IMC II Flashcards

1
Q

Appropriateness needs to be assessed for…

A

non-advisory services in complex products (=derivatives and warrants)

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2
Q

3 Pillars of FCA Supervision

A

Firm systematic, Even Driven & Issues and Products

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3
Q

Exempt from Authorisation?

A

Lloyds Syndicate Members, Appointed Representatives, Designated Professional Bodies and Recognised Exchange and Clearing Houses

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4
Q

Penalty for breaking general prohebition

A

2 years prison & unlimited fine

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5
Q

MiFID Professional Client

A

2/3 of
* Balance sheet €20mn
* Net Turnover €40mn
* Own funds €2mn

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6
Q

Professional Client Non-MiFID

A

*company or LLP with called up share capital of at least £5mn OR
(2/3)
* Balance Sheet 12.5mn
* Net Turnover 25mn
* 250 average n.o. employees

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7
Q

Always Professional Clients

A
  • Insti Investor whose main activity = invest in financial instruments
  • National or regional government, Central bank, international or supernational institution
  • Organisations required to be regulated or authorised to operate in financial markets
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8
Q

For a merger to qualify for further investigation any of these must happen

A
  • The combined enterprise more than 25% of market share
  • Turnover of acquired entity exceeds £70mn
  • Any other substantial lessening of competition
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9
Q

Must not provide a suitability report for a retail client when selling

A

UK gov bonds

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10
Q

Suitability report must be sent to client when for pensions?

A

no later than 14 days after contract is concluded

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11
Q

Suitability report must be sent to client when for life policy?

A

before contract is concluded

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12
Q

High net-worth individual

A

Income over £100,000 per year and/or net investible assets of at least £250,000

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13
Q

How often does periodic statements need to be provided for retail clients?

A

Every 6 months, or 3 if requested

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14
Q

Remittance Basis Charge - how much and when paid?

A

If UK resident for 7/9 last years if they choose to have their oversea income taxed on a remittance basis. £30,000 per year. If 12/14 years then £60,000

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15
Q

When can no longer use remittance basis?

A

From the 16th/20 years

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16
Q

Max tax relief of pension contributions per year?

A

40k, can be carried over for 3 years

17
Q

Taxation for Trusts

A

First £1000 = taxed at basic rate, Above £1000 = taxed at additional rate

18
Q

How are bare trusts taxed?

A

The tax is paid at the beneficiaries margin. Liable on trust assets irrespective of whether income is paid out or not

19
Q

CGT Allowance

A

12,300 per year, use it or lose it

20
Q

No capital gains tax on?

A
  • Bonds that pay coupon including gilts, corporate bonds etc.
  • Primary residence
  • Shares in enterprise investment fund schemes
21
Q

Chargeable lifetime transfers

22
Q

Inheritance tax exemption

A

3000 per year, if unused can be carried forward one year

23
Q

Inheritance tax % above nil band

24
Q

VAT is exempt for what stockbroker service?

A

Execution Only

25
EIS, OEIC, GIPS
x
26
LSE Market Makers must
Quote continuous bid and offer prices & indicate a maximum number of shares they will trade
27
When are prospectuses required?
When issuing new shares to the public, not required for script issues or for issues up to 150 people in the UK
28
What is a Eurobond
A security where the currency of the bond and the country of issue are different. Interest is paid gross of withholding tax
29
Who must you report dealings in Eurobonds to?
ICMA
30
Main derivative exchange in the UK?
ICE Futures Europe
31
What does acting as principal mean?
Firs is taking a position "running a book" to make a turn on the trade ex. buy low sell high
32
What are OTC contracts
One-to-one agreements where the contract is completely flexible and non-standardised
33
Benefit to OTC trading
When hedging, the contract can be tailored to this without needing to be continuously rebalanced. Less stringent regulation
34
EMIR Imposes what 3 requirements, on whom?
On those who trade OTC derivatives: 1. To clear through a central counter party 2. To put in place risk management for those OTC derivs that are not centrally cleared 3. Report derivatives to a trade repository
35
What type of system does CREST operate?
Delivery vs. payment
36
What is clearing? Benefits?
Sn organisation becomes counterparty to both buyer and seller of the trade, guaranteeing settlement and eliminating default risk. Also promotes anonymity. Process known as novation.
37
Counterparty risk
The risk that once a contract has been agreed, at least one of the parties will not meet their obligations
38
How is counterparty risk typically managed?
By a clearing house acting as a central counterparty
39