IMMS Flashcards

1
Q

Describe Peptide Hormones

A
Made from amino acids
Water Soluble
Binds to cell surface membrane 
Fast acting
Premade and stored
E.G. ADH, Insulin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Describe Steroid Hormones

A
Made from cholesterol 
Lipid Soluble, need transport protein to travel in blood
Diffuses through cell surface membrane
Slow acting
Not premade
E.g oestrogen, testosterone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How much of the water in average human is ICF

A

28L (66%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How much water in an average human is ECF?

How is this distributed?

A

14L (33%)

Interstitial fluid 11L, Plasma 3L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Examples of sensible water loss

A

Urine/ vomit

Measurable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Examples of insensible water loss

A

Sweat, breath

Immeasurable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What cells in Kidney detect low NaCl

A

Macula Densa (in distal convoluted tubule)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What cells detect low Blood Pressure in the Kidneys

A

Juxtaglomeruler cells in afferent arteriole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What cells release renin

A

Juxtaglomeuler

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What does ADH act on in the kidneys

A

AP-II protein in the collecting ducts

Increase permeability so more water retained

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Where is ADH released from

A

Posterior Pituitary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Where is ADH made

A

Hypothalamus

Stored in pituitary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the affect of aldosterone

A

Increase Na+ reabsorption in ascending limb of loop of Henle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is obligatory H2O movement

A

Water following the movement of Na+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Where is aldosterone released from

A

Suprarenal cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is released by blood vessels (and myocytes of heart) when they become too dilated due to hugh blood pressure.
(High stress on walls)

A

Atrial natriuretic peptide

Is an antagonist to aldosterone so decreases blood pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Define osmolality

A

Conc. /kilo solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Define osmolarity

A

Conc. /Litre of solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Osmotic pressure

A

Pressure exerted by pure solvent on solution needed to prevent inward osmosis
(Solvent➡️ solution)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Oncotic pressure

A

Protein pressure (albumin) on capilly walls keeping fluid in

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Hydrostatic pressure

A

Fluid pressure wanting to move out of capillary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is it called when you have excess/ less Na+

A

Hyper/hyponatremia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Causes and symptoms of hypernatremia

A

Causes:- dehydration, ⬆️aldosterone, failing kidneys

Symptoms:- Oedema, ⬆️BP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Causes and symptoms of hyponatremia

A

Casues:- excess water, ⬇️aldosterone

Symptoms:- ⬇️BP, overhydrated intracellulary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is excess/ less K+

A

Hyper/hypokalemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Causes and symptoms of hyperkalemia

A

Causes:- Kidney failure, ⬇️aldosterone, alkalosis

Symptoms:- nerve and muscle issues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is Excess/ less calcium

A

Hyper/hypocalcemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Causes and symptoms of hypokalemia

A

Causes:- diarrhoea, ⬆️ aldosterone

Symptoms:- weakness, heart problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What bond Binds carbohydrates

A

Glycosidic bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Describe triglycerides

A

Hydrophobic
Esterbond
Main energy source (9kcal/g) by fatty acid beta oxidation
Used for protection, lubrication, waterproofing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Phosolipids are amphipathic, what does this mean

A

A molecule with both hydrophilic and hydrophobic parts. (Negative head)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Describe nucleotide

A

Phosphate + pentose sugar + base

Phosphodiester bonds between 3’C + 5’C on sugar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Describe nucleoside

A

Pentose sugar + base (no phosphate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are purines and pyramidine

A

Purine have 2 rings A + G
Pyramidines have 3 rings C + T + U
1 purine will bind to one pyramidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How many amino acids are there

A

20 naturally occuring, 8 are essential (must get through diet)

36
Q

On which amino acids would you find disulfide bridges

A

S=S on cysteine

37
Q

Compare adult and fetal haemoglobin

A

Adult is 2 alpha chains, 2 beta chain

Fetal is 2 alpha chains, 2 gama chains (⬆️O2 affinity)

38
Q

Describe sickle cell anemia

A

Autosomal recessive disease
Mutated beta chain
Mutation occurs on 11p (small arm of chromosome 11)
GAG~ GTG (Substitution)
Valine coded for instead of Glutamic acid
Makes RBA have lower surface area (sickled)
RBA less flexible and more prone to damage

39
Q

In DNA replication what unwinds the supercoil?

A

Topoisomerase

40
Q

In DNA replication, what breaks the H bonds between strands

A

Helicase

41
Q

Once the 2 strands are separated, what prevents them rejoining?

A

Single strand bases (SSBs)

Bind to exposed bases

42
Q

What is the role of DNA polymerase

A

Forms phosphodiester bonds between between free nucleotides to form new strand

43
Q

How does DNA polymerase read DNA and how does it synthesise it?

A

Reads 3⁰ to 5⁰

Synthesise 5⁰ to 3⁰

44
Q

What is the role of DNA ligase

A

Joins ozaki fragments on the lagging strand by phosphodiester bonds

45
Q

Where does transcription occur

A

Nucleus

46
Q

What is the TATA box region

A

The promoter region for transcription.

Always starts with codon AUG (methionine)

47
Q

Where does translation take place

A

Cytoplasm

48
Q

Where does mRNA bind

A

Small subunit of ribosome

49
Q

Where does tRNA bind

A

Large subunit of ribosome

50
Q

What happens in G1 of the cell cycle

A

Organelles replicate

Not DNA

51
Q

What is the G1 checkpoint

A

The cells checks for DNA damage pre DNA replication.

52
Q

What happens if DNA damage is detected at the G1 checkpoint

A

Activates tumour suppressor gene p53 which leads to a cascade of events eventually ending either autolysis

53
Q

What happens in the S phase of the cell cycle

A

DNA replication

54
Q

What happens at the G2 checkpoint

A

Checks for DNA damage pre mitosis,

Damaged bases removed by glycosylases

55
Q

In what phase of meisos does crossing over take place

A

Prophase 1

56
Q

In what stage of meiosis does independent segregation occur

A

Metaphase 1

57
Q

When will meiosis 2 take place in oogenesis

A

When the egg is fertilised

58
Q

What is non-disjunction

A

Failure to separate in M1 or M2

59
Q

What is gonadal mosaicism

A

Healthy patient has a mutated Germline

60
Q

What is a polymorphism

A

Non pathogenic variations at a locus from a wild type (normal allele)

61
Q

What is consanguinity

A

2 relatives union (reproductive)

62
Q

Penetrance

A

% of people with expected phenotype from their genotype

63
Q

Variable expression

A

Some genotypes may have different expressions

64
Q

Late onset

A

Manifestation after birth later in life

vs at birth, congenital

65
Q

Autozygosity

A

Same mutation from both sides of the family

66
Q

Anticipation (in reference to genetic disorders)

A

Wider trinucleotide repeates of mutated sequence over generations
(Earlier and more severe each time)
E.g Huntingtons

67
Q

What does Hemizygous mean

A

Genes come from an unpaid chromosome

E.g. men are hemizygous for genes on y

68
Q

Lyonisation

A

1 female X randomly inactivated

69
Q

Imprinting

A

1 allele suppressed (imprinted) of the 2 inherited

70
Q

Sex limitation

A

Gene defect affects 1 sex only

71
Q

What is the carrier frequency of cystic fibrosis in the UK

A

1/25

72
Q

What js the defect that causes cystic fibrosis

A

Defect in gene F508

Most common auto recessive affecting whites in UK

73
Q

What is the Hardy weinberg equation

A

p+q=1
p^2 + 2pq + q^2 = 1

p^2 = Homozygous dominant
2pq = heterozygous
q^2 = homozygous recessive
74
Q

What is the incidence of Cystic Fibrosis

A

1/2500

75
Q

What is a tandem duplication mutation

A

Adjacent repeating bases

76
Q

What is a non-tandmem mutation

A

Repeating bases at another locus

77
Q

What is an inversion mutation

A

DNA segment reversed
Parametric:- outside centromere
Pericentric:- includes centromere

78
Q

Translocation mutation

A

Exchange with non homologous chromosome

79
Q

What does a karyotype show

A

Numerical configuration of chromosomes

80
Q

What does an ideogram show

A

Distinct banding patterns of chromosomes

81
Q

How many kcal/g are there in carb, protein, fat, alcohol

A

Carb=4
Protein=4
Fat=9
Alcohol=7

82
Q

How grams of alcohol are there in 1 unit

A

8g

10ml

83
Q

In the absorptive state, do you have higher or lower Insulin levels

A

Higher

Less glucagon

84
Q

Where is fat stored

A

Adipocytes

Ito cells

85
Q

Where are carbs stored

A

Skeletal muscle

As glycogen