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IMCA D0 22 > IMCA D0 22 > Flashcards

IMCA D0 22 Flashcards

1
Q

IMCA promotes what four standards?

A

Health
Safety
Environment
Technical Standards

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2
Q

How does IMCA promote it’s 4 standards?

A

Information notes
Codes of practice
Safety flashes

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3
Q

Are IMCA members self regulating?

A

Yes

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4
Q

How are IMCA members self regulating?

A

They commit to following relevant guidelines.

Willing to be audited by clients to those guidelines

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5
Q

What are the two core activities of IMCA?

A

1) Competence & Training

2) Safety, Environment & Legislation

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6
Q

What are the 4 divisions of IMCA?

A

1) Diving
2) Marine
3) Offshore survey
4) Remote systems & ROV

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7
Q

What are the 5 regions of the world IMCA cover?

A

1) Asia Pacific
2) Central & North America
3) Europe & Africa
4) Middle East & India & South America

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8
Q

Inside the 12 mile limit what 5 activities are specifically excluded from the IMCA International Code of Practice D0 14?

A

1) Civil
2) Inshore
3) Inland
4) Habour works
5) Activities not conducted from a vessel or structure associated with oil & gas / renewable industries

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9
Q

If national standards are more stringent that DO14 they take precedence:

True of False

A

True

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10
Q

Diving supervisors in charge of each part of the operation have direct
responsibility for diving operations carried out under their control?

True or False

A

True

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11
Q

The examination and training for an air diving supervisor does not included surface mixed gas
diving techniques.

True or False?

A

True

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12
Q

A diving superintendent or senior supervisor is an appropriately qualified diving supervisor who is in overall charge of an operation - and is responsible for the dive.

True or False

A

FALSE

DIve supervisor is the responsible person.

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13
Q

How many hours to become an LST?

A

2400

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14
Q

IMCA offshore diving supervisor and life support technician certification schemes is DO..

A

DO13

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15
Q

All divers at work need to hold a suitable qualification for the work they intend to do. They will need
to have the original certificate in their possession at the site of the diving project.

Are copies accepted?

A

No

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16
Q

IMCA only recognises two grades of diver under the Code

What are these?

A

Surface Supplied
Closed Bell

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17
Q

Guidance on competence assurance and assessment: Diving Division is document CO..

A

C003

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18
Q

What is the D014?

A

International code of practice

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19
Q

What is DO13

A

Certification schemes for Diver Supervisor and LST

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20
Q

What is CO03

A

Competency assessment

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21
Q

What is the MKS system of measurement?

A

Systeme International:
Meter
Kilogram
Second

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22
Q

How many pascals = 1 bar

A

100,000 Pa = 1 bar

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23
Q

What is the FPS system of measurement?

A

Imperial System:
Foot, Pound, Second

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24
Q

1 imperial ton is how many lbs?

A

2,240 lbs

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25
Q

1 US ton is how many pounds

A

2000 lbs

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26
Q

1 therm is how many BTU

A

100,000

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27
Q

1 atm is how many FSW?

A

33 FSW

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28
Q

How many PSI in one ATM

A

14.7 psi

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29
Q

1 imperial gallon = how many US gallons?

A

1.2 US gallons

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30
Q

1 US gallon = is how many imperial gallons?

A

0.83 US gallons

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31
Q

How many feet are there in a meter?

A

3.281

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32
Q

How many feet in a cubic meter?

A

35.32

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33
Q

How many cubic feet are there in a meter?

A

28.31

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34
Q

How many pounds are in a kilogram?

A

2.204

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35
Q

How many bar in an atm?

A

1.01

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36
Q

How many psi in 1 bar

A

14.5

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37
Q

How to convert C to F?

A

C x 1.8 + 32 = F

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38
Q

How to convert F to C

A

F -32 / 1.8 = C

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39
Q

A DDC with a floodable volume of 6m3 is pressed from the surface to 30 msw. How much gas is used

A

18m3

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40
Q

A DDC is at 30 msw with 6% oxygen showing on the surface analyser. What is the pO2 at 30 msw?

A

0.24 pO2

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41
Q

A DDC is pressed from the surface to 30 msw using 6% oxygen. What will be the pO2 at 30 msw?

A

0.39 pO2

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42
Q

A commercial diver is calculated using how many litres and feet / min?

A

35 litres / min
1.25 ft3 / min

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43
Q

A commercial diver is calculated using how many litres and feet / min in an emergency?

A

40 litres / min
1.5 ft3 / min

62.5 Norway
1.8 ft 3 / min

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44
Q

Gas reclaim losses are calculated as how many litres / min?

A

5 litres / min
0.18 ft3 / min

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45
Q

diver is working at 20 msw for 4 hours. What volume of gas will he use?

A

The diver will use 25.2 m3 of gas

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46
Q

A diver is working at 100 fsw for 30 minutes. What volume of gas will he use?

A

The diver will use 151.2 ft3 of gas

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47
Q

The volume of a 64 bottle quad is 64 x 50 ltr is?

A

3.2 m3.

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48
Q

A 64 x 50 ltr quad contains gas at a pressure of 100 bar. What is the total volume of useable gas in the
quad?

A

320 m3

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49
Q

A dive is planned to 40 msw. The bail-out is charged to 200 bar. What pressure is available to the diver?

A

185 bar

Ambient + 10 bar for regulator

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50
Q

In practice, diving supervisors should allow a considerable margin of error and would normally change
over to a new gas quad when the pressures drops to

A

40 bar

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51
Q

A diver is working at 80 msw, breathing from a 16 x 50 ltr quad at a pressure of 150 bar. How long
could he work for (assume that the quad will be changed over at 40 bar)?

A

4 hours and 39 minutes

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52
Q

A quad contains 5,800 ft3 when it is at a pressure of 3,000 psi. How much gas does it contain when the
pressure is 1,800 psi?

A

3,480 ft3

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53
Q

A quad contains 5,800 ft3 when it is at a pressure of 3,000 psi. How much gas is available to the diver if
the quad was to be taken offline at a pressure of 1,800 psi?

A

2,320 ft3

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54
Q

A diver is working at 250 fsw. He is breathing from a quad which contains 22,500 ft3 of gas when it is
at a pressure of 3,000 psi. It is now at 2,750 psi. How long could the diver work for (assume that the
quad will be changed over at 500 psi)?

A

26 hours 13 minutes

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55
Q

An LP compressor supplies 30 ft3/min at 300 psi. The diver plans to work at 100 fsw. Is the air supply
sufficient (allow 10 atm for the operation of the regulator)?

A

The compressor delivers 300 psi, so the pressure is suitable

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56
Q

A lightweight LP compressor delivers 250 l/min at a pressure of 15 bar. Two divers are planning to
work at 30 msw. Is the air supply sufficient?

A

The compressor delivers 15 bar, so the pressure is suitable

But the compressor only delivers 250 l/min, so the volume is insufficient.

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57
Q

A bail-out bottle has a floodable volume of 8 ltr. How much time has a diver got if his surface supply
fails at 50 msw? The bail-out bottle is at a pressure of 200 bar.

A

6.13 minutes

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58
Q

A bail-out bottle has a floodable volume of 12 ltr. How much time has a diver got if his surface supply
fails at 200 msw (660 fsw)? The bail-out bottle is at a pressure of 180 bar.

A

2.12 minutes

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59
Q

After filling to 3,000 psi a bail-out bottle is at a temperature of 100°F. What will the pressure be when
the temperature drops to 40°F?

A

2,679 psi

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60
Q

A diver at 250 fsw is breathing a 15% mix. What is the ppO2 in his mix?

A

1.287 ata

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61
Q

In a chamber at 80 msw, the oxygen percentage reading is 4.5%. What is the ppO2 in the chamber?

A

405 mb

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62
Q

A diver at 125 msw is breathing a 4% mix. What is his ppO2?

A

0.54 bar

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63
Q

During a saturation dive at 600 fsw, divers require a ppO2 between 0.5 and 0.8 atm. What is a suitable
mix?

A

2.6% to 4.2%

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64
Q

If the ppO2 must lie between 1.2 and 1.6 bar, what is the greatest depth at which a 15% mix could be
used?

A

= 96.7 msw

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65
Q

What is the EAD formula in metric?

A

EAD = Nitrogen % x Absol Depth / 79 - 10 msw

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66
Q

What is the EAD formula in imperial?

A

EAD = Nitrogen % x Absol Depth / 79 - 33 fsw

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67
Q

A diver is breathing a 40:60 nitrox mix at 25 msw. What is the EAD?

A

The EAD is 16.6 msw, so use the next deepest table

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68
Q

A diver is breathing a 30/70 nitrox mix at 100 fsw. What is the EAD?

A

The EAD is 84.8 fsw, so use the next deepest table

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69
Q

You have an empty quad and you want to make 200 bar of 9%, using 2% and 12%. What pressure of
each gas do you need?

A

You need 140 bar of 12% and 60 bar of 2% to make 200 bar of 9%

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70
Q

You have 100 bar of 4% and you want to turn it into 10%, by pumping in 20%. What will the final
pressure of the mixture be?

A

160 Bar 10%

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71
Q

A chamber is to be pressurised to 90 msw, using 18% and 2%. The final ppO2 must be 600 mb. What
depth of 18% should be added to start the pressurisation?

A

13 msw

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72
Q

A chamber is to be pressurised to 250 fsw, using 16% and 2%. The final ppO2 must be 0.5 ata. What
depth of 16% should be added to start the pressurisation?

A

32.6 fsw

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73
Q

A chamber system has a volume of 40m3. What volume of gas would it take to pressurise it to 150 msw?

A

600 m3

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74
Q

A chamber system has a volume of 1,200 ft3. What volume of gas would it take to pressurise it to
500 fsw?

A

18,180 ft3

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75
Q

A chamber system has a volume of 30m3. It is to be pressurised to 90 msw, with 21 msw of 12% and
69 msw of 2%. What volume of each gas would be needed?

A

63 m3 of 12% and 207 m3 of 2%

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76
Q

A medical lock is 0.8 m long and 0.3 m in diameter. The chamber is at 160 msw. How much gas is used
when the lock is operated?

A

0.912 m3 of

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77
Q

1 msw of oxygen increases ppO2 by

A

0.1 bar

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78
Q

3 fsw of oxygen increases ppO2 by

A

0.09 atm

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79
Q

Nine divers are in saturation for 5.5 days. How much oxygen will they use in the chamber?

A

35.64 m3

1237 ft3

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80
Q

A decompression from 95 msw takes two days, with a ppO2 of 600 mb. There are two divers in the
chamber, and the chamber volume is 10 m3. How much oxygen is used?

A

16.98 m3

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81
Q

Six divers are in saturation for eight days at 110 msw, with a ppO2 of 400 mb. Before starting the
decompression, the ppO2 is raised to 600 mb. The decompression takes three days. The chamber
volume is 15 m3. How much oxygen is used?

A

72.84 m3

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82
Q

At the start of the shift, a chamber is at 145 msw and 32°C. During the shift, the temperature fell to
28°C. If the life support crew had not added gas to maintain depth, by how much would the depth have
decreased?

A

2 msw

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83
Q

Chamber 1 is at 320 fsw, with a ppO2 of 0.4 ata and a percentage of 3.74%. It is bled to 100 fsw. What
is the ppO2 at 100 fsw?

A

0.15 ata

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84
Q

Chamber 1 is at 97 msw, with a ppO2 of 400 mb. It is blown down to 130 msw, using 2%. What is the
ppO2 at 130 msw?

A

466 mb

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85
Q

After equalisation, Chamber 1 has a volume of 12m3 and a ppO2 of 480 mb. Chamber 2 has a volume
of 8m3 and a ppO2 of 400 mb.

A

448 mb

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86
Q

During a saturation dive, nine divers will live at 95msw for 10 days, including decompression. How
much absorbent would they use?

A

540 kg

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87
Q

What is soda lime (soda sorb made of?)

A

Calcium hydroxide

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88
Q

Describe the chemical process of scrubbing C02 using calcium hydroxide (soda lime)

A

Co2 absorbed by moisture reacts with the calcium hydroxide to form carbonic acid. An exothermic reaction (gives off heat).

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89
Q

How many kilos of soda sorb will each diver use per 24 hours?

A

6 kilos

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90
Q

How many liters of Co2 does a diver generate in a day?

A

720 liters

Equal to o2 consumption

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91
Q

How many liters of Co2 will 1kg of soda sorb adsorb?

A

120 liters

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92
Q

A chamber and bell are at 185 msw, with a ppO2 of 400 mb. For the dive, the bell is separated from
the chamber and blown down on 4% to a working depth of 200 msw. What is the ppO2 in the bell at
working depth?

A

460 mb

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93
Q

A chamber and bell are at 70 msw, with a ppO2 of 500 mb. For the dive, the bell is separated from the
chamber and blown down on 4% to a working depth of 90 msw. What is the ppO2 in the bell at working
depth?

A

580 mb

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94
Q

A diver takes a chemical sampling tube reading of 0.4% in the bell at 110 msw. What will be the reading
on the percentage surface analyser (i.e. the true percentage)?

A

0.033%

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95
Q

The bellman uses a chemical sampling tube to take a CO2 reading in the bell. The scale reading is 1.4%.
If the bell is at 400 fsw, give the true percentage of CO2, the pCO2 and the SEP.

A

True percentage = 0.107%
Partial pressure = 0.014 ata
SEP 1.4%

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96
Q

What IMCA document deals with minimum gas volumes?

A

IMCA D050

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97
Q

How is heat energy measured in the metric and imperial systems?

A

Metric: Joules or Calories
Imperial: BTU’s

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98
Q

What is the specific heat capacity of of substance?

A

Amount of energy it takes to raise the temperature of 1 kilo of the substance by 1 degree C

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99
Q

What are the 3 ways to transfer heat?

A

conduction, radiation, convection

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100
Q

How many times faster does water conduct heat that air?

A

24 times

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101
Q

How many more times conductive is Helium than air?

A

6 times

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102
Q

How many more times conductive his hydrogen than air?

A

7 times

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103
Q

A low hot water temperature with a high flow rate can transfer as much heat at a high temperature with a low flow rate to the diver.

True or False

A

True.

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104
Q

What is the rough calculation guide for hot water temp drop over the length of an umbilical?

A

Temp drop = Umbilical length / flow rate

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105
Q

Describe buoyancy

A

volume of water displaced x density of water

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106
Q

What is the density of sea water? (Metric & Imperial)

A

1.03 kg/l, or 1.03 t/m3 or 64.38 lbs/ft3.

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107
Q

What is the density of fresh water? (Metric & Imperial)

A

1.00 kg/l,
or 1.00 t/m3 or 62.5 lbs/ft3.

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108
Q

A diving bell displaces 5 m3 of sea water and weighs 4.8 tonnes. Is the bell positively buoyant?

A

Positive buoyancy = 0.35 tonnes

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109
Q

A diving bell displaces 180 ft3 of sea water and weighs 5.2 imperial tons. Is the bell positively buoyant?

A

Negative buoyancy = 0.03 tons

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110
Q

How much does diver weigh?

A

150 kg

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111
Q

A block of concrete, 2m x 2m x 3m, is lying on the seabed. The density of concrete is 2,400 kg/m3.
How much force is required to lift the block clear of the seabed?

A

16.44 tonnes

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112
Q

What is the maximum breaking force of a weak link?

A

70 kg

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113
Q

Maximum pO2 supplied to the diver on bailout

A

1.4 bar

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114
Q

Therapeutic treatment PPo2

A

1.6 to 2.8 bar

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115
Q

Other acceptable bailout mixes

A

Bottom mix
>350 mb (chamber mix)

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116
Q

IMCA Saturation (in water) PP02

A

0.5 to 0.8 bar

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117
Q

Saturation (in chamber) PPo2

A

0.35 bar to 0.5 bar

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118
Q

Maximum PPO2 for surface supplied diving

A

1.4 bar

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119
Q

Diver gas consumption from a bail-out bottle or other supply source in an emergency

A

40 l/min
1.5 ft3/min

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120
Q

Reclaim losses

A

5 l/min
0.18 ft3/min

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121
Q

Bell Co2 (Maximum)

A

20 mb
0.02 bar
2%
20,000 ppm

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122
Q

Chamber Co2 Maximum

A

5 mb
0.005 bar
0.5%
5,000 ppm

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123
Q

Co2 Poisoning PPM

A

40,000 PPM

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124
Q

Loss of consciousness PPM Co2

A

100,000 PPM

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125
Q

Anterior means

A

front of the body

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126
Q

posterior means

A

to the back

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127
Q

midline is

A

imaginary line down
the center of the body.

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128
Q

Superior means

A

towards the top

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129
Q

inferior means

A

towards the bottom

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130
Q

Proximal means

A

closer to

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131
Q

distal means

A

further away

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132
Q

carbon dioxide in the blood is dissolved as

A

carbonic acid

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133
Q
A
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134
Q
A
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135
Q

Carbonic acid levels in the blood stimulate breathing

True of False

A

True

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136
Q

dioxide poisoning is called

A

hypercapnia

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137
Q

Oxygen will only pass into the bloodstream if the pO2 (partial pressure or tension of oxygen) in the
lungs’ alveoli is higher than the pO2 in the blood in the capillaries in contact with the alveoli.

True or False

A

True

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138
Q

What is internal respiration

A

The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide at cellular level

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139
Q

What is external respiration

A

The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the lungs

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140
Q

Inadequate oxygenation of the cells is known as

A

Hypoxia

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141
Q

Total lack of oxygen is called

A

Anoxia

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142
Q

There are ….. organ systems in the body.

A

11

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143
Q

The 4 important to diving are

A

skeletal;
respiratory;
circulatory;
nervous.

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144
Q

How many bones in the human body

A

206 separate bones

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145
Q

How many vertebrae in the spine

A

26 vertebrae

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146
Q

Top 7 vertebrae in the spine known as

A

cervical vertebrae

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147
Q

Rapid pressurisation can cause discomfort or even pain in the joints is

A

compression arthralgia

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148
Q

Blood cells are created in

A

Bone marrow

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149
Q

How many sinus cavities are there in the cranium? (skull)

A

4

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150
Q

five principal body cavities

A

cranial cavity
spinal cavity
thoracic cavity
abdominal cavity
pelvic cavity

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151
Q

the pharynx is

A

throat

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152
Q

larynx is

A

voice box

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153
Q

food and liquids are normally prevented from entering the lower airway by

A

epiglottis

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154
Q

tubes are about 1mm in diameter in the lungs are known as

A

bronchioles

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155
Q

The bronchioles continue to branch, eventually terminating in grape-like clusters of tiny, hollow air sacs
known as

A

alveoli

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156
Q

In an adult male lung surface area area is about

A

70 m2

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157
Q

The alveoli are covered in a network of fine blood vessels called

A

capillaries

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158
Q

arterial gas embolism is

A

Rupture of aveloi wall allowing gas to enter bloodstream

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159
Q

Each lung is covered by a double layer of membranes
called

A

pleura

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160
Q

The two layers of the pleura are so close together that they are virtually in contact with each other.
They are separated only by a thin layer of fluid called

A

pleural fluid

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161
Q

pleural fluid acts as

A

lubricant
to allow the pleural membranes to slide over each other

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162
Q

If the space between the pleural membranes
becomes filled with gas is is known as a

A

pneumothorax

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163
Q

haemothorax is

A

blood between the two plural layers surrounding the lungs

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164
Q

De-oxygenated blood is carried to the lungs by

A

pulmonary artery

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165
Q

Oxygenated blood is carried from
the lungs back to the heart by the

A

pulmonary vein

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166
Q

exhaled gas contains about …%
oxygen

A

16%

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167
Q

The average adult male takes about …. breaths

A

12

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168
Q

Tidal volume is about …. ml of gas

A

500 ml

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169
Q

The total lung capacity is about ……. ml

A

6000 ml

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170
Q

in very deep breathing about
5000 ml of gas can be moved. This is known as the …… capacity of an individual

A

vital capacity

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171
Q

During normal respiration at rest, the body uses about ….. ml of oxygen per minute

A

250 ml

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172
Q

During exercise
oxygen use can be …… ml per minute or more.

A

1000 ml

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173
Q

IMCA D050 recommends using a consumption of …..ml per minute

A

500 ml

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174
Q

During normal breathing about ….ml of gas remains in the dead space

A

150 ml

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175
Q

Arteries carry
blood ….. from the heart

A

away

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176
Q

veins return blood ….. the heart

A

to

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177
Q

gas exchange with the tissues takes place from the

A

capillaries

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178
Q

There are how many blood circulation circuits.

A

two

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179
Q

The systemic circulation supplies all the

A

body
* except lungs

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180
Q

The pulmonary circulation passes only through the
…….

A

lungs

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181
Q

Haemoglobin carries about …..% of the oxygen with the remainder dissolved in the plasma

A

95%

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182
Q

leucocytes are

A

white blood cells

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183
Q

platelets preform what function

A

Blood clotting

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184
Q

The right heart
receives blood from the ………. circulation and sends to to the lungs

A

Systemic

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185
Q

left heart receives the oxygenated blood from the lungs and pumps it through the
systemic circulation to supply all the body tissues and then back to the right heart

True of False

A

True

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186
Q

…………. blood pressure is the pressure exerted against the walls of the arteries when the heart is contracted

A

Systolic

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187
Q

………… blood pressure is the pressure when the heart is
relaxed.

A

Diastolic

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188
Q

Optimum blood pressure is what?

A

120 / 80

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189
Q

Mild hypertension is what blood pressure ?

A

140 / 90

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190
Q

No radial pulse indicates a systolic blood pressure below what?

A

80 mmHG

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191
Q

Below …… the femoral pulse will not be detectable

A

70 mmHG

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192
Q

below ……. the carotid
pulse will not be detectable

A

60 mmHG

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193
Q

Capillary refill gives a quick indication of blood pressure in a casualty. How fast should a fingernail return to pink colour after it is blanched by pinching lightly?

A

2 seconds

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194
Q

The heart muscle is stimulated to beat regularly by a series of electrical impulses. Various circumstances
such as electric shock, hypoxia, severe hypothermia, electrolyte imbalance caused by near drowning,
trauma and a variety of medical conditions can cause this rhythm of electrical impulses to become
chaotic.

This is known as?

A

ventricular fibrillation

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195
Q

The normal heart rate may be anything from ….. to …….

A

40 to 80 bpm

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196
Q

Although there is a single, continuous nervous system it is convenient to subdivide it into the central
nervous system and the peripheral nervous system.

True of False

A

True

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197
Q

The organs of the central nervous system are covered by layers of membrane known as the …….

A

meninges

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198
Q

……….. fluid circulates around brain and spinal cord under the meninges

A

Cerebro-spina

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199
Q

The 3 principal parts of the brain are the…..

A

cerebrum, cerebellum and brain stem

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200
Q

The cerebrum is the largest part of the brain and controls…..

A

higher functions such as thought,
speech and voluntary movement.

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201
Q

The cerebellum lies beneath the cerebrum and is of similar shape but considerably smaller. It exerts
unconscious control over…

A

basic functions

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202
Q

The brain stem links into the spinal cord and also controls the …….

A

operation of the heart and lungs

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203
Q

The middle ear is connected to outside atmosphere via the …………. ……………

A

Eustachian tube

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204
Q

The ossicles transmit the vibrations to the ……… in the inner ear. The cochlea contains the hearing
sense organ, which transmits the information to the brain via the ………. nerve.

A

cochlea

auditory

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205
Q

fluid filled semi-circular canals which control ………..

A

balance

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206
Q

IMCA international code of practice DO14 that at least how many team members are diver medics

A

two

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207
Q

What is DMAC 15

A

Medical Equipment to be Held at the Site of an
Offshore Diving Operation

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208
Q

What is DMAC 28

A

The Provision of Emergency Medical Care
for Divers in Saturation

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209
Q

Barotrauma, is a …….

A

pressure injury

210
Q

10 types of baraotrauma

A

Aural Barotrauma
Sinus Squeeze
Dental Barotrauma
Mask Squeeze
Nips
Helmet Squeeze
Pulmonary Barotrauma
Interstitial Emphysema
Pneumothorax
Arterial Gas Embolism

211
Q

Nitrogen has an affinity for fat …… times that of fluids in the body

A

Five times

212
Q

Nitrogen will saturate the body fluids within …… minutes. But it will take …….. hours to saturate fat.

A

60 minutes
Several hours

213
Q

an air diver ascends from 10 msw to surface, about 65% of the dissolved nitrogen will have left his
body in …… and about 90% after …….. ………. He will not, however, be completely free of the
excess gas for 12 hours.

A

60 minutes
6 hours

214
Q

DCI cases treated
within 30 minutes have a ……% success rate.

A

90%

215
Q

A delay of 5 hours reduces the success rate to only ……%

A

50%

216
Q

Pain only DCI is likely caused by bubble formation in

A

muscles or joints

217
Q

Skin bends are caused by bubble formation in the …… …….. under the skin

A

Fat layer

218
Q

Minor pains or twinges are often described as ‘niggles’ should be treated at DCI

True or False

A

True

If they resolve at depth then it’s a DCI

219
Q

Serious DCI is caused by bubble formation in the central nervous system (CNS)

True of False

A

True

220
Q

Spinal DCI, for example, is caused by bubble formation in the spinal cord or in the sheath covering the
cord. Typical symptoms are

A

Numbness or tingling
Pain around the waist,
Loss of bladder
Excessive tiredness
Weakness in the legs Paralysis

221
Q

Cerebral DCI symptoms include

A

Irritability
Hallucination
Paralysis (one side)

222
Q

Vestibular DCI is caused by bubble formation in the inner ear. The symptoms are

A

loss of balance,
Nausea
Vertigo.
Ringing ears.

223
Q

‘Chokes’ is included as serious DCI because
it is immediately life threatening.

Caused by rapid decompression.

What are the symptoms

A

The diver is unable to breathe properly because large numbers of
bubbles have formed in the pulmonary circulation.

224
Q

Osteonecrosis, is

A

patches of dead bone

225
Q

During chronic oxygen poisoning, the lungs become congested, there is a fluid build-up and damage to
the capillaries. The first symptom is….

A

mild tickling, or irritation in the lungs and a slight cough

226
Q

Sever chronic o2 poisoning symptoms include….

A

Severe and constant burning sensation on inhalation.
Persistent cough.
Extreme fatigue,
muscle aches,
headaches,
dizziness,
tingling and numbness in
the fingers and toes.

227
Q

Acute oxygen poisoning symptoms

A

Vision
Ears (ringing)
Nausea
Twitching
Irritation
Dizziness

228
Q

For DCI treatment in a chamber, the diver can breathe a pO2 as high as …… bar

A

2.8 bar

229
Q

No attempt should be made to decompress a diver during a convulsion, even if a move is due. He will be unable to exhale and may suffer pulmonary barotrauma.

True or False

A

True

230
Q

It is standard practice to
analyse gas before it goes to the diver and always have an on-line analyser, with audio alarms turned on…. why?

A

To avoid wrong gas going to the diver making him hypoxic or anoxic

231
Q

Hypoxia is generally considered to occur when the pO2 is less than ….. mb

A

160 mb

232
Q

Minimum PPo2 in the water is usually?

A

450-600 mb.

233
Q

At what PPn2 does nitrogen narcosis generally occur

A

approximately 3.2 bar.

234
Q

The symptoms of hypercapnia or carbon dioxide poisoning are

A

headache
sweating
increased respiration
feelings of apprehension

235
Q

Carbon monoxide is typically found in the air supply from a….

A

faulty compressor or a compressor with a
badly placed air intake.

It may also be encountered in habitat welding

236
Q

Carbon monoxide has an affinity to hemoglobin …… times more than oxygen.

A

200 times

237
Q

Carbon monoxide poisoning symptoms are

A

cherry red complexion

238
Q

What is the IMCA D021?

A

Diving in contaminated waters

239
Q

What is IMCA DO31

A

Cleaning for oxygen service

240
Q

Divers breathing heliox mixtures must have some form of active heating.

True of False

A

True

241
Q

Past 150 meters divers must have a heated gas supply.

True or False

A

True

242
Q

Normal body temperature is about

A

37°C

243
Q

Shivering starts to occur at about

A

36°C

244
Q

The clinical phases of progressive hypothermia can be classed as

A
  1. Mild body core temperature 35-34°C
  2. Moderate body core temperature 33-30°C
  3. Severe body core temperature < 30C
245
Q

Rapid re-warming can cool the blood as it flows though the cold outer tissues
and cause a fatal temperature drop as it returns to the core.

True or False

A

True

246
Q

Hyperthermia is considered to occur when the body temperature exceeds what temperature

A

39°C

247
Q

Secondry drowning can occur up to how long after a near drowning?

A

72 hours, and is a hospital case.

248
Q

After a water jet injury you should do what?

A

Seek arrange surgical examination as soon as possible.

249
Q

maximum wave height is defined as the greatest wave height observed in a what period.

A

10 minute

250
Q

Significant wave height is the average height of the largest …… ……. of all waves observed in a
10 minute period

A

One third

251
Q

How many knots max for working on bottom construction sat diving

A

1.2 knots

252
Q

How many knots max for mid water construction sat diving ?

A

1 knot

253
Q

How many knots max for air diving mid water work observation air diving?

A

1 knot

254
Q

How many knots max for light construction air diving on bottom?

A

1 knot

255
Q

How many knots max for light construction on bottom sat diving?

A

1.5 knots

256
Q

How many knots max for non routine observation air diving on bottom

A

1.5 knots

257
Q

How many knots max for observation sat diving on bottom?

A

1.8 knots

258
Q

How many knots max for non routine sat diving on bottom?

A

2 knots

259
Q

The force exerted on a diver and his equipment by the current is proportional to the water velocity
squared.

If the velocity doubles, the force increases how many times?

A

four

260
Q

Diving may also be stopped by whom apart from the dive supervisor ?

A

master of a vessel

261
Q

The thermal boundary between layers, known as a …………..

A

thermocline

262
Q

The velocity of sound in air is?

A

330 m per second

263
Q

In water it is?

A

1,440 m per second

264
Q

What is DMAC 12?

A

Diving in the vicinity of seismic operations

265
Q

Sonar transmissions may have ……….-………… effects on the dive, causing disorientation

A

audio-vestibular

266
Q

Recent incidents have demonstrated that significant adverse effects may be experienced
by divers at distances of up to how many km

A

27 km

267
Q

Good practice is to notify relevant parties within ….. kilometers of a proposed sonar activity

A

45 kilometers

268
Q

Within how many kilometers should a joint risk assessment should be conducted, between the clients/operators involved and the seismic and diving contractors in advance of any simultaneous operations?

A

30km

269
Q

When simultaneous operations are conducted, the diving contractor should generate and submit a short online
Report of Simultaneous Seismic and Diving to DMAC

True or False?

A

True

270
Q

Because of
the attenuating effects of the helmet, divers with helmets are safe from any known sonar transmissions
with frequencies above …..Hz.

A

500

271
Q

A supervisor can pass over the total communications responsibility to anyone.

True of false

A

False.

Only to another qualified and appointed supervisor.

272
Q

Communications:
Name OPEN dedicated lines from dive control.

A

Bridge & crane

273
Q

What are the two other dedicated lines (not radio)

A

Sat control
ROV

274
Q

Documentation:
What the are the 17 documents to be kept on a dive site?

A

1) Company operations manual.

2) Safety management system (SMS).

3) Management of change procedure.

4) Bridging document (interface document between clients’ and companies’ SMS).

5) Risk assessments.

6) In date system audit document.

7) Technical manuals.

8) Equipment on site.

9) Planned maintenance system.

10) Repair an maintenance reports.

11) Diving project plan.

12) Diving operations logbook.

13) Dive records sheets.

14) Pre and post dive checklists.

15) Use of equipment checklists.

16) Incident investigation documentation.

275
Q

5 other regulating bodies documentation that may be on board?

A

National ACOP’s
IOGP
AODC & IMCA
IMO Code - DIving Sytems
IMO Guidelines Hyperbaric Evacuation

276
Q

What is the individual documentation required?

A

Passport
Record of competence
Letter of appointment
Job description
Qualification certs
Medical Cert
Offshore survival cert

277
Q

Who requires a log book?

A

Supervisors
Divers
Inspection divers
Life support techs
Dive techs
Diving tenders (record of training and assessment)

278
Q

Minimum information to put into divers log book

A

1) Name of diver
2) Date
3) Address of company
4) Location / Vessel
5) Max depth
6) Left surface / Bottom time . Arrived surface
7) Time in deco chamber
8) Type of breathing apparatus used.
9) Work done tools used
10) Deco schedules
11) Illness or injury
12) Incidents or special notes

279
Q

What is IMCA D0 11

A

Guidance on auditing of diving systems

280
Q

What is MCA D0 18

A

Code of practice for the initial and periodic examination, testing and certification of diving plant and equipment

281
Q

Verification of certification and the planned maintenance system should normally be carried out at least?

A

annually

282
Q

What is IMCA Diving Equipment Systems Inspection Guidance Note (DESIGN)

A

audit document

283
Q

There are currently DESIGN audit documents for air?

A

DO 23

284
Q

What is the IMCA DESIGN audit documents for sat?

A

DO 24

285
Q

What is the IMCA DESIGN audit documents for surface supplied mixed gas?

A

D0 37

286
Q

What is the IMCA DESIGN audit documents for mobile/portable diving systems?

A

D0 40

287
Q

What is the IMCA DESIGN audit documents for hyperbaric reception facility forming part of a hyperbaric evacuation system?

A

DO 53

288
Q

What is RIDDOR in the UK?

A

Reporting of Injuries, Diseases and Dangerous Occurrences Regulations 2013

289
Q

What records need to be kept under RIDDOR?

A

Work related accidents that cause…

1) Death
2) Serious injury
3) Industrial diseases
4) Dangerous occurrences (near misses)

290
Q

Do non work related accidents have to be reported to RIDDOR?

A

No

291
Q

What is a non-conformance reports are report?

A

Occurrences which do not cause a near miss or other incident, but do not conform to laid down procedures or standards

292
Q

Accidents and incidents should also be reported to the master of the vessel or offshore installation
manager (OIM)

True or False

A

True

293
Q

Each team
should include how many personnel qualified in advanced first aid as a diver medic

A

At least one

294
Q

Does the diver medic need to be a diver?

A

No. Only has to be able to be fit and competent to enter the chamber

295
Q

If the diver medic IS a member of the dive team then how many diver medics do required.

A

At least one to be available on shift on surface.

296
Q

The absolute minimum for a surface supplied air/nitrox diving operation under the IMCA international
code of practice for offshore diving is how many?

A

5

air diving supervisor;
working diver;
standby diver;
tender for working diver;
tender for standby diver.

297
Q

The absolute minimum number of personnel required to carry out an offshore surface supplied mixed
gas dive is?

A

6

298
Q

The absolute minimum team size to support divers during a closed bell diving operation and 24 hours’
life support operations under the IMCA international code of practice for offshore diving is?

A

9

closed bell diving supervisor
two life support supervisors;
two life support technicians;
two divers in the bell;
surface standby diver;
tender for surface standby diver.

299
Q

In all cases, the precise arrangement, including responsibilities and chain of command, needs to be agreed
in writing.

True or False?

A

True

300
Q

if a member of the diving team is asked to work for more than 12 hours, he needs to have had at
least …….. …….. off in the previous 24 hours

A

eight hours

301
Q

The longest period a member of the diving team will be asked to work, and only in exceptional
circumstances, will be how many hours before being given eight hours of unbroken rest

A

16 hours

302
Q

in saturation diving, bell runs will not last more than how many hours from seal to seal and the divers
must then have how many of unbroken rest

A

8 hours seal to seal
12 hours unbroken rest

303
Q

no person will be expected to work for more than 12 hours without an intermediate meal break
taken away from their place of work

True of False?

A

True

304
Q

Maximum pO2 supplied to the diver from the bail-out bottle should be

A

1.4 bar

305
Q

minimum pO2 supplied to the diver from the bail-out bottle should be the
same as the pO2 in the diver’s primary breathing gas mixture, with an absolute minimum of PPo2 of….

A

0.4 bar.

306
Q

IMCA D 035 is?

A

Guidance on selecting vessels of opportunity for diving projects

307
Q

IMCA DO 15

A

Mobile/portable/daughtercraft surface supplied systems

308
Q

What are 4 dive support locations?

A

Daughter craft.

Small air range DSV or supply boat.

Large Monohull or multihull DSV.

Fixed platform or temp platform

309
Q

What is IMCA D10

A

Diving operations from vessels operating in dynamically positioned mode

310
Q

What is IMCA M103

A

Guidelines for the design and operation of dynamically positioned vessels

311
Q

DP system can be divided into what five sections

A

power, propulsion, control, reference and sensors

312
Q

Name the 3 DP propulsion systems

A

Tunnel thruster
Azimuth thruster
Main engines

313
Q

Name the 5 DP reference systems

A

Hydrocoustic
Laser
Radar
DGPS
Taut wire

314
Q

Name 3 DP environmental sensors

A

Altitude
Movement
Environmental

315
Q

What is a DP excursion

A

any change of position or heading, either intentional or unintentional. It can range from many meters to less than a meter.

316
Q

During proving trials, the system is tested in all normal modes of operation and failure modes are
simulated.

True or False

A

True

317
Q

Minimum DP trial time is ?

A

30 minutes

318
Q

During trials how many modes of failure are simulated?

A

All modes ie:
DP 3 = 3 redundancies

319
Q

On the basis of the trials, calculations of station keeping capability are made for various
situations, including the maximum number of thrusters and/or power units that could be operational
after the worst single failure

Ture or False

A

True

320
Q

What is a polar plot form?

A

Data collected over time showing the capability V’s historically encountered environmental conditions.

321
Q

A fully operational DP system should reliably keep a vessel in position in such a way that the maximum
excursion from vessel motions and position keeping will not be more than….

A

half the critical excursion for the work being carried out.

322
Q

A critical excursion means…

A

an excursion where, because of the speed and/or extent of the movement,
personnel could be injured and/or substantial damage could be sustained

323
Q

What is operational safe working limit?

A

These are environmental limits within which a critical excursion caused by a single fault is very unlikely.

(Either because there is adequate control and power remaining, or because the environmental loads are small)

324
Q

IMO recommends that every DP vessel built after July 1994 should be assigned to an equipment class.

How many classes are there?

A

DP 1
DP 2
DP 3

325
Q

What class is the minimum for diving?

A

DP 2

326
Q

Define DP 1

A

Loss of position arising from a single fault

327
Q

Define DP 2

A

Single point failure won’t cause loss of position ie: generator fail. But additional failure of a static component can cause loss of position

328
Q

Define DP 3

A

Loss of position won’t occur from a single point failure including fire in one sub division or flooding of a compartment.

329
Q

Define a green DP light

A

Normal operational status. Adequate equipment is on-line to meet the required
performance within the safe working limits;

330
Q

Define a yellow

A

Degraded operational status. In general it is the condition where one or more items of
redundant DP equipment has failed, safe working limits are being exceeded or an excursion of
heading or position is likely but will not be critical

331
Q

The minimum DP control requirement for diving
operations is

A

two automatic fully redundant control systems

332
Q

There should also be what other manual control system?

A

joystick for manoeuvring, which can either be separate from or an integral part of the DP control system

333
Q

Class 3 vessels should have an additional DP control room, in case the main control room is put out of action by fire or flood.

True or False?

A

True

334
Q

For diving work at least …….. position references need to be on-line and at least two should
be of different types.

A

Three

335
Q

Position references should have independent ……….. ………. and cable routes should be separate

A

power supplies

336
Q

Name the 5 different DP position sensors

A

Taut wire
Hydroacoustic)
DGPS

Laser radar systems: FanBeam and CyScan

FM radar systems:
RADius and RadaScan.

337
Q

HPS positioning in shallow water, the cone
is very narrow and it is possible for the vessel to miss the transponder signal and overshoot the position.

True or False?

A

True

338
Q

If there is only one transducer on the vessel, the acoustic system can only count as one reference
system, regardless of the number of transponders on the seabed

True or False

A

True

339
Q

Two major causes of problems with DGNSS are scintillation…

A

The effect of solar activity.

Shadowing of antenna by nearby structures

340
Q

DP 3 should have a separate DP control room to serve as a back up.

True or False

A

True

341
Q

How many position sensor have to be online for diving operations?

A

3 sensors
2 must be of different type

342
Q

Different position references have to have what?

A

Independent power supply
Different cable routes

343
Q

Name the 5 different DP position sensors

A

Tautwire
Hydroacoustic
DGPS
Laser
FM radar

344
Q

Limitations of tautwire are?

A

Minumum depth req’d
Short excursions shallow
Affected by heavy swell
Potential hazard to divers

345
Q

Limitation of Hydroacoustic Position Reference (HPR)?

A

Minimum depth req’d
Affected by thrusters, bubbles and water jetting.

346
Q

Limitations of DGNSS?

A

Affected by solar flares and shadowing of receiver.

347
Q

Limitations of laser positioning systems?

A

Affected by heavy rain, snow and fog.
Line of sight only.
Degraded performance by direct sun shine.
Target can’t be near reflective surface.

348
Q

What’s the range of a Fan Beam laser radar?

A

<2000 meters

349
Q

What’s the range of Cyslan laser radar?

A

<400 meters

350
Q

Limitations of an Artemis system?

A

Line of sight
Low battery in fixed unit
Radar transmissions
Other DSV’s in area

351
Q

Is an Artemis system safe to use in a ZONE ONE environment?

A

Yes. No explosion hazard.

352
Q

What should Artemis not be using during?

A

Wire line operations
Explosive works

353
Q

Name the 3 environmental sensors of a DP system

A

Anemometers
Gyro compass
Vertical reference systems

354
Q

How many anemometers need to be on line in a DP system

A

Two.
In different locations and have separate cable routes

355
Q

How many gyro compasses need to in a DP system?

A

At least 3

356
Q

How many vertical reference systems does a DP system need to have ?

A

At least two. With different cable routes and power sources.

357
Q

Communications:
Dive control needs to have direct comms (with back up) to whom?

A

DP control
ROV
Crane

358
Q

Are DP joystick operations acceptable during diving ops ?

A

No

359
Q

Can changes of heading and position are not made simultaneously?

A

No

360
Q

What is the maxium single move allowed in DP with divers on seabed?

A

5m

361
Q

Umbilical diver’s umbilical must be physically restrained to prevent it from coming within how many metres of a hazard?

A

Five meters

362
Q

Bellman should be restrained to prevent it coming within how many metres of any identified hazard.

A

Three meters

363
Q

Golden Gate Rules:
What are the 3 golden gate rules?

A

Which ever is lesser:

Distance from golden gate to diver must not exceed distance from bell to thruster - 5m

Distance from golden gate to diver must not exceed golden gate to thruster - 5m

And:
Distance from bell to golden gate must be 2m less than golden gate to diver.

364
Q

Suppose the distance from the basket/bell to the thruster (Distance A) is 17m and from the in water tend point to the thruster (Distance D) is 20m. Calculate C.

The distance from the basket/bell to the in-water tend point (Distance B) is 8m

A

Because it is shorter than Distance D, Distance A (17m) is selected.

Distance C, therefore, must be between 10 and 12m.

365
Q

Suppose the distance from the basket/bell to the thruster (Distance A) is 25m and from the in water tend point to the thruster (Distance D) is 20m. Calculate C

The distance from the basket/bell to the in-water tend point (Distance B) is 10m.

A

Because it is shorter than Distance A (25), Distance D (20m) is selected

Between 12 and 15m

366
Q

Diving withing anchor patterns what over what horizontal distance does a mooring chain not require second means of confirmation?

A

250 meters

367
Q

DPO is to monitor the moored vessel via ………. and ……… and diving operations are to be stopped immediately if contact is lost.

A

Radar and radio

368
Q

Moored vessel is not to adjust ………. or ………. without first notifying the DPO

A

tension or draft

369
Q

Ideally how much horizontal distance should be between a bell and mooring line or chain?

A

50 meters

370
Q

If a bell is within 50 meters of a mooring line / chain what contingencies are in place?

A

Position of mooring line / chain actively monitored (ROV or beacon) and plotted.

Time within anchor pattern kept to a minimum

Provision of lost bell(s) considered during planning.

Risk assessments to cover touch down visibility and snagging

371
Q

Gas handling rules:
Never operate a valve in a gas system without first checking with who?

A

LSS or Supervisor

372
Q

Always ……….. a quad or kelly before connecting it

A

analise

373
Q

Never put a gas on line to the panel without?

A

analysing it again

374
Q

Never put gas online to the diver without an inline ……… with a …… and ……. alarm

A

Analyser
High
Low

375
Q

Before connecting hoses always visually inspect them for what?

A

cracks in the fittings and that they are fit for use

376
Q

Never use a flexible gas line without what?

A

A whip check

377
Q

Open valves on bottles how?

A

Slowly, arms length, looking away, open all the way and back half a turn

378
Q

Helium bottle cylinder is …….. colour on the body and ……. colour on the shoulder

A

Brown
Brown

379
Q

Diving oxygen cylinder is …….. colour on the body and ……… colour on the shoulder

A

Black
White

380
Q

Heliox cylinder is …….. colour on the body and …….. on the

A

Brown
Brown / White quarters

381
Q

Nitrogen cylinder is ……….. colour on the body and ……… colour on the shoulder

A

Grey
Black

382
Q

Argon cylinder is ……… on the body and ……….. on the shoulder

A

Dark blue
Dark blue

383
Q

Breathing air cylinder is ………. on the body and ………. on the shoulder

A

Black
Black / White

384
Q

Co2 cylinder is …………. on the body and ……… on the shoulder

A

Black
Grey

385
Q

Calibration gas bottles are coloured?

A

Pink

386
Q

Oxygen must never be
stored in a

A

confined space

387
Q

oxygen analyser with an audio and visual hi-lo alarm should be placed in

A

the gas hold

388
Q

The European standard for gas colour coding is?

A

EN1089

389
Q

EN1089 does not require cylinder body to be coloured

True or false?

A

True.

Quarters or bands colour coded on neck only

390
Q

According to DO43:
If cylinders in a quad are completely encapsulated, with no bottle shoulder showing then what denotes quad content?

A

20cm circular flag painted on each face in the appropriate colour code of the condense.

391
Q

Quads may be stored below deck and should have provision for what ?

A

Fire fighting and o2 analysis of the atmosphere.

392
Q

According to the DO43 bottles in a quad don’t have to be colour coded if the quad frame is painted in the appropriate colours for that gas.

True or False

A

True

393
Q

Cylinders that go under water need to be tested how often according to DO18?

A

6 Monthly visual
2 yearly MWP + opt hdro
4 Yearly Hydro to 1.5 MWP.

394
Q

Greater than what % is oxygen considered pure for safety reasons ?

A

25%

395
Q

What is the maximum recommended line pressure for pure oxygen?

A

40 bar

396
Q

Flexible hoses should be kept to a minimum for oxygen handling.

True or False

A

True

397
Q

1/4 turn valves are allow in oxygen lines but only as emergency shut offs.

True or False

A

True

398
Q

Over what % and pressure is not recommended that 1/4 values be used

A

25 percent
15 bar

399
Q

DMAC 05 and IMCA DO14 recommend what as the minimum oxygen content for heliox from 50 to 150 meters?

A

2%

400
Q

Can 100% He be used offshore in special and controlled circumstances ie: extremely deep sat?

A

Yes.

401
Q

What is BSEN 12021

A

British compressed air purity standard

402
Q

How much
CO, Co2, Oil under BSEN 12021

A

5 ppm
500 ppm
0.5 mg / m3

403
Q

How much H2O under BESN12021?
LP comp
40 - 200 bar
200 + bar

A

LP = 25 mg/m3
40 to 200 bar = 50 mg/m3
200 + bar = 35 mg/m3

404
Q

What fraction is the BSEN 12021 of the compressed air breathing standard

A

1/6 th 8 hour exposure limit for breathing compressed air.

Contaminates are less due to increased pressure

405
Q

What DMAC doc deals with flying after diving?

A

DMAC 07

406
Q

How long before you can fly after a no stop air dive in the previous 12 hours?

A

2 hours (600m)
8 hours (short haul)
24 hours (long haul)

407
Q

How long before you can fly after air / nitrox / heliox surface supplied dive >4 hrs?

A

12 hours (600m)
24 hours (commercial)

408
Q

How long until you can fly after a heliox saturation?

A

12 hours (600m)
24 hours (commercial)

409
Q

How long until you can fly after a air / nitrox or trimix sat?

A

24 hours (600m)
48 hours (commercial)

410
Q

How long before you can fly after a bend with immediate recompression and resolution after treatment?

A

24 hours (600m)
48 hours (Commercial)

411
Q

LARS:
Man riding wire should be …… ……. and have a saftey factor of …… to …..

A

Non rotating
8 to 1

412
Q

According to the DO50 what is the minimum gas requirements for surface supplied diving?

Sufficient gas for:

A

Two emergency dives of 30 minutes to working depth.

Pressurise to max treatment depth (50 msw) plus 3 full surface decompressions.

90 m3 medical oxygen

HP / HP + LP / LP + LP

413
Q

What is the recommended max depth of SRU (SCUBA Replacement Units)

A

30 MSW
No Deco

414
Q

What is the absolute max depth of SRU - with appropriate risk assessment?

A

50 MSW
No Deco

415
Q

DO15 recommends SRU consists of a minimum of how many cylinders?

A

2 x 48 liter cylinders @ 150 bar

416
Q

How far can the daughter craft operate from the DSV?

A

15 minutes
Line of sight

417
Q

What other contingencies should be in place.

A

Means to transfer diver to DDC

Prop guards to protect diver

Second craft to assist if req’d

418
Q

According to the DO23 a ladder can not be used as a primary egress if the diver has to climb more than how many meters above the water line?

A

Two meters

419
Q

How far beneath the water line should the ladder extend?

A

Two meters

420
Q

How much OBG should a wet bell have?

A

Enough pressure and volume to sustain the divers at depth and complete required decompression.

421
Q

What provision is there for an unconscious diver?

A

Means to hold his head above water in the air space.

422
Q

The wet bell to remain negatively buoyant when the dome is full of air.

True or False

A

True

423
Q

Surface gas dives must only be conducted from a proper wet bell.

True or False

A

True

424
Q

Maximum depth of a surface gas dive shouldn’t exceed ?

A

75 meters

425
Q

> 50 msw in water deco shouldn’t exceed how long?

A

100 minutes

426
Q

50 to 75 meters the bottom time shouldn’t exceed what?

A

30 minutes

427
Q

What is the minimum team size for surface gas diving?

A

6

428
Q

What is the minimum OBG requirements / diver for surface gas?

A

7 m3 heliox
7 m3 compressed air

429
Q

Mixed Gas DDC should be what minimum size for single diver operations?

A

1.37m / 54’’

430
Q

Mixed Gas DDC should be what minimum size for two diver operations?

A

1.5m / 60’’

431
Q

What does 1.5m / 60’’ require?

A

A bunk 1800mm long

Means of environmental control

432
Q

After what build date does a DDC need to be 1.5m / 60’’ ?

A

1 Jan 2015

433
Q

How much treatment gas is required?

A

Sufficient for two therapeutic treatments

434
Q

What other additional procedures are recommended?

A

Procedures and tables as contingency for deeper tables using heliox and deeper treatment depths should they be required.

435
Q

After what depth should consideration be given to the stand by being in water?

A

<50m surface stand by
>50 in water stand by

436
Q

Closed Bell:
What is the minimum sized team for closed bell operations?

A

1 Dive sup
2 LSS
2 LST
2 Divers
1 Intervention diver
1 Tender
—————-
NINE
—————-

437
Q

What are the recommendations for sat divers work / rest periods?

A

6 hours in the water max
A break after 2 hours
8 hours seal to seal
12 hours uninterrupted rest.

438
Q

what is the the diving project plan?

A

Consists of the company’s standard operating procedures together with
site or task specific procedures

439
Q

What needs to be done in order for an extension beyond the 28 day recommended duration of a sat?

A

Written agreement of the company’s medical
adviser, the divers and the diving supervisors.

440
Q

Bell:
AODC 009 recommends what be in the bell?

A

emergency waterproof checklist of all valves that
must be closed to ensure pressure integrity in the bell and all those valves that must be kept open.

A duplicate should be kept in dive control

441
Q

Photographs of all internal and external bell valves should be available in dive control.

True or False?

A

True

442
Q

What is the minimum OBG requirement for the bell?

A

30 minutes at a breathing rate of 40 litres
(1.5 ft3) per minute at the maximum depth of the diving operation

24 hours o2

443
Q

What is the frequency of a bell emergency transponder?

A

37.5 kHz

444
Q

A common manifold block for attachment of an emergency umbilical is internationally agreed.

True or False?

A

True

445
Q

A lost bell can be located using a locator deployed from a surface vessel, a diver hand-held locator or a locator mounted in an ROV. The transponder and locators should be checked and tested regularly.

True or False

A

True

446
Q

AODC 61 states what about bell drop weights?

A

No single component failure to allow release

Two stage release

Won’t release accidentally if bell is tilted - but still will release intentionally in such circumstances.

Pneumatic or hydraulic systems won’t actuate by pressure bell is subjected to.

447
Q

AODC 0192 recommends that all worksites should carry up-to-date internal and external photographs
of the bell to provide information to those attempting to rescue the divers if the bell becomes lost or
stranded.

True or False

A

True

448
Q

The bell handling system should allow what?

A

the bell to be locked off the chamber system, lowered safely through the splash zone without undue spinning or swinging and positioned accurately at working depth.

It should maintain the bell at working depth without undue movement and allow it to be recovered
safely to deck and locked onto the chamber system.

449
Q

The main elements of the handling system are what?

A

A-frame or trolley and cursor

Winch, main cable and guide wires

Umbilical handling system

Heave compensation gear (if fitted)

Cross haul system (if fitted)

Secondary recovery systems.

450
Q

Minimum gas for sat under IMCA DO50?

A

Enough for:
4 hours BIBs in chamber

Intended bell runs plus same in reserve (excl OBG)

Pressurise all chambers to depth twice

Full deco twice allowing for medlock runs, toilet flush and leaks

Enough o2 for metabolic consumption x 2

451
Q

The ppO2 in the diver’s mix will normally be

A

in the range of 0.6-0.9 bar

452
Q

The ppO2 in the chamber will normally be

A

about 0.4 bar

453
Q

Chambers:
Minimum chamber size for chamber manufactured after 1 Jan 2015?

A

60 inches / 1.5m

454
Q

Minimum chamber size 1 Diver mixed gas

A

54’’ / 1.37m

455
Q

Minimum chamber size for 2 Diver mixed gas?

A

60’’ / 1.5m

456
Q

What must a 60’’ / 1.5m in addition?

A

A bunk 1.8 long
Environmental control

457
Q

What is the minimum diameter saturation chamber manufactured after 1 Jan 2015?

A

72’’ / 1.8m

458
Q

What are the main classification societies for chambers

A

DNV
German Lloyds
Lloyds
ABS
Bureau Veritas
US Coast Guard

459
Q

What is the minimum oxygen for combustion in a chamber?

A

6%

460
Q

What is the minimum percentage for complete combustion in a chamber? (Flash fire)

A

16%

461
Q

What is the USN fire zone calculation?

A

PPo2x33 / (o2% / 100) - 33

462
Q

Chamber atmosphere is 0.48 ata PPo2. Minimum oxygen percentage for combustion what depth does the fire zone start?

A

231 fsw

463
Q

What are the IMCA D050 requirements for an air chamber?

A

Enough gas for:
Maximum treatment depth (50m)

3 x surface deco’s

90 m3 therapeutic oxygen.

464
Q

When not in use are air chamber BIB’s normally open or closed?

A

Closed

465
Q

What is the maximum o2 % in a air chamber?

A

23%

466
Q

sat BIB’s are to be online at all times and will have what mix online?

A

Bottom mix

467
Q

Do BIB’s need to be oxygen cleaned?

A

Yes

468
Q

Water supply is fed by a pump or a tanks pressurised with what HeO2%

A

2%

469
Q

Can the potable water also be used for FiFi?

A

Yes

470
Q

Chamber toilet mus have an ………… mechanism. There must be a ……. between the bowl and the seat. ……………. must be posted by toilet and peanut tank. During deco the holding thank must be …………. to prevent blow back.

A

interlocking
bowl
procedures
vented

471
Q

interlock must

A

make it impossible to open the clamp if there is still pressure inside the lock, and
impossible to obtain a gas tight seal on the lock if the clamp is not properly closed

472
Q

What is the service life of a view port?

A

10 years

473
Q

Were must the certification be marked on a viewport?

A

Around its circumference

474
Q

What is the DO50 gas requirements for saturation?

A

4 Hours BIB’s supply

Sufficient for treatments for the depths involved

Sufficient to pressurise to max depth, plus same again

Oxygen sufficient for metabolic consumption, plus what is required for deco - held in two separate banks

Plus sufficient gas to carry out intended bell run (or both bell runs if bottom turn around) Plus same in reserve.

OBG and Hyperbaric evacuation not included.

475
Q

Hygiene: How often should bedding be changed out in sat?

A

Every 3 rd day.
Every day if there is an infection.

476
Q

How often should preventative drops be used in saturation?

A

Every 8 hours

477
Q

What are the parameters for saturation checked every hour?

A

Oxygen: 400mb *
CO2 : <5mb
N2 : 1 Bar *
Temp : 25 to 33 c
Depth: : + / - 0.3 msw / 1 fsw

  • = not checked hourly
478
Q

What is DMAC 28?

A

Provision of medical care for divers in saturation

479
Q

What does the DMAC 28 recommend? (10 things)

A

Chamber at least 1.8m

Ability to make room for treatment bunk.

Treatment bunk waist height with access from at least one side.

Firm base to medical bunk with ability to tilt either end at 30 degrees.

Have a work surface for medical equipment

Means of suspending a drip

Convenient medical lock 300mm in diameter

Good comms close to causality

Suitable extra lighting

Sufficient additional hull and electrical penetrators for medical equipment.

480
Q

What is a HES?

A

Hyperbaric Evacuation System

481
Q

What 5 things does the HES include?

A

Hyperbaric evacuation procedures.

Means of evacuation

Reception facility

Contingency plans

Safe havens

482
Q

How many hours should a HRU support life minimum?

A

72 hours

483
Q

What are the two types of HRU?

A

SPHL
HRC

484
Q

Phase 1: How many minutes should it take to transfer divers to the HRU maximum?

A

15 minutes

485
Q

Phase 2:
How many minutes to launch & 100m clear maximum?

A

30 minutes

486
Q

Phase 3: How long should it take to reach HRF ideally?

A

75% of endurance
72 hrs - 25% = 52 hours.

487
Q

What is the safe haven?

A

Where the HRU arrives on completion of transit.

Either to HRF or transport to HFR

488
Q

Phase four:
Complete safe decompression of the divers one of what two ways?

A

LSP to HRC in safe location

TUP from SPHL to HRF

489
Q

Evacuation planning is risk assessed on what 5 points

A

Working depth / Storage depth

Prevailing weather and sea conditions

Distance and duration to safe haven

HRC or SPHL

Anticipated medical treatments required

490
Q

How many ‘Diver Rescue’ markings should there be on a SPHL / HRC

A

Three
One on each side
One on top

491
Q

What 6 instructions should be visible?

A

Towing arrangements
All external connections
Gross weight in air
Lifting points
Name of parent ship
Emergency contacts

492
Q

What 5 things should be written on the warning sign?

A

Don’t touch valves
Don’t get occupants out
Don’t make connections
Don’t give food, water, meds
Don’t open hatches

493
Q

How often should the SPHL / HRC be deployed / float tested

A

Once every 6 months

494
Q

Wire Ropes:
What is the general safety factor on a working wire rope?

A

5 to 1

495
Q

What is the safety factor for a man riding wire rope?

A

8 to 1

496
Q

Multi-legged slings should ideally be used with the legs at less than ….° to each other and never with the
legs at more than …..°.

A

90°
120°

497
Q

The SWL with legs between 90° and 120° is about …. of the SWL with the legs
at less than 90°.

A

0.7

498
Q

What is the maximum fleet angel of a winch wire?

A

1.5°

There must be at least 38 m of lead for every metre of fleet.

499
Q

The drum should not be overloaded with cable. Normally there should be about …… times the
diameter of the winch wire between the outside of the top layer of the wire and the edge of the
drum flange

A

2.5 times

500
Q

Lift bags:
What are the two uses of lift bags?

A

Static ‘sky hook’
Dynamic ‘lift & shift’

501
Q

A bag should be labeled with what in addition to it’s rating?

A

Unique serial number

502
Q

A bag should not be used if its components have been modified or replaced unless approved my manufacturer.

True or False

A

True

503
Q

No more that …… ft of slack should be in an inverter line of an inflated lift bag.

A

One foot

504
Q

Before use the bag(s) serial numbers should be checked against the certification package.

True or False

A

True

505
Q

What other 4 things need to be checked?

A

Certification period
Components of bag
Operation of dump
Inverter line attachment point and rating of line.

506
Q

Oxy-Arc cutting:
What is the maximum recommended amps for broco?

A

150 amps

507
Q

What is the polarity of a broco torch?

A

Negative

508
Q

How can you test this in the water?

A

Hydrogen bubbles from electrolysis migrate from tip to job.

509
Q

Earth should be as close as practical to job.

True of False

A

True.

510
Q

Power tools:
All power tools need to have what?

A

A dead man handle

511
Q

SPHL / HRC Markings:
How many sides does an SPHL / HRC need to be marked on?

A

Three.
Each side and top.

512
Q

What are the required dimensions of the signage?

A

1200 / 450 minimum

513
Q

What height are the words ‘Diver Rescue’ to be?

A

150mm high

514
Q

What size does the ‘Call rescue services and keep in sight’ need to be?

A

50mm

515
Q

And the yellow diver helmet?

A

300 mm high

516
Q

What are the six instructions that must be visible above the water line?

A

Towing arrangement
External connections
Gross weight
Lifting points
Name of ship & rego.
Emergency contacts

517
Q

What are the 5 warning instructions?

A

Don’t touch valves
Don’t get occupants out
Don’t make connections
Do not feed the animals
Do not open hatches

518
Q

Hyperbaric life boats need to be wet tested every?

A

6 months

519
Q

Bell Drills:
How often do IMCA recommend unconscious diver recovery drills?

A

Withing first 3 bell runs and every two weeks there after.

520
Q
A

IMCA D0 22 (1 decks)

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