur?
Where does electron transport occur?
Where does ATP synthesis occur?

A

Matrix
Cristae
Inner membrane

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3
Q

What occurs in matrix?
What occurs in cristae?
What occurs inner membrane?

A

Matrix- krebs
Electron transport- cristae
ATP synthesis- inner membrane

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4
Q

Function mitochondria?

A

Site respiration and ATP formation

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5
Q

Function ribosomes?

A

Site protein synthesis

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6
Q

Function rough ER?

A

Synthesis and process proteins

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7
Q

Function smooth ER?

A

Enzymes for lipid synthesis

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8
Q

Function golgi apparatus?

A

Process and package proteins

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9
Q

Function cytoskeleton?

A

Structural support

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10
Q

Function nucleus?

A

Genetic info and make ribosomal subunits

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11
Q

Function lysosomes?

A

Acid hydrolases for digestion and recycling

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12
Q

Function peroxisomes?

A

FA oxidation
Contain catalse

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13
Q

Label

A
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14
Q

What is cell membrane made of?

A

Phospholipid bilayer
Contain:
Cholesterol
Proteins
Glycolipids and glycoproteins

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15
Q

Function of cell membrane? (4)

A

1) Partially permeable membrane
2) Site membrane receptors
3) Regulate what enter and exit cells
4) Barrier seperate intracellular content from extracellular contents

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16
Q

What does phospholipid contain?

A

Hydrophilic polar head- phosphate, glycerol
Hydrophobic non-polar fatty acid tail

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17
Q

What are 2 types membrane proteins?

A

Integral
Peripheral

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18
Q

Name 3 types integral proteins?

A

1) a helix- recognition receptor
2) Helical bundle- enzymes, transporter receptor
3) Beta barrel- transporter- channel proteins

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19
Q

Name 2 types peripheral proteins?

A

1) Enzymes
2) Transporter

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20
Q

Give 3 ways that movement across membranes occurs?

A

1) Simple diffusion
Passive movement particles from region high to low concentration through partially permeable membrane
Small, non-polar

2) Facilitated diffusion
Transport particles through partially permeable membrane down conc gradient by carrier molecule
Large, polar

3) Active transport
Transport particles against conc gradient- require ATP
Proteins, ions, complex sugars

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21
Q

Define homeostasis?

A

Maintenance of constant internal environment

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22
Q

Define positive and negative feedback?

A

Positive- amplification of signal
Negative- bring back equilbrium

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23
Q

List 4 types of signaling?

A

1) Autocrine
2) Paracrine
3) Endocrine
4) Exocrine

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24
Q

Autocrine- where secreted, where act?
Paracrine- where secreted, where act?
Endocrine- where secreted, where act?
Exocrine- where secreted, where act?

A

Autocrine- cell secrete chemical/hormone into ECF
- act on self
- progesterone
Paracrine- secrete and travel ECF- adj cell
- local cell comm ACh at NMJ
Endocrine- secrete into blood
- long distance signalling
- insulin
Exocrine- secretion via ducts into organs
- salivary and sweat

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25
Q

Give example negative feedback?

A

Regulation blood calcium lvl

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26
Q

Give example positive feedback?

A

Oxytocin- childbirth
Clotting factors- coagulation

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27
Q

What are 2 main types hormones?

A

Steroid
Peptide

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28
Q

What steroid hormones derived from?
Are steroid hormones stored?
Slow or fast
Example

A

Steroid hormones derived from cholesterol
Formed when needs- not stored
Slow acting
Cortisol

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29
Q

What peptide hormones derived from?
Are peptide hormones stored?
Slow or fast?
Example

A

Peptide hormones derived from amino acids 3-20
Stored secretary vesicles
Fast acting

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30
Q

What amine hormones derived from?

A

Amino acids- 2
Fast
Stored
Adrenaline

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31
Q

State 4 ways water is controlled?

A

1) ADH
2) Thirst
3) Aldosterone
4) Sympathetic ns

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32
Q

What releases ADH?

A

Posterior pituitary

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33
Q

Does ADH increase or decrease water reabsorption?

A

Increase water reabsorption in collecting ducts in nephrons of kidney

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34
Q

State one effect aldosterone?

A

Allow sodium move into blood- increase blood volume

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35
Q

What does arteriole do in response low water conc?

A

Neurotransmitters from sympathetic nerves in kidney stimulate smooth muscle in afferent arteriole constrict
Less urine formation
Renin release

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36
Q

If aldosterone present is more or less potassium excreted?

A

More potassium

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37
Q

What decreases blood calcium?

A

Calcitonin

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38
Q

Name 2 factors increase blood calcium?

A

PTH
Calcitriol

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39
Q

Draw water distribution 70kg male?

A
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40
Q

Define hypotonic?

A

Overhydration

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41
Q

Define hypertonic?

A

Deydration

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42
Q

List 3 symptoms overhydration?

A

Cells swell- cell lysis
Headaches, coma
Death

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43
Q

List 3 effects dehydration?

A

Seizures
Brain damage
Death

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44
Q

State formation
Maltose
Sucrose
Lactose

A

Glucose + Glucose= Maltose
Glucose + Fructose= Sucrose
Glucose + Galactose= Lactose

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45
Q

What bond joins glucose and glucose?

A

Glycosidic

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46
Q

What joins amino acids?

A

Peptide bonds

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47
Q

What type of reaction joins amino acids?

A

Condensation reaction

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48
Q

Is carboxyl group positive or negative?

A

Carboxyl- +ve
Amino- -ve

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49
Q

How many amino acids exist?

A

20

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50
Q

Define
Primary
Secondary
Tertiary
Quaternary
Proteins?

A

Primary- linear sequence amino acids
Secondary- local folding alpha helix, beta pleated
Tertiary- 3D folding due chain interactions
Quaternary- protein more one amino acid chain

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51
Q

Where does electron transport chain occur?

A

Cristae of mitochondria

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52
Q

What is function golgi apparatus?

A

Process and package proteins

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53
Q

Describe phospholipids property?

A

Polar, hydrophilic head
Non-polar hydrophobic tail

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54
Q

How large polar molecules transported across membranes

A

Facilitated diffusion

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55
Q

What kind signaling used long distance signalling?

A

Endocrine

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56
Q

Name mechanism water homeostasis?

A

ADH, thirst, aldosterone, sympathetic ns

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57
Q

What effect of aldosterone on sodium and potassium?

A

Increased reabsorption sodium
Increased excretion potassium

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58
Q

How many amino acids are there?

A

20

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59
Q

Outline how many calories?
Carbohydrates
Protein
Alcohol
Lipid

A

Carbohydrate- 4kcal/g
Protein- 4kcal/g
Alcohol- 7kcal/g
Lipid- 9kcal/g

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60
Q

Define BMR?

A

Amount energy needed keep body alive at rest
1kcal/kg body mass/hr

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61
Q

State 5 things that increase BMR?

A

1) High BMI
2) Hyperthyroidism
3) Fever/infection
4) Pregnancy
5) Exercise

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62
Q

State 4 things decrease BMR?

A

1) Ageing
2) Female
3) Starvation
4) Hypothyroidism

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63
Q

What process breaks down glucose to release enrgy?

A

Glycolysis

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64
Q

Where does glycolysis occur?

A

Take place cytosol`

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65
Q

State glycolysis equation?

A
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66
Q

What occurs to pyruvate that is produced from glycolysis?
Aerobic
Anaerobic

A

Aerobic- pyruvate enter citric acid cycle
- undergo oxidative phosphorylation
Anaerobic- pyruvate convert lactate

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67
Q

How much ATP generated in aerobic glycolysis?
How much ATP generated in anaerobic glycolysis?

A

Aerobic- 38ATP
Anaerobic- 2ATP

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68
Q

Where does Krebs cycle occur (citric acid cycle)?

A

Mitochondrial matrix

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69
Q

Draw Krebs cycle?

A
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70
Q

What is rate limiting step?

A

Isocitrate converted alpha-ketoglutarate

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71
Q

What is rate limiting step enzyme in krebs?

A

Isocitrate dehydrogenase

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72
Q

What is responsible for FA oxidation?

A

Peroxisomes break down FA

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73
Q

What is produced during high rates fatty acid oxidation?

A

Acetyl coA- exceed krebs

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74
Q

What is pyruvate from glycolysis converted into?

A

Pyruvate converted into acetyl coA

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75
Q

Define ketogenesis?

A

Ketone bodies made in mitochondrial matrix from acetyl coA (generated in beta oxidation)

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76
Q

Give examples of ketones?

A

Acetone
Acetoacetate

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77
Q

Can liver use ketones?

A

No

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78
Q

What muscles can use ketones?

A

Skeletal muscles

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79
Q

Structure DNA?

A

Double helix structure

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80
Q

What are nucleotides composed of?

A

Nitrogenous base + sugar + phosphate

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81
Q

Give 2 examples of purine? What is it?

A

Adenine
Guanine
2 carbon-nitrogen

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82
Q

Give 2 examples of pyrimidine? What is it?

A

Thymine
Cytosine
1 carbon-nitrogen

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83
Q

Two types of sugar in nucleotides?

A

Ribose (RNA)
Deoxyribose (DNA)

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84
Q

What is coding section of gene?

A

Exon

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85
Q

What is non-coding section of gene?

A

Intron

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86
Q

State DNA mutation?

A

Duplication
Deletion
Substitution

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87
Q

Define
Out of frame mutation
In frame mutation

A

Out of frame- one base deleted- shift sequence BIG ISSUE
In frame- complete codon deleted- milder

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88
Q

Is out of frame or in frame mutation more dangerous?

A

Out of frame
Shift reading sequence

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89
Q

State 3 forms DNA damage?

A

Chemicals
UV
Radiation

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90
Q

Define missense mutation?

A

Single nucleotide change results in codon coding for diff amino acid
Lead silent mutation

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91
Q

Define nonsense mutation?

A

Point mutation produces stop codon- incomplete protein

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92
Q

Explain expansion of tri-nucleotide repeat?
Example?

A

Triple repeat repeated svl times in first part of coding seq
Normal- 15-20
Huntingtons CAG- greater 36
Anticipation- more repeats- earlier onset pass generation

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93
Q

Name 3 types RNA?

A

Messenger mRNA
Ribosomal rRNA
Transfer tRNA

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94
Q

State DNA and RNA:
Functiono
Structure
Length
Sugar
Bases
Location

A
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95
Q

Which way is template strand read in DNA transcription?
Which way is strand formed?

A

3’ to 5’
5’ to 3’

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96
Q

Define mitosis?

A

Division one cell into two identical daughter cells

97
Q

What is it called where chromosomes line up?

A

Equatorial plate
Metaphase

98
Q

What is it called when haploid cell formed from diploid cell through meiosis?

A

Gametogenesis

99
Q

What is sperm formation called?
What is egg formation called?

A

Spermatogenesis
Oogenesis

100
Q

Outline spermatogeneesis?

A

Spermatogonia
Meiosis 1- secondary spermatocytes
Meiosis 2- 4 spermatides

101
Q

How long does spermatogenesis take occur?

A

70 days

102
Q

Outline oogenesis?

A

Meiosis 1- before birth form primary oocytes
LH surge menstrual cycle complete meiosis 1- one secondary oocyte and one polar body
Polar body undergo meiosis 2 form 2 polar bodies
Secondary oocyte arrests in metaphase of meiosis 2 until 3 hours before ovulation
Meiosis 2 complete following fertilisation
If not fertilised oocyte degenerates

103
Q

How manny oocytes at puberty?

A

40,000

104
Q

What does spermatogenesis produce?

A

4 spermatids

105
Q

What completes meiosis 1 in oogenesis?

A

LH surge during menstruation

106
Q

When is secondary oocyte arrrested?

A

Arrest metaphase of meiosis 2 until 3 hours before ovulation

107
Q

When is meiosis 2 completed?

A

After fertilisation

108
Q

Explain down syndrome? What is risk factor?

A

Trisomy 21
Failure chromosome seperate in meiosis 1 or sister chromatids fail seperate meiosis 2
Increase age parents

109
Q

Explain why disease can be present if both parents healthy?
Risk factor?

A

Gonadal mosaicism- more one set genetic info found in gamete cells
Error mitosis
Incidence increase older father

110
Q

State 2 types chromosomal abnormality?

A

Numerical- diff no chromo
Structural- part missing or switch

111
Q

Define phenotype?

A

Expression genotype

112
Q

Define genotype

A

Genetic constitution/unique seq DNA

113
Q

Why disparity between geno and phenotype?

A

1) Reduced penetrance
2) Variable expressibility

114
Q

Define and example:
Autosomal dominant
Autosomal recessive

A

Autosomal dominant- only need one altered copy affected
- Huntingtons
Autosomal recessive- both copies need altered to be eff
- CF and sickle cell

115
Q

Define and example:
X linked dominant
X linked recessive

A

X linked dominant- variation X chromo- only one alter
- males ALWAYS affects, female affected
- fragile X syndrome
X linked recessive- variation X chromo
- male ALWAYS affects, female need 2
- Haemophilia

116
Q

Why are males always effected in X linked?

A

Males only have 1X therefore have affected

117
Q

Define lyonisation?

A

One X chromosome in every cell of female inactivated during embryonic development
Prevent female have 2x X chromosome gene prodducts

118
Q

Define multifactorial inheritance examples?

A

More 1 factor causes trait or health issue
Cleft palate
Spina bifida
Diabetes

119
Q

What are chromosome called aren’t sex?

A

Autosomes

120
Q

Define variable expression?

A

Range signs and symptoms that can occur in diff ppl with same genetic condition

121
Q

Define reduced penetrance?

A

Lower proportion ppl with gene mutation exhibit signs and symptoms of genetic disorder

122
Q

Define anticipation?

A

Signs and symptoms of genetic condition become more severe/appear earlier as disorder passed down generations

123
Q

Define sex limitation?

A

Genes present in both sexes but only expressed one

124
Q

Define assortative mating?

A

Ppl choose more/less similar in phenotype

125
Q

What dietary energy source has most kcal/g

A

Lipid

126
Q

What is product glycolysis?

A

Pyruvate

127
Q

Where does krebs cycle occur??

A

Mitochondrial matrix

128
Q

Can all tissues use ketone as fuel?

A

No
Skeletal can

129
Q

Which type of DNA mutation causes Huntingtons?

A

Expansion trinucleotide repeat

130
Q

Which nucleotide base isn’t present in RNA?

A

Thymine
Uracil replaces it

131
Q

Meiosis 2 in ova is complete before fertiliation?

A

False
After

132
Q
A
133
Q

What do peroxisomes contain? Reaction?

A

Catalase
2H2O2 to 2H2O + O2

134
Q

Where does glycolysis occur?
Where does krebs occur?
What is site electron transport chain and chemiosmosis?
Where does ATP synthesis occur?

A

Glycolysis- cytosol
Krebs- matrix
Electron transport- cristae
Inner membrane- ATP synthesis

135
Q
A
136
Q

Define chemiosmosis?

A

Movement ions across semi permeable membrane down electrochemical gradient
ATP generation via H+ movement

137
Q

Function:
Mitochondria
Ribosomes
Rough ER
Smooth ER
Golgi Apparatus
Cytoskeleton
Nucleus
Lysosomes
Peroxisomes

A
138
Q

What is yellow brown pigment from lipids?

A

Lipofuscin

139
Q

How can lipids be stored?

A

1) Adipocytes- triglycerides
2) Cell membrane
3) Lipoproteins

140
Q

Where is glycogen stored?

A

Liver
Muscles
Excess- converted glucagon secreting alpha cells in pancreas

141
Q

Name 3 components of cell membrane?

A

Cholesterol- bind phospholipid promote fluidity
Proteins- act transporters
Glycolipids and glycoproteins- cell signal

142
Q

State 4 functions of cell membrane?

A

1) Partially permeable membrane
2) Site membrane receptors
3) Regulate in and out
4) Act barrier- seperate inta and extracellular

143
Q

What is overall structure cell membrane?

A

Phospholipid bilayer

144
Q

Define tight junction
Define adheren junction
Define desmosome junction
Define hemidesmosome junction
Define gap junction

A
145
Q
A
146
Q

Define homeostasis?

A

Maintenance of constant internal environment

147
Q

State 3 ways cells communicate achieve homeostasis?

A

Endocrine (hormones)
Nervous (neurotransmitters)
Immune (antibodies)

148
Q

How is homeostasis maintained?Examples

A

Positive feedback- amplification- oxytocin. clotting cascade
Negative feedback- back eq- thermoregulation/ blood glucose

149
Q

Define and example:
Autocrine
Paracrine
Endocrine
Exocrine

A
150
Q

What are 3 modes of secretion?

A

Merocrine- no part cell lost- salivary
Apocrine- top part cell lost- mammary
Holocrine- whole cell lost- sebaceous

151
Q

Outline water distribution?
70 kg male
Total water- 60%

A
152
Q

Define:
Osmosis
Osmolality
Osmolarity
Osmotic pressure
Oncotic pressure

A
153
Q

State general formula for carbs?

A

CnH2nOn

154
Q

State name- 1, 2, 3-12, 13+

A

Monosaccharide- 1
Disaccharide- 2
Oligosachharide- 3-12
Polysaccharide- 13+

155
Q

State what forms:
Lactose
Sucrose
Maltose

A

Glucose + Galactose = Lactose
Glucose + Fructose = Sucrose
Glucose + Glucose = Maltose

156
Q

What is triglyceride made of?

A

3 FA and glycerol

157
Q

What is phospholipid made of?

A

Glycerol, 2 FA, phosphate group

158
Q

What is good cholesterol?
What is bad cholesterol?

A

HDL- good- transport cholesterol to liver for metab
LDL- bad- transport cholesterol to cells

159
Q

name 2 purines?
name 3 pyrimidines?

A

Purines- Adenine, Guanine
Pyrimidines- Cytosine, Uracil, Thymine

160
Q

How many bonds between A and T?
How many bonds between C and G?

A

A-T 2x H bonds
C-G 3x H bonds

161
Q

Function nucleotides?

A

Building blocks DNA

162
Q

What do 3 bases form?

A

Codon= aa

163
Q

How many amino acids exist?

A

20

164
Q

Function enzymes?
Function coenzymes?

A

Enzymes- reduce activation energy
Coenzyme- bind to active site of enzyme- activate it
- change in structure

165
Q

What base is present in RNA but not DNA?

A

RNA has uracil not thymine

166
Q

State enzymes involved DNA replication (5)?

A

Topoisomerase- relieve supercoil, unwind double helix
DNA helicase- break H bonds between 2 strands
- exp nucleotides
DNA polymerase- Read 3’ to 5’ Print 5’ to 3’
SSB- prevent reannealing- keep DNA strand apart

167
Q

What enzyme unwinds double helix?

A

Topoisomerase

168
Q

What enzyme breaks H bonds between 2 strands?

A

DNA helicase

169
Q

What is responsible for printing and reading?

A

DNA polymerase

170
Q

Where is the starting point for DNA synthesis?
Why?

A

Primer- short strand DNA
Start for DNA synthesis as DNA polymerase can only add nucleotides to existing strand

171
Q

What prevents reannealing

A

SSB

172
Q

Outline transcription?

A

1) Topoisomerase unwind DNA double helix
2) SSB coat prevent reannealing
3) DNA helicase break H bonds
4) Free mRNA nucleotides line next to comp bases on template (antisense) strand- begin promotor region
5) RNA polymerase form antiparallel mRNA strand- 5’ to 3’
6) mRNA leave nucleus and attach 80s ribosome

173
Q

Outline protein translation?

A

1) mRNA attached 80s ribosome
2) tRNA molecules have anticodons- comp to codons on mRNA strand on one end, aa correspond codon on other
3) When 2 tRNA molecules adjacent- peptide bond formed between two aa
4) Repeat until stop codon
5) Polypeptide released into cytoplasm

174
Q

Where does translation occur?

A

Cytoplasm

175
Q

Where does transcription occur?

A

Nucleus

176
Q

Define missense mutation?
Define nonsense mutation?
Define silent mutation?

A

Missense- DNA nucleotide switched another- code diff AA
Nonsense- stop codon coded for prematurely WORSE
Silent- change seq DNA nucleotides without change in aa that it is coded for

177
Q

Outline steps of cell cycle?

A
178
Q

During what phase does crossing over occur?

A

Prophase

179
Q

When do spindle fibres form?

A

Prometaphase

180
Q

When do chromosomes line up on equatorial plate?

A

Metaphase

181
Q

When are sister chromatids pulled towards poles?

A

Anaphase

182
Q

When does nuclear envelope reform?

A

Telophase

183
Q
A
184
Q

What process produces sex cells?

A

Meiosis
Create genetic variability in gametes

185
Q

Draw meiosis?

A
186
Q

What is it called when failure of homologous chromosomes to seperate during cell division?

A

Non disjunction

187
Q

Define gonadal mosaicism, example?

A

More than one set genetic info present- gamete cells
All or part germline affected, parental somatic not aff
Osteogenesis imperfecta

188
Q

Define:
Phenotype
Genotype
Karyotype

A

Phenotype- observable characteristics, interaction genotype with environment
Genotype- genetic constitution individual
Karyotype- no and visual appearance of chromosome

189
Q

Karyotype spread?

A
190
Q

Define lyonisation?

A

X inactivation
Process one of X chromosome inactivated in females

191
Q

What disease?

A

X linked recessive (L)
Autosomal dominant (R)

192
Q

State 3 multifactorial disease?

A

Spina bifida
Cleft lip
Diabetes
Schizophrenia

193
Q

State 3 genetic disease?

A

Downs syndrome (trosomy 21)
CF
Huntingtons

194
Q

State 3 environmental disease?

A

Kwashiorkor
Drug relates
Trauma related

195
Q

What is main cause disease in developed countries?

A

Multifactorial

196
Q

What is main cause of disease in less developed countries?

A

Environmental

197
Q
A

Metaphase

198
Q

List 3 stop codons
List start codon

A

Stop- UGA UAA UAG
Start- AUG (mmethionine)

199
Q

How much fluid in intracellular compartment of 70kg male?

A

28L

200
Q

What is ATP made of?

A

Adenine
Ribose
3 phosphate

201
Q

What processes convert ADP to ATP?

A

Krebs
Oxidative phosphorylation
Beta oxidation
Glycolysis

202
Q

What process converts ATP to ADP?

A

Biosynthesis macromolecules
Muscle contraction
Thermogenesis

203
Q

Where does glycolysis occur?

A

Cytoplasm mitochondria

204
Q

What does glycolysis produce?

A

2NADH
2 ATP
2 Pyruvate

205
Q

Draw glycolysis?

A
206
Q

What is rate limiting step glycolysis?

A

Fructose 6 phosphate to fructose 1,6-bisphosphate

207
Q

What is rate limiting enzyme glycolysis?

A

Phosphofructokinase-1

208
Q

What is pyruvate converted to before krebs?

A

Acetyl coA

209
Q

Draw krebs cycle?

A
210
Q

What is rate limiting enzyme in Krebs?

A

Isocitrate dehydrogenase

211
Q

What are enzymes in Krebs inhibited by?

A

ATP
NADH
Products

212
Q

What activates krebs cycle?

A

High ADP

213
Q

Where does oxidative phosphorylation occur?

A

Mitochondrial membrane

214
Q

Outline oxidative phosphorylation process?

A

NADH+, FADH oxidise
H+ pumped into intermembrane space
Flow down gradient via ATP synthase form ATP
Final electron acceptor

215
Q

Where does fatty acid oxidation occur?

A

Mitochondria
Need carnitine shuffle

216
Q

Draw FA beta oxidation?

A
217
Q

Give examples of FA?

A

lINOLEIC, OLEIC, PALMITIC

218
Q

Where are ketones made?

A

Liver
Strong acid

219
Q

State 3 ketones?

A

Acetone
Acetoacetate
B-hydroxybutyrate

220
Q

What is formation of ketones called?
When does it occur?

A

Ketogenesis
Starvation- ketone used heart, muscle save gluc brain
Excessive exercise
Diabetic patients

221
Q

Explain diabetic ketoacidosis?

A

Low insulin means high glucose
Increase FFA oxidation as high glucagon
Exceed TCA cycle
Increase ketone- acidaemia

222
Q

What is main ion in ECF?
What is main ion in ICF?

A

ECF- Na+
ICF- K+

223
Q

Define sensible/insensible fluid loss?

A

Sensible- measured- urine
Insensible- can’t measured-

224
Q

State 2 ways sodium regulated?

A

Renin-angiotensin system
Nephrons

225
Q

What occurs:
First
Second
Third
Fourth
Fifth to eighth?
Embryology

A
226
Q

What is gastrulation?

A

Formation trilaminar disc

227
Q

What makes up trilaminar disc?

A

Ectoderm- skin, CNS, PNS, hair, nail, eye
Endoderm- GI tract, thyroid, liver, resp
Mesoderm- conn tissue, cartilage, urogenital, blood/vess

228
Q

Explain neurulation process?

A

Notochord derived mesoderm
Release chemical messengers affect ectoderm
Cause infolding- neural tube

229
Q

What does neural tube develop into?

A

Brain and spinal cord

230
Q
A

E

231
Q
A

B

232
Q
A
233
Q
A

C

234
Q
A

Week 3- C

235
Q
A

A

236
Q
A

B

237
Q
A

A

238
Q
A

B

239
Q
A

D

PTS (2 decks)

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